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  • Setting default values for inherited property without using accessor in Objective-C?

    - by Ben Stock
    I always see people debating whether or not to use a property's setter in the -init method. I don't know enough about the Objective-C language yet to have an opinion one way or the other. With that said, lately I've been sticking to ivars exclusively. It seems cleaner in a way. I don't know. I digress. Anyway, here's my problem … Say we have a class called Dude with an interface that looks like this: @interface Dude : NSObject { @private NSUInteger _numberOfGirlfriends; } @property (nonatomic, assign) NSUInteger numberOfGirlfriends; @end And an implementation that looks like this: @implementation Dude - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { _numberOfGirlfriends = 0; } } @end Now let's say I want to extend Dude. My subclass will be called Playa. And since a playa should have mad girlfriends, when Playa gets initialized, I don't want him to start with 0; I want him to have 10. Here's Playa.m: @implementation Playa - (instancetype)init { self = [super init]; if (self) { // Attempting to set the ivar directly will result in the compiler saying, // "Instance variable `_numberOfGirlfriends` is private." // _numberOfGirlfriends = 10; <- Can't do this. // Thus, the only way to set it is with the mutator: self.numberOfGirlfriends = 10; // Or: [self setNumberOfGirlfriends:10]; } } @end So what's a Objective-C newcomer to do? Well, I mean, there's only one thing I can do, and that's set the property. Unless there's something I'm missing. Any ideas, suggestions, tips, or tricks? Sidenote: The other thing that bugs me about setting the ivar directly — and what a lot of ivar-proponents say is a "plus" — is that there are no KVC notifications. A lot of times, I want the KVC magic to happen. 50% of my setters end in [self setNeedsDisplay:YES], so without the notification, my UI doesn't update unless I remember to manually add -setNeedsDisplay. That's a bad example, but the point stands. I utilize KVC all over the place, so without notifications, things can act wonky. Anyway, any info is much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • how to set a polyline on google maps every time when i click twice(make two markers) on maps,

    - by zjm1126
    this is my code : thanks <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//WAPFORUM//DTD XHTML Mobile 1.0//EN" "http://www.wapforum.org/DTD/xhtml-mobile10.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width,minimum-scale=1.0,maximum-scale=5.0,user-scalable=yes"> </head> <body onload="initialize()" onunload="GUnload()"> <style type="text/css"> </style> <div id="map_canvas" style="width: 500px; height: 300px;float:left;"></div> <script src="jquery-1.4.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://maps.google.com/maps?file=api&amp;v=2&amp;key=ABQIAAAA-7cuV3vqp7w6zUNiN_F4uBRi_j0U6kJrkFvY4-OX2XYmEAa76BSNz0ifabgugotzJgrxyodPDmheRA&sensor=false"type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> //********** function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible()){ //var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); //map.setCenter(new GLatLng(39.9493, 116.3975), 13); var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map_canvas")); var center=new GLatLng(39.917,116.397); map.setCenter(center, 13); map.addOverlay(new GMarker(new GLatLng(39.917,116.397))); map.enableDrawing() //GEvent.addListener(map, "mouseover", function() { //alert("???????"); //}); var one; aFn=function(y_scale,x_scale){ //************ //function p(){ var bounds = map.getBounds(); var southWest = bounds.getSouthWest(); var northEast = bounds.getNorthEast(); var lngSpan = northEast.lng() - southWest.lng(); var latSpan = northEast.lat() - southWest.lat(); var point = new GLatLng(southWest.lat() + latSpan * (1-y_scale), southWest.lng() + lngSpan * x_scale); if(!one){ map.addOverlay(new GMarker(point)); one=point; }else{ var polyline = new GPolyline([one,point], "#ff0000", 5); map.addOverlay(polyline); one=0; } } //********** //************* } } </script> </body> </html>

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  • asp.net Web server control with child controls, event not firing

