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  • Moving UIScrollView in App

    - by jsetting32
    Currently, I am attempting to create the same effect as Yahoo! Weather's App where the vital day information is at the bottom of the page on the top of a UIScrollView, that's contained by a UIView. I am having a hard time thinking about how this is going to happen or how I should implement this. If the user taps on the top of the UIScrollView which is located near the bottom of the laoded UIView, and starts to scroll up (/), the UIScrollView's frame should be moved to the TOP of the current UIView's frame. So the UIScrollView's y-value should change to UIView's (self.view.frame.origin.y) if the user starts scrolling UP on the UIScrollView which is located on the UIView's y-pixel ~280. Here's what the UIViewController should look like in the beginning of loading the ViewController... Then once the user slides his finger from the bottom to the top of the screen... this should happen........ And when the user scrolls to the top of the UIScrollView with all the content within it... the view should go back to the start picture shown... How is this done? I was thinking several UIGestureRecognizer's and Instantiating the UIscrollview at the lower part of the UIView... _weatherView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(self.view.frame.origin.x, self.view.frame.origin.y + 250, self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height - 44)]; _weatherView.contentSize = CGSizeMake(self.view.bounds.size.width, self.view.bounds.size.height * 4); _weatherView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:_weatherView]; The adding some UIGestureRecognizer delegate method.... But anyone have any ideas on the UIGestureRecognizer delegate method? And how it should be implemented? I can write the psuedo-code but I am having problems finding the delegate methods :P Thank you!!! ---- Break Time.... :)

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  • [iText] Inserting Image onCloseDocument

    - by David
    I'm trying to insert an image in the footer of my document using iText's onCloseDocument event. I have the following code: public void onCloseDocument(PdfWriter writer, Document document) { PdfContentByte pdfByte = writer.getDirectContent(); try { // logo is a non-null global variable Image theImage = new Jpeg(logo); pdfByte.addImage(theImage, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f, 400.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } The code throws no exceptions, but it also fails to insert the image. This identical code is used onOpenDocument to insert the same logo. The only difference between the two methods are the coordinates in pdfByte.addImage. However, I've tried quite a few different coordinations in onCloseDocument and none of them appear anywhere in my document. Is there any troubleshooting technique for detecting content which is displayed off-page in a PDF? If not, can anyone see the problem with my onCloseDocument method? Edit: As a followup, it seems that onDocumentClose puts its content on page document.length() + 1 (according to its API). However, I don't know how to change the page number back to document.length() and place my logo on the last page.

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  • Multiple websites, Single sign-on design

    - by Yannis
    Hi all, I have a question. A client I have been doing some work recently has a range of websites with different login mechanisms. He is looking to slowly migrate to a single sign-on mechanism for his websites (all written in asp.net mvc). I am looking at my options here, so here is a list of requirements: 1) It has to be secure (duh) 2) It needs to support extra user properties over and above the usual name, address stuff (such as money or credits for a user) 3) It has to provide a centralized user management web console for his convenience (I understand that this will be a small project on top of whatever design solution I choose to go for) 4) It has to integrate with the existing websites without re-engineering the whole product (I understand that this depends on the current product implementation). 5) It has to deal with emailing the user when he registers (in order for him to activate his account) 6) It has to deal with activating the user when he clicks the activate me link in the email (I understand that 5 and 6 require some form of email templating system to support different emails per application) I was thinking of creating a library working together with forms authentication that exposes whatever methods are required (e.g. login, logout, activate, etc. and a small restful service to implement activation from email, registration processing etc. Taking into account that loads of things have been left out to make this question brief and to the point, does this sound like a good design? But this looks like a very common problem so arent there any existing projects that I could use? Thanks for reading.

