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• Using OpenID as the only authentication method

  - by iconiK

  I have read the other questions and they mostly talk about the security of doing so. That's not entirely my concern, mostly because the website is question is a browser-based game. However, the larger issue is the user - not every user is literate enough to understand OpenID. Sure RPX makes this pretty easy, which is what I'll use, but what if the user does not have an account at Google or Facebook or whatever, or does not trust the system to log in with an existing account? They'd have to get an account at another provide - I'm sure most will know how to do it, let alone be bothered to do it. There is also the problem of how to manage it in the application. A user might want to use multiple identities with a single account, so it's not as simple as username + password to deal with. How do I store the OpenID identities of a user in the database? Using OpenID gives me a benefit too: RPX can provide extensive profile information, so I can just prefill the profile form and ask the user to edit as required. I currently have this: UserID Email ------ --------------- 86000 [email protected] 86001 [email protected] UserOpenID OpenID ---------- ------ 86000 16733 86001 16839 86002 19361 OpenID Provider Identifier ------ -------- ---------------- 16733 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bob#d36bd