    - by bleeeah
    I have a simple web control (TaskList) that can have children (Task) which inherit from LinkButton, that can be added declaratively or programatically. This works ok, but I can't get the onclick event of a Task to be fired in my code behind. The code .. [ToolboxData("<{0}:TaskList runat=\"server\"> </{0}:TaskList>")] [ParseChildren(true)] [PersistChildren(false)] public class TaskList : System.Web.UI.Control { //[DefaultProperty("Text")] public TaskList() {} private List<Task> _taskList = new List<Task>(); private string _taskHeading = ""; public string Heading { get { return this._taskHeading; } set { this._taskHeading = value; } } [NotifyParentProperty(true)] [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public List<Task> Tasks { get { return this._taskList; } set { this._taskList = value; } } protected override void CreateChildControls() { foreach (Task task in this._taskList) this.Controls.Add(task); base.CreateChildControls(); } protected override void Render(HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("<h2>" + this._taskHeading + "</h2>"); writer.Write("<div class='tasks_container'>"); writer.Write("<div class='tasks_list'>"); writer.Write("<ul>"); foreach (Task task in this._taskList) { writer.Write("<li>"); task.RenderControl(writer); writer.Write("</li>"); } writer.Write("</ul>"); writer.Write("</div>"); writer.Write("</div>"); } } public class Task : LinkButton { private string _key = ""; public string Key { get { return this._key; } set { this._key = value; } } } Markup: <rf:TaskList runat="server" ID="tskList" Heading="Tasks"> <Tasks> <rf:Task Key="ba" ID="L1" Text="Helllo" OnClick="task1_Click" runat="server" /> </Tasks> </rf:TaskList> The Onclick event task1_Click never fires when clicked (although a postback occurs).

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  • SQL Server architecture guidance

    - by Liam
    Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • How to rectify this program?

    - by user1430719
    This is a program to display a pie chart. I also have a button. But the program I have written, creates two separate frames and one frame is for the pie chart and the other is for the button. How do I put both button and pie chart on the same frame?? Can you please rectify my program. import java.awt.*; import org.jfree.chart.*; import org.jfree.chart.title.*; import org.jfree.data.general.DefaultPieDataset; import org.jfree.ui.*; import java.io.*; import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.*; import javax.swing.filechooser.*; public class Pie{ public static void getFile(File f) { System.out.println("File is: "+f.getName()); } public static void main(String[] args) { JPanel panel=new JPanel(); panel.setLayout(null); JButton b=new JButton("Open File"); b.addActionListener(new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { JFileChooser chooser=new JFileChooser(); int ret = chooser.showDialog(null, "Open file"); if (ret == JFileChooser.APPROVE_OPTION) { File file = chooser.getSelectedFile(); getFile(file); } } } ); b.setBounds(50,40,100,35); panel.add(b); DefaultPieDataset pieDataset = new DefaultPieDataset(); pieDataset.setValue("A", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("B", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("C", new Integer(30)); pieDataset.setValue("D", new Integer(10)); pieDataset.setValue("E", new Integer(20)); pieDataset.setValue("F", new Integer(10)); JFreeChart chart = ChartFactory.createPieChart("Pie Chart using JFreeChart", pieDataset, true,true,true); ChartFrame frame1=new ChartFrame("Pie Chart",chart); frame1.add(panel); frame1.setVisible(true); frame1.setSize(600,600); } }

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  • Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

    - by Leoncelot
    Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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  • Android - binding to service

    - by tommy
    Hi: I can't seem to get an activity to bind to a service in the same package. The activity looks like this: public class myApp extends TabActivity { static private String TAG = "myApp"; private myService mService = null; private ServiceConnection mServiceConn = new ServiceConnection(){ public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName name, IBinder service) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " connected"); mService = ((myService.myBinder)service).getService(); } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName name) { Log.v(TAG, "Service: " + name + " disconnected"); } }; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); doBind(); Log.i(TAG, "Started (UI Thread)"); // set content setContentView(R.layout.main); Resources res = getResources(); // Resource object to get Drawables TabHost tabHost = getTabHost(); // The activity TabHost ... add some tabs here.... tabHost.setCurrentTab(0); } private void doBind(){ Intent i = new Intent(this,myService.class); if( bindService(i, mServiceConn, 0 )){ Log.i(TAG, "Service bound"); } else { Log.e(TAG, "Service not bound"); } } } Then the service: public class myService extends Service { private String TAG = "myService"; private boolean mRunning = false; @Override public int onStartCommand(Intent intent, int flags, int startid) { Log.i(TAG,"Service start"); mRunning = true; Log.d(TAG,"Finished onStartCommand"); return START_STICKY; } /* * Called on service stop */ @Override public void onDestroy(){ Log.i(TAG,"onDestroy"); mRunning = false; super.onDestroy(); } @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent intent) { return mBinder; } boolean isRunning() { return mRunning; } /* * class for binding */ private final IBinder mBinder = new myBinder(); public class myBinder extends Binder { myService getService() { return myService.this; } } } bindService returns true, but onServiceConnection is never called (mService is always null, so I can't do something like mService.isRunning() ) The manifest entry for the service is just: <service android:name=".myService"></service> I was copying the code direct from the Android developers site, but I must have missed something.