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  • Checking if radio buttons are checked in Firefox

    - by Andrew Song
    On my site, I have two checkboxes created in my ASP.NET MVC view like so: Html.RadioButton("check", "true", "true" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check1"}); Html.RadioButton("check", "false", "false" == (string) ViewData["someKey"], new { id = "check2"}); I am positive that ViewData["someKey"] has the value "true" in it. In my JS init function, I perform the following check: alert($('#check1').is(':checked') + " " + $('#check2').is(':checked')); In Firefox (and only Firefox), my alert dialog will show the following (it works as expected in every other browser): Initial page load: true false Normal refresh via Ctrl + R: false false Refresh skipping cache via Ctrl + Shift + R: true false I have tried many different methods of looking at the checkbox value, including $('#check1').attr('checked') without success. If I examine the HTML in Firebug, I can see that the first radio button has the property checked="checked" in it. Why is the checkbox value changing in FF when I refresh, and how can I mitigate this? Since this seems to be a FF-only bug, how can I change my code to make it work? This SO question seemed to ask something similar, but none of the proposed solutions seem to work in this case. Edit: I should also point out that when the radio button is rendered after the refresh in FF, it's not actually being displayed as checked either, despite what the HTML is telling me. Edit2: Adding raw HTML as per request <input id="check1" type="radio" value="True" name="check" checked="checked"/> <input id="check2" type="radio" value="False" name="check"/>

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  • How to detect changing directory size in Perl

    - by materiamage
    Hello, I am trying to find a way of monitoring directories in Perl, in particular the size of a directory, and upon detecting a change in directory size, perform a particular action. The issue I have is with large files that require a noticeable amount of time to copy into this directory, i.e. 100MB. What happens (in Windows, not Unix) is the system reserves enough disk space for the entire file, even though the file is still copying in progress. This causes problems for me, because my script will try to perform an action on this file that has not finished copying over. I can easily detect directory size changes in Unix via 'du', but 'du' in Windows does not behave the same way. Are there any accurate methods of detecting directory size changes in Perl? Edit: Some points to clarify: - My Perl script is only monitoring a particular directory, and upon detecting a new file or a new directory, perform an action on this new file or directory. It is not copying any files; users on the network will be copying files into the directory I am monitoring. - The problem occurs when a new file or directory appears (copied, not moved) that is significantly large ( 100MB, but usually a couple GB) and my program fires before this copy completes - In Unix I can easily 'du' to see that the file/directory in question is growing in size, and take the appropriate action - In Windows the size is static, so I cannot detect this change - opendir/readdir/closedir is not feasible, as some of the directories that appear may contain thousands of files, and I want to avoid the overhead of Ideally I would like my program to be triggered on change, but I am not sure how to do this. As of right now it busy waits until it detects a change. The change in file/directory size is not in my control.

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  • Visual C++ overrides/mock objects for unit testing?

    - by Mark
    When I'm running unit tests, I want to be able to "stub out" or create a mock object, but I'm running into DLL Hell. For example: There are two DLL libraries built: A.dll and B.dll -- Classes in A.dll have calls to classes in B.dll so when A.dll was built, the link line was using B.lib for the defintions. My test driver (Foo.exe) is testing classes in A.dll, so it links against A.lib. However, I want to "stub out" some of the calls A.dll makes to B.dll with simple versions (return basic value, no DB look up, etc). I can't build an Override.dll that just overrides the needed methods (not entire classes) and replace B.dll because Foo.exe will A) complain that B.dll is missing if I just remove it and put Override.dll in it's place or B) if I rename Override.dll to B.dll, Foo.exe complains that there are unresolved symbols because Override.dll is not a complete implementation of B.dll. Is there a way to do this? Is there a way to statically link Foo.exe with A.lib, B.lib and Override.lib such that it will work without having to completely rebuild A.lib and B.lib to remove the __delcspec(dllexport)? Is there another option?