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  • using AsyncTask class for parallel operationand displaying a progress bar

    - by Kumar
    I am displaying a progress bar using Async task class and simulatneously in parallel operation , i want to retrieve a string array from a function of another class that takes some time to return the string array. The problem is that when i place the function call in doing backgroung function of AsyncTask class , it gives an error in Doing Background and gives the message as cant change the UI in doing Background .. Therefore , i placed the function call in post Execute method of Asynctask class . It doesnot give an error but after the progress bar has reached 100% , then the screen goes black and takes some time to start the new activity. How can i display the progress bar and make the function call simultaneously.??plz help , m in distress here is the code package com.integrated.mpr; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.ProgressDialog; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.AsyncTask; import android.os.Bundle; import android.os.Handler; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class Progess extends Activity implements OnClickListener{ static String[] display = new String[Choose.n]; Button bprogress; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.progress); bprogress = (Button) findViewById(R.id.bProgress); bprogress.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub switch(v.getId()){ case R.id.bProgress: String x ="abc"; new loadSomeStuff().execute(x); break; } } public class loadSomeStuff extends AsyncTask<String , Integer , String>{ ProgressDialog dialog; protected void onPreExecute(){ dialog = new ProgressDialog(Progess.this); dialog.setProgressStyle(ProgressDialog.STYLE_HORIZONTAL); dialog.setMax(100); dialog.show(); } @Override protected String doInBackground(String... arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub for(int i = 0 ;i<40;i++){ publishProgress(5); try { Thread.sleep(1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } dialog.dismiss(); String y ="abc"; return y; } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer...progress){ dialog.incrementProgressBy(progress[0]); } protected void onPostExecute(String result){ display = new Logic().finaldata(); Intent openList = new Intent("com.integrated.mpr.SENSITIVELIST"); startActivity(openList); } } }

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  • C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

    - by Yeti
    I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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  • How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

    - by Adam Jones
    I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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  • How do I hide the text links over a toggleable horizontal list with background images.

    - by Sivakanesh
    I'm trying to create a UL/LI horizontal list with background images only, with no text link visible. The reason for this is so that when I over over a list item, the background would rollover and when I click on it the current item would toggle. basically it is a horizontal menu with background images that can be toggled; mimicking the job of a radio button. I have done it like this; <div id="options"> <ul id="list"> <li class="active"><a href="#" class="option1 active" id="link1"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option2" id="link2"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> <li><a href="#" class="option3" id="link3"><span>XXXXX</span></a></li> </ul> </div> The CSS for option1, option2 and option3 simply define the background image. #options LI{list-style-type: none; display : inline} a.option1{ background:url('../images/option1.png') no-repeat;} a.option2{ background:url('../images/option2.png') no-repeat;} a.option3{ background:url('../images/option3.png') no-repeat;} a.option1, a.option2, a.option3{ background-position:top; display:inline; width:230px; height:40px; } And the hover & active css part simply sets the background position like so- a.option1:hover, a.option2:hover, a.option3:hover{ background-position:bottom; } a.active{ background-position:bottom !important; } This works fine, however on top of the background I get the words "XXXXX" as text links and I'm struggling to hide them. They are interfering with the hover action and preventing rollover (even if I replace XXXXX with a period or something short). I can't just remove the text from the link as it would hide the whole LI element. I have tried to use display:none; or text-indent:-999px but then the whole UI element becomes invisible. I can't understand what I'm doing wrong. Are you able to help? Thanks

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  • how to update only the updated rows in gridview?

    - by user603007
    what is the handiest way to update only the updated rows (only the checkbox column) in this gridview? what is a handy way to check wether the row was updated? c# public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<customer> listCustomer = new List<customer>(); customer cust1 = new customer(){name="fred",email="[email protected]",jobless="true"}; customer cust2 = new customer(){name="mark",email="[email protected]",jobless="false"}; listCustomer.Add(cust1); listCustomer.Add(cust2); GridView1.DataSource=listCustomer; GridView1.DataBind(); } } protected void btnUpdate_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (GridViewRow rw in GridView1.Rows) { CheckBox thiscontrol = (CheckBox)rw.Cells[0].FindControl("cb"); var ch = thiscontrol.Checked; //only update the updated rows? } } public class customer { public string name { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public string jobless { get; set; } } html <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="gridviewUpdate._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="jobless" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("jobless").ToString().Equals("true") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div>

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  • Can XPath concatenate two nodeset values? (for use in XForms)

    - by iHeartGreek
    Hi! I am wanting to concatenate two nodeset values using XPath in XForms. I know that XPath has a concat(string, string) function, but how would I go about concatenating two nodeset values? BEGIN EDIT: I tried concat function.. I tried this.. and variations of it to make it work, but it doesn't <xf:value ref="concat(instance('param_choices')/choice/root, .)"/> END EDIT Below is a simplified code example of what I am trying to achieve. XForms model: <xf:instance id="param_choices" xmlns=""> <choices> <root label="Param Choices">/param</root> <choice label="Name">/@AAA</choice> <choice label="Value">/@BBB</choice> </choices> </xf:instance> XForms ui code that I currently have: <xf:select ref="instance('criteria_data')/criteria/criterion" appearance="full"> <xf:label>Param choices:</xf:label> <br/> <xf:itemset nodeset="instance('param_choices')/choice"> <xf:label ref="@label"></xf:label> <xf:value ref="."></xf:value> </xf:itemset> </xf:select> (if user selects "Name" checkbox..) the XML output is: <criterion>/@BBB</criterion> However! I want to combine the root nodeset value with the current choice nodeset value. Essentially: <xf:value ref="(instance('definition_choices')/choice/root) + ."/> to achieve the following XML output: <criterion>/param/@BBB</criterion> Any suggestions on how to do this? (I am fairly new to XPath and XForms) p.s. what I am asking makes sense to me when I typed it out, but if you have trouble figuring out what I'm asking, just let me know.. thanks!

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • invalid postback event instead of dropdown to datagrid

    - by rima
    I faced with funny situation. I created a page which is having some value, I set these value and control my post back event also. The problem is happening when I change a component index(ex reselect a combobox which is not inside my datagrid) then I dont know why without my page call the Page_Load it goes to create a new row in grid function and all of my parameter are null! I am just receiving null exception. So in other word I try to explain the situation: when I load my page I am initializing some parameter. then everything is working fine. in my page when I change selected item of my combo box, page suppose to go and run function related to that combo box, and call page_load, but it is not going there and it goes to rowcreated function. I am trying to illustrate part of my page. Please help me because I am not receiving any error except null exception and it triger wrong even which seems so complicated for me. public partial class W_CM_FRM_02 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack && !loginFail) return; InitializeItems(); } } private void InitializeItems() { cols = new string[] { "v_classification_code", "v_classification_name" }; arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION = (ArrayList)db.Select(cols, "CMMM_CLASSIFICATION", "v_classification_code <> 'N'", " ORDER BY v_classification_name"); } } protected void DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { //db = (Database)Session["oCon"]; foreach (DataRow dr in arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION) ((DropDownList)DGV_RFA_DETAILS.Rows[index].Cells[4].FindControl("OV_RFA_CLASSIFICATION")).Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["v_classification_name"].ToString(), dr["v_classification_code"].ToString())); } protected void V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "xxx" || V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "ddd") V_IMPACTED_FUNCTIONS.Enabled = true; } } my form: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="W_CM_FRM_02.aspx.cs" Inherits="W_CM_FRM_02" Title="W_CM_FRM_02" enableeventvalidation="false" EnableViewState="true"%> <td>Project name*</td> <td><asp:DropDownList ID="V_CUSTOMER" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged" /></td> <td colspan = "8"> <asp:GridView ID="DGV_RFA_DETAILS" runat="server" ShowFooter="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CellPadding="1" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" OnRowDeleting="grvRFADetails_RowDeleting" Width="100%" Style="text-align: left" onrowcreated="DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated"> <RowStyle BackColor="#FFFBD6" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ON_RowNumber" HeaderText="SNo" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="RFA/RAD/Ticket No*"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="OV_RFA_NO" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField>

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  • Sync services not actually syncing