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  • What should I do if i have a factory method which requires different parameters for different implem

    - by Sam Holder
    I have an interface, IMessage and a class which have several methods for creating different types of message like so: class MessageService { IMessage TypeAMessage(param 1, param 2) IMessage TypeBMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3, param 4) IMessage TypeCMessage(param 1, param 2, param 3) IMessage TypeDMessage(param 1) } I don't want this class to do all the work for creating these messages so it simply delegates to a MessageCreatorFactory which produces an IMessageCreator depending on the type given (an enumeration based on the type of the message TypeA, TypeB, TypeC etc) interface IMessageCreator { IMessage Create(MessageParams params); } So I have 4 implementations of IMessageCreator: TypeAMessageCreator, TypeBMessageCreator, TypeCMessageCreator, TypeDMessageCreator I ok with this except for the fact that because each type requires different parameters I have had to create a MessageParams object which contains 4 properties for the 4 different params, but only some of them are used in each IMessageCreator. Is there an alternative to this? One other thought I had was to have a param array as the parameter in the Create emthod, but this seems even worse as you don't have any idea what the params are. Or to create several overloads of Create in the interface and have some of them throw an exception if they are not suitable for that particular implementation (ie you called a method which needs more params, so you should have called one of the other overloads.) Does this seem ok? Is there a better solution?

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • How to return a value from facebook javascript connect api fucntions

    - by dezwald
    I am trying to create wrapper functions on facebook javascript connect api methods. My problem is that i can not return a value within the facebook api FB_RequireFeatures method. i want my isFBConnected() function to return true or false based on if i'm logged into facebook or not. What is happening is that when i return true it returns it to the child function, which makes sense however, my global "login" variable does not get set to true. I've tried setting a timeout to wait until the facebook connect finishes executing and still no luck. any help or other solutions are welcome! my isFBConnected wrapper function is stated below: function isFBConnected(){ var api_key = '<?=$this->apiKey?>'; var channel_path = '<?=$this->xdReceiver?>'; var host_url = '<?=$this->hostUrl?>'; var servicePathShort = '<?=$this->servicePathShort?>'; var login = false; FB_RequireFeatures(["Api"], function(){ // Create an ApiClient object, passing app's API key and // a site relative URL to xd_receiver.htm FB.Facebook.init(api_key, channel_path); var api = FB.Facebook.apiClient; // If FB user session exists - load stats data if(api.get_session()!=null){ if(api.get_session().uid!='' && api.get_session().uid!=undefined){ login = true; alert(api.get_session().uid); return true; } } login = false; return false; }); return false; }

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • Force sending a user to custom QuerySet.

    - by Jack M.
    I'm trying to secure an application so that users can only see objects which are assigned to them. I've got a custom QuerySet which works for this, but I'm trying to find a way to force the use of this additional functionality. Here is my Model: class Inquiry(models.Model): ts = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) assigned_to_user = models.ForeignKey(User, blank=True, null=True, related_name="assigned_inquiries") objects = CustomQuerySetManager() class QuerySet(QuerySet): def for_user(self, user): return self.filter(assigned_to_user=user) (The CustomQuerySetManager is documented over here, if it is important.) I'm trying to force everything to use this filtering, so that other methods will raise an exception. For example: Inquiry.objects.all() ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.filter(pk=69) ## Should raise an exception. Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user).filter(pk=69) ## Should work. inqs = Inquiry.objects.for_user(request.user) ## Should work. inqs.filter(pk=69) ## Should work. It seems to me that there should be a way to force the security of these objects by allowing only certain users to access them. I am not concerned with how this might impact the admin interface.

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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  • php error reporting - having trouble matching local & web server settings

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm trying to add a custom error handler to my site, but in doing so have discovered that my webhost's PHP error reporting settings and those of my localhost (default XAMPP) vary considerably. While I thought I was programming to E_STRICT like a good little boy, adding the error handler to my webhost revealed craploads of Runtime Notices. Example: Runtime notice strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'America/Chicago' for 'CST/-6.0/no DST' instead In /home/... Clearly this isn't a red-alert, showstopping error. But what bothers me is that it doesn't show up on my localhost. I'd certainly like to improve my code by addressing these sorts of issues if I could see them! I've looked through both php.ini files, and my webhost's setting is error_reporting = E_ALL & ~E_NOTICE whereas mine was error_reporting = E_STRICT, which I had thought was better. However, changing mine to match and rebooting the server doesn't seem to have accomplished anything. Could someone please point me in the right direction?