    - by Paul Mrozowski
    I'm attempting to sync a SQL Server CE 3.5 database with a SQL Server 2008 database using MS Sync Services. I am using VS 2008. I created a Local Database Cache, connected it with SQL Server 2008 and picked the tables I wanted to sync. I selected SQL Server Tracking. It modified the database for change tracking and created a local copy (SDF) of the data. I need two way syncing so I created a partial class for the sync agent and added code into the OnInitialized() to set the SyncDirection for the tables to Bidirectional. I've walked through with the debugger and this code runs. Then I created another partial class for cache server sync provider and added an event handler into the OnInitialized() to hook into the ApplyChangeFailed event. This code also works OK - my code runs when there is a conflict. Finally, I manually made some changes to the server data to test syncing. I use this code to fire off a sync: var agent = new FSEMobileCacheSyncAgent(); var syncStats = agent.Synchronize(); syncStats seems to show the count of the # of changes I made on the server and shows that they were applied. However, when I open the local SDF file none of the changes are there. I basically followed the instructions I found here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc761546%28SQL.105%29.aspx and here: http://keithelder.net/blog/archive/2007/09/23/Sync-Services-for-SQL-Server-Compact-Edition-3.5-in-Visual.aspx It seems like this should "just work" at this point, but the changes made on the server aren't in the local SDF file. I guess I'm missing something but I'm just not seeing it right now. I thought this might be because I appeared to be using version 1 of Sync Services so I removed the references to Microsoft.Synchronization.* assemblies, installed the Sync framework 2.0 and added the new version of the assemblies to the project. That hasn't made any difference. Ideas? Edit: I wanted to enable tracing to see if I could track this down but the only way to do that is through a WinForms app since it requires entries in the app.config file (my original project was a class library). I created a WinForms project and recreated everything and suddenly everything is working. So apparently this requires a WinForm project for some reason? This isn't really how I planned on using this - I had hoped to kick off syncing through another non-.NET application and provide the UI there so the experience was a bit more seemless to the end user. If I can't do that, that's OK, but I'd really like to know if/how to make this work as a class library project instead.

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  • Zend Framework-where should this root.php file go for MVC?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I'm converting over a web-app to use the MVC structure of Zend Framework. I have a root.php include file that contains most of the database info, and some static variables that are used in the program. I'm not sure if some of this should be in the application.ini of in a model that is called by the init() function in a controller, or in the bootstrap or what? Any help would be much appreciated! root.php (include file at the top of every php page): <?php /*** //Configuration file */ ## Site Configuration starts ## define("SITE_ROOT" , dirname(__FILE__)); define("SITE_URL" , "http://localhost/monkeycalendarapp/monkeycalendarapp/public"); define('DB_HOST', "localhost"); define('DB_USER', "root"); define('DB_PASS', "xxx"); define('DB_NAME', "xxxxx"); define("PROJECT_NAME" , "Monkey Mind Manager (beta 2.2)"); //site title define("CALENDAR_WIDTH" , "300"); //left mini calendar width define("CALENDAR_HEIGHT" , "150"); //left mini calendar height $page_title = 'Event List'; $stylesheet_name = 'style.css'; //default stylesheet define("SITE_URL_AJAX" , SITE_URL . "/ajax-tooltip"); define("JQUERY" , SITE_URL . "/jquery-ui-1.7.2"); $a_times = array("12:00","12:30","01:00","01:30","02:00","02:30","03:00","03:30","04:00","04:30","05:00","05:30","06:00","06:30","07:00","07:30","08:00","08:30","09:00","09:30","10:00","10:30","11:00","11:30"); //PTLType Promotional timeline type $a_ptlType= array(1=>"Gigs","To-Do","Completed"); $a_days = array("Su","Mo","Tu","We","Th","Fr","Sa"); $a_timesMerd = array("12:00am","12:30am","01:00am","01:30am","02:00am","02:30am","03:00am","03:30am","04:00am","04:30am","05:00am","05:30am","06:00am","06:30am","07:00am","07:30am","08:00am","08:30am","09:00am","09:30am","10:00am","10:30am","11:00am","11:30am","12:00pm","12:30pm","01:00pm","01:30pm","02:00pm","02:30pm","03:00pm","03:30pm","04:00pm","04:30pm","05:00pm","05:30pm","06:00pm","06:30pm","07:00pm","07:30pm","08:00pm","08:30pm","09:00pm","09:30pm","10:00pm","10:30pm","11:00pm","11:30pm"); //Setting stylesheet for this user. $AMPM=array("am"=>"am","pm"=>"pm"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/functions/general.php"); include(SITE_ROOT . "/includes/db.php"); session_start(); if(isset($_SESSION['userData']['UserID'])) { $s_userID = $_SESSION['userData']['UserID']; } $stylesheet_name = stylesheet(); ini_set('date.timezone', 'GMT'); date_default_timezone_set('GMT'); if($s_userID) { ini_set('date.timezone', $_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); date_default_timezone_set($_SESSION['userData']['timezone']); } ?>

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  • RIM blackberry Record 3GP video