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  • Rails 3 : Can't get form_for to work as a 'delete' following the RESTful achitecture => always giving a ROUTING ERROR

    - by Alex
    I have a very simple render that goes as follow: <%= form_for(:relationships, :url => relationships_path, :html => {:method => 'delete'}) do |f| %> <div><%= f.hidden_field :user_id_to_unfollow, :value => @user.id %></div> <div class="actions"><%= f.submit "Unfollow" %></div> <% end %> When I submit this form it will always give me a Routing Error No route matches "/relationships" on my page. In my relationships controller, I have created all the propers methods: def create ... end def destroy ... end def update ... end def show ... end And in my routes config I have made sure to allow all routes for the relationships controller resources :relationships But I can't seem to get into the destroy method of the controller :( However if I remove the :html => {:method => 'delete'} method parameter in the form_for then I get to the create method of the controller no pb. I don't get it.... Alex

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  • eclipse show errors but compiles when external makefile

    - by Anthony
    I have some c++ code using CImg and Eigen libraries. At the c++ code I define a plugin like this #define cimg_plugin1 "my_plugin.h" #include "CImg.h" The plugin contains many method definitions that are used at the c++ code. I also have a makefile that when called from the command line (./make), allows me to compile everything, and generates an executable. I want to import this code into a new Eclipse project, and I do it so: NewProjectC++ projectmakefile projectempty project unmark "Use default location", and select the folder containing my code at the filesystem ProjectpropertiesC/C++ Buildunmark "Use default build command" and set it to use my makefile Also in project propertiesC/C++ GeneralPaths and SymbolsAdd paths to folders containing Eigen and CImg Rebuild index Clean project Restart eclipse When I build the project, eclipse tells me I have more than 1000 errors in "my_plugin.h", but it is capable to generate the executable. Even though, I would like to get rid of this errors, because they are annoying. Also, if I want to open the declaration of CImg methods used at the plugin, I can't. I know it has been asked before, but any of the solutions I found were satisfactory for me (most of them enumerated at the previous list). The sources I visited are the following, and I would be really happy if you find and tell me others I didn't see. Eclipse shows errors but project compile fine eclipse C project shows errors (Symbol could not be resolved) but it compiles Eclipse CDT shows some errors, but the project is successfully built http://www.eclipse.org/forums/index.php/t/247954/

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  • What does it mean to say "Instance variables are not over-rided" in java?

    - by Ankit
    I am aware of the concept called field hiding in java. But still I am having a confusion in relation to instance variable being not over-ridden. According to my present knowledge, overriding a method of super-class means that the JVM will call the sub-class's over-ridden method though the super-class's method is available to the sub-class. And I read the similar thing for field hiding via the link:- Hiding Fields So, in any case we are over-ridding the instance if we change the values of the inherited instance variable in the sub-class. I am confused please help. I am using the following super-class:- public class Animal{ File picture; String food; int hunger; int width, height; int xcoord, ycoord; public void makeNoise(){ ......... } public void eat(){ ............. } public void sleep(){ .......... } public void roam(){ ............. } } It has sub-classes like Tiger, cat, dog,hippo etc. The sub-classes over-ride the makeNoise(), eat and roam() method. But each sub-class also uses a different set of values for instance variables. So as per my confusion, I am kind-of overriding all the instance variables and 3 methods of the super-class Animal; and I still have the super-class instance variables available to the sub-class with the use of the super keyword.