    - by pankaj_shukla
    Hi All, I am writing an application that can record a 3GP video. I have tried both MMAPI and Invoke API. But have following issues. Using MMAPI: 1. When I record to stream, It records video in RIMM streaming format. when I try to play this video player gives error "Unsupported media format.". 2. When I record to a file. It will create a file of size 0. Using Invoke API: 1. In MMS mode it does not allow to record a video more than 30 seconds. 2. In Normal mode size of the file is very large. 3. Once I invoke camera application I do not have any control on application. Here is my source code: _player = javax.microedition.media.Manager .createPlayer("capture://video?encoding=video/3gpp&mode=mms"); // I have tried every encoding returns from System.getProperty("video.encodings") method _player.realize(); _videoControl = (VideoControl) _player.getControl("VideoControl"); _recordControl = (RecordControl) _player.getControl("RecordControl"); _volumeControl = (VolumeControl) _player.getControl("VolumeControl"); String videoPath = System.getProperty("fileconn.dir.videos"); if (videoPath == null) { videoPath = "file:///store/home/user/videos/"; } _recordControl.setRecordLocation(videoPath + "RecordedVideo.3gp"); _player.addPlayerListener(this); Field videoField = (Field) _videoControl.initDisplayMode( VideoControl.USE_GUI_PRIMITIVE, "net.rim.device.api.ui.Field"); _videoControl.setVisible(true); add(videoField); _player.start(); ON start menu item Selection: try { _recordControl.startRecord(); } catch (Exception e) { _player.close(); showAlert(e.getClass() + " " + e.getMessage()); } On stop menuItem selection: try { _recordControl.commit(); } catch (Exception e) { _player.close(); showAlert(e.getClass() + " " + e.getMessage()); } Please let me if I am doing something wrong. Thanks, Pankaj

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  • Ping remote server and wait to get data

    - by infinity
    Hi I'm building my first application for android and I've reached a point where I can't find a solution even have no idea what to search for in Google. So the problem: I am pinging a remote server with GET request through the application passing some parameters like file_id. Then the server gives back confirmation if the file exists or error otherwise, both in plain text. The error string is $$$ERROR$$$. Actually the confirmation is JSON string that holds the path to the file. If the file doesn't exists on the server it generated the error message and start downloading the file and processing it which normally takes 10-30 seconds. What would be the best way to check if the file is ready for download? I have DownloadFile class that extends AsyncTask but before I reach the point to download the file I need the URL which is dependant on the previous request which is in the main class in the UI thread. Here is some code: public class MainActivity extends Activity { private String getInfo() { // Create a new HttpClient and Post Header HttpClient httpClient = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpGet httpPost = new HttpGet(infoUrl); StringBuilder sb = null; String data; JSONObject jObject = null; try { HttpResponse response = httpClient.execute(httpPost); // This might be equal "$$$ERROR$$$" if no file exists sb = inputStreamToString(response.getEntity().getContent()); } catch(ClientProtocolException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem ClientProtocolException: ", e.toString()); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block Log.v("Error: pushItem IOException: ", e.toString()); } // Clean the data to be complaint JSON format data = sb.toString().replace("info = ", ""); try { jObject = new JSONObject(data); data = jObject.getString("h"); fileTitle = jObject.getString("title"); } catch (JSONException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } downloadUrl = String.format(downloadUrl, fileId, data); return downloadUrl; } } So my idea was to get the content and if equal to $$$ERROR$$$ go into loop until JSON data is passed but I guess there is better solution. Note: I don't have control over the server output so have to deal with what I have.

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  • Translate parse_git_branch function to zsh from bash (for prompt)

    - by yar
    I am using this function in Bash function parse_git_branch { git_status="$(git status 2> /dev/null)" pattern="^# On branch ([^${IFS}]*)" if [[ ! ${git_status}} =~ "working directory clean" ]]; then state="*" fi # add an else if or two here if you want to get more specific if [[ ${git_status} =~ ${pattern} ]]; then branch=${BASH_REMATCH[1]} echo "(${branch}${state})" fi } but I'm determined to use zsh. While I can use this perfectly as a shell script (even without a shebang) in my .zshrc the error is a parse error on this line if [[ ! ${git_status}}... What do I need to do to get it ready for zshell? Edit: The "actual error" I'm getting is " parse error near } and it refers to the line with the strange double }}, which works on Bash. Edit: Here's the final code, just for fun: parse_git_branch() { git_status="$(git status 2> /dev/null)" pattern="^# On branch ([^[:space:]]*)" if [[ ! ${git_status} =~ "working directory clean" ]]; then state="*" fi if [[ ${git_status} =~ ${pattern} ]]; then branch=${match[1]} echo "(${branch}${state})" fi } setopt PROMPT_SUBST PROMPT='$PR_GREEN%n@$PR_GREEN%m%u$PR_NO_COLOR:$PR_BLUE%2c$PR_NO_COLOR%(!.#.$)' RPROMPT='$PR_GREEN$(parse_git_branch)$PR_NO_COLOR' Thanks to everybody for your patience and help. Edit: The best answer has schooled us all: git status is porcelain (UI). Good scripting goes against GIT plumbing. Here's the final function: parse_git_branch() { in_wd="$(git rev-parse --is-inside-work-tree 2>/dev/null)" || return test "$in_wd" = true || return state='' git diff-index HEAD --quiet 2>/dev/null || state='*' branch="$(git symbolic-ref HEAD 2>/dev/null)" test -z "$branch" && branch='<detached-HEAD>' echo "(${branch#refs/heads/}${state})" } PROMPT='$PR_GREEN%n@$PR_GREEN%m%u$PR_NO_COLOR:$PR_BLUE%2c$PR_NO_COLOR%(!.#.$)' RPROMPT='$PR_GREEN$(parse_git_branch)$PR_NO_COLOR' Note that only the prompt is zsh-specific. In Bash it would be your prompt plus "\$(parse_git_branch)". This might be slower (more calls to GIT, but that's an empirical question) but it won't be broken by changes in GIT (they don't change the plumbing). And that is very important for a good script moving forward. Days Later: Ugh, it turns out that diff-index HEAD is NOT the same as checking status against working directory clean. So will this mean another plumbing call? I surely don't have time/expertise to write my own porcelain....

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  • What web platform is right for me?

    - by egervari
    I've been looking at web frameworks like Rails, Grails, etc. I'm used to doing applications in Spring Framework with Hibernate... and I want something more productive. One of the things I realized is that while some of the things in Grails is sexy, there are some serious problems with it. Grails' controllers: 1) are implemented awfully. They don't seem to be able to extend from super classes at runtime. I tried this to add base actions and helper methods, and this seems to cause grails to blow up. 2) are based on an obsolete request parameters model (rather than form backing objects, which are much nicer). 3) are hard to test. Command objects are treated totally differently... and it's actually MUCH harder to write the test than it is to write the controller code. 4) Command objects operate totally differently. They are pre-validated and bound, which causes a lot of inconsistencies than basic parameter model. 5) Command objects are not reusable, and it's a pain in the rear to reuse most of the stuff from the domain classes, like constraints and fields. This is TRIVIAL to do in basic Spring. Why the hell was it not trivial to do in Grails? 6) The scaffolding that is generated is pure crap. It doesn't generalize inserts and updates... and it actually copy/pastes a pile of code in two views: create.gsp and edit.gsp. The views themselves are gargantuan piles of doggie do-do. This is further compounded by the fact that it uses low-level parameters and not objects. Integration tests are 30x slower than a Spring integration test. It is disgusting. Some mocking tests are so hard to write and aren't guaranteed to work when it's deployed, that I think it discourages fast, tdd test cycles. Most things seem to screw up grails while it's running, like adding a taglib, or anything really. The server restart problem wasn't solved at all. I'm starting to think going with Spring/Hibernate/Java is the only way to go. While there is a pretty big cost at startup, I know it'll eventually smooth out. It sucks I can't use a language like Scala... because idiomatically, it is so incompatible with Hibernate. This app is also not a run-of-the-mill UI over a database. It's got some of that, but it's not going to be a slouch. I am deathly scared of Grails now because of how crap it is in the Controller layer. Suggestions on what I can do?

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  • Improving Javascript Load Times - Concatenation vs Many + Cache