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • Binding mousemove within mousedown function with jQuery

    - by colinjameswebb
    I am trying to bind a mousemove event to a div when the left mousebutton is down, and unbind when it is released. This code should be fairly self-explainatory. function handleMouseDown(e, sbar){ if (e.button == 0){ console.log(sbar); //firebug sbar.bind('mousemove', function(event){ handleMouseMove(event, sbar); }); } } function handleMouseUp(e, sbar){ sbar.unbind('mousemove'); } function handleMouseMove(e, sbar){ // not sure it this will work yet, but unimportant $(".position").html(e.pageX); } $(document).ready(function (){ var statusbar = $(".statusbar"); statusbar.mousedown(function(event){ handleMouseDown(event, this); }); statusbar.mouseup(function(event){ handleMouseUp(event, this); }); }); The important part of the HTML looks like this <div id="main"> <div class="statusbar"> <p class="position"></p> </div> </div> Firebug says that the bind methods are undefined on the variable sbar within handleMouseDown and handleMouseUp. The firebug console prints out <div class="statusbar"> for the line commented //firebug. I'm doing something wrong, probably when binding the mousedown and mouseup... but what?! I'm using jQuery v1.4.2, if that helps?

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  • Dockable panes created in CChildFrame not visible the second time the app. starts.

    - by Nijenhuis
    Hi, I have created some dockable panes in CChildFrame::OnCreate() The first time i start the application they are shown. The second time i start the application they are created but the splitterwindows are completly against the sides of the clients area (bottom and right), so not visible. So i have to use the mouse to pull the splitters into the clientarea so that the dockable windows become visible again. If i do File-New in my app a new client window is created and showing the dockable windows as they should be. I Think this has something to do with saving the windows layout in the registry, because if i change SetRegistryKey(_T("61sakjgsajkdg")); in the CWinApp derived class of my app. and rerun they are shown again the first time. (but not the second time i restart the app). How can i save the layout of those dockable windows as well, so if i restart my app. they are visible ? Or else how do i prevent my app. of overwritting the window layout with the one previously saved. Something to do with LoadCustomState() and SaveCustomState() ?, i could no find any info on howto implement those methods. I have here a link to the demo project to demonstrate what i mean: http://www.4shared.com/file/237193472/c384f0f6/GUI60.html Could someone tell me how to show those dockable windows in my CChildFrame class the second time the app starts?

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  • Dynamic/Generic ViewModelBase?

    - by Shimmy
    I am learning MVVM now and I understand few things (more than but few are here..): Does every model potentially exposed (thru a VM) to the View is having a VM? For example, if I have a Contact and Address entity and each contact has an Addresses (many) property, does it mean I have to create a ContactViewModel and an AddressViewModel etc.? Do I have to redeclare all the properties of the Model again in the ViewModel (i.e. FirstName, LastName blah blah)? why not have a ViewModelBase and the ContactViewMode will be a subclass of ViewModelBase accessing the Entity's properties itself? and if this is a bad idea that the View has access to the entity (please explain why), then why not have the ViewModelBase be a DynamicObject (view the Dictionary example @ the link page), so I don't have to redeclare all the properties and validation over and over in the two tiers (M & VM) - because really, the View is anyway accessing the ViewModel's fields via reflection anyway. I think MVVM was the hardest technology I've ever learned. it doesn't have out-the-box support and there are to many frameworks and methods to achieve it, and in the other hand there is no arranged way to learn it (as MVC for instance), learning MVVM means browsing and surfing around trying to figure out what's better. Bottom line, what I mean by this section is please go and vote to MSFT to add MVVM support in the BCL and generators for VMs and Vs according to the Ms. Thanks

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  • Java/JAXB: Accessing property of object in a list