    - by El Yobo
    I'm wondering which of the following is going to result in better performance for a page which loads a large amount of javascript (jQuery + jQuery UI + various other javascript files). I have gone through most of the YSlow and Google Page Speed stuff, but am left wondering about a particular detail. A key thing for me here is that the site I'm working on is not on the public net; it's a business to business platform where almost all users are repeat visitors (and therefore with caches of the data, which is something that YSlow assumes will not be the case for a large number of visitors). First up, the standard approach recommended by tools such as YSlow is to concatenate it, compress it, and serve it up in a single file loaded at the end of your page. This approach sounds reasonably effective, but I think that a key part of the reasoning here is to improve performance for users without cached data. The system I currently have is something like this * All javascript files are compressed and loaded at the bottom of the page * All javascript files have far future cache expiration dates, so will remain (for most users) in the cache for a long time * Pages only load the javascript files that they require, rather than loading one monolithic file, most of which will not be required Now, my understanding is that, if the cache expiration date for a javascript file has not been reached, then the cached version is used immediately; there is no HTTP request sent at to the server at all. If this is correct, I would assume that having multiple tags is not causing any performance penalty, as I'm still not having any additional requests on most pages (recalling from above that almost all users have populated caches). In addition to this, not loading the JS means that the browser doesn't have to interpret or execute all this additional code which it isn't going to need; as a B2B application, most of our users are unfortunately stuck with IE6 and its painfully slow JS engine. Another benefit is that, when code changes, only the affected files need to be fetched again, rather than the whole set (granted, it would only need to be fetched once, so this is not so much of a benefit). I'm also looking at using LabJS to allow for parallel loading of the JS when it's not cached. So, what do people think is a better approach? In a similar vein, what do you think about a similar approach to CSS - is monolithic better?

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  • Architecture Suggestions/Recommendations for a Web Application with Sub-Apps

    - by user579218
    Hello. I’m starting to plan an architecture for a big web application, and I wanted to get suggestions and/or recommendations on where to begin and which technologies and/or frameworks to use. The application will be an Intranet-based web site using Windows authentication, running on IIS and using SQL Server and ASP.NET. It’ll need to be structured as a main/shell application with sub-applications that are “pluggable” based on some configuration settings. The main or shell application is to provide the overall user interface structure – header/footer, dynamically built tabs for each available sub-app, and a content area in which the sub-application will be loaded when the user clicks on the sub-application’s tab. So, on start-up of the main/shell application, configuration information will be queried from a database, and, based on the user and which of the sub-apps are available, the main or shell app would dynamically build tabs (or buttons or something) as a way to access each individual application. On start-up, the content area will be populated with the “home” sub-app. But, clicking on an sub-app tab will cause the content area to be populated with the sub-app corresponding to the tab. For example, we’re going to have a reports application, a display application, and probably a couple other distinct applications. On startup of the main/shell application, after determining who the user is, the main app will query the database to determine which sub-apps the user can use and build out the UI. Then the user can navigate between available sub-apps and do their work in each. Finally, the entire app and all sub-apps need to be a layered design with presentation, service, business, and data access layers, as well as cross-cutting objects for things such as logging, exception handling, etc. Anyway, my questions revolve around where to begin to plan something like this application. What technologies/frameworks would work best in developing a solution for this application? MVC? MVP? WCSF? EF? NHibernate? Enterprise Library? Repository Pattern? Others???? I know all these technologies/frameworks are not used for the same purpose, but knowing which ones to focus on is a little overwhelming. Which ones would be the best choice(s) for a solution? Which ones work well together for an end-to-end design? How would one structure the VS project for something like this? Thanks!

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  • jquery in ajax loaded content

    - by Kim Gysen
    My application is supposed to be a single page application and I have the following code that works fine: home.php: <div id="container"> </div> accordion.php: //Click functions: load content $('#parents').click(function(){ //Load parent in container $('#container').load('http://www.blabla.com/entities/parents/parents.php'); }); parents.php: <div class="entity_wrapper"> Some divs and selectors </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ //Some jQuery / javascript }); </script> So the content loads fine, while the scripts dynamically loaded execute fine as well. I apply this system repetitively and it continues to work smoothly. I've seen that there are a lot of frameworks available on SPA's (such as backbone.js) but I don't understand why I need them if this works fine. From the backbone.js website: When working on a web application that involves a lot of JavaScript, one of the first things you learn is to stop tying your data to the DOM. It's all too easy to create JavaScript applications that end up as tangled piles of jQuery selectors and callbacks, all trying frantically to keep data in sync between the HTML UI, your JavaScript logic, and the database on your server. For rich client-side applications, a more structured approach is often helpful. Well, I totally don't have the feeling that I'm going through the stuff they mention. Adding the javascript per page works really well for me. They are html containers with clear scope and the javascript is just related to that part. More over, the front end doesn't do that much, most of the logic is managed based on Ajax calls to external PHP scripts. Sometimes the js can be a bit more extended for some functionalities, but all just loads as smooth in less than a second. If you think that this is bad coding, please tell me why I cannot do this and more importantly, what is the alternative I should apply. At the moment, I really don't see a reason on why I would change this approach as it just works too well. I'm kinda stuck on this question because it just worries me sick as it seems to easy to be true. Why would people go through hard times if it would be as easy as this...

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