    - by Mark Lewis
    Hello Using JAXB I've created a series of classes which represent my XML schema. Validating against the schema an XML file has thus become a 'tree' of java objects representing the XML. Now I'd like to access, delete and add an object of one the created types in my tree. If I've got classes' methods arranged like this: RootType class has: public List<FQType> getFq() { // and setter return fq; } FQType class has: public RemapType getRemap() { // and setter return remap; } RemapType class has: public String getSource() { // and setter return source; } What's the most concise way to code reading and writing of the 'source' member of a RemapType instance in an FQType instance with, say, fqtypeID=1, in an array of type RootType (in which RootType instances also each have rootID)? Currently I'm using a for loop Iterator in which is an if rootID = mySelectedRootID. In the if I nest a second for loop Iterator over the contained FQType instances and in that a second if fqTypeID = mySelectedFQTypeID. IE for loop iterator/if statement pairs to recognise the object of desire. With all the bells and whistles this way is nearly 15 lines of code to access a data type - can I do this in one line? Thanks

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  • How to implement an ID field on a POCO representing an Identity field in SQL Server?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If I have a Domain Model that has an ID that maps to a SQL Server identity column, what does the POCO look like that contains that field? Candidate 1: Allows anyone to set and get the ID. I don't think we want anyone setting the ID except the Repository, from the SQL table. public class Thing { public int ID {get;set;} } Candidate 2: Allows someone to set the ID upon creation, but we won't know the ID until after we create the object (factory creates a blank Thing object where ID = 0 until we persist it). How would we set the ID after persisting? public class Thing { public Thing () : This (ID: 0) {} public Thing (int ID) { this.ID = ID } private int _ID; public int ID { get { return this.ID;}; } Candidate 3: Methods to set ID? Somehow we would need to allow the Repository to set the ID without allowing the consumer to change it. Any ideas? Is this barking up the wrong tree? Do we send the object to the Repository, save it, throw it away, then create a new object from the loaded version and return that as a new object?

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  • EJB and JPA and @OneToMany - Transaction too long?

    - by marioErr
    Hello. I'm using EJB and JPA, and when I try to access PhoneNumber objects in phoneNumbers attribute of Contact contact, it sometimes take several minutes for it to actually return data. It just returns no phoneNumbers, not even null, and then, after some time, when i call it again, it magically appears. This is how I access data: for (Contact c : contactFacade.findAll()) { System.out.print(c.getName()+" "+c.getSurname()+" : "); for (PhoneNumber pn : c.getPhoneNumbers()) { System.out.print(pn.getNumber()+" ("+pn.getDescription()+"); "); } } I'm using facade session ejb generated by netbeans (basic CRUD methods). It always prints correct name and surname, phonenumbers and description are only printed after some time (it varies) from creating it via facade. I'm guessing it has something to do with transactions. How to solve this? These are my JPA entities: contact @Entity public class Contact implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; private String name; private String surname; @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.REMOVE, mappedBy = "contact") private Collection<PhoneNumber> phoneNumbers = new ArrayList<PhoneNumber>(); phonenumber @Entity public class PhoneNumber implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; private String number; private String description; @ManyToOne() @JoinColumn(name="CONTACT_ID") private Contact contact;

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  • DRYing out implementation of ICloneable in several classes

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I have several different classes that I want to be cloneable: GenericRow, GenericRows, ParticularRow, and ParticularRows. There is the following class hierarchy: GenericRow is the parent of ParticularRow, and GenericRows is the parent of ParticularRows. Each class implements ICloneable because I want to be able to create deep copies of instances of each. I find myself writing the exact same code for Clone() in each class: object ICloneable.Clone() { object clone; using (var stream = new MemoryStream()) { var formatter = new BinaryFormatter(); // Serialize this object formatter.Serialize(stream, this); stream.Position = 0; // Deserialize to another object clone = formatter.Deserialize(stream); } return clone; } I then provide a convenience wrapper method, for example in GenericRows: public GenericRows Clone() { return (GenericRows)((ICloneable)this).Clone(); } I am fine with the convenience wrapper methods looking about the same in each class because it's very little code and it does differ from class to class by return type, cast, etc. However, ICloneable.Clone() is identical in all four classes. Can I abstract this somehow so it is only defined in one place? My concern was that if I made some utility class/object extension method, it would not correctly make a deep copy of the particular instance I want copied. Is this a good idea anyway?

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  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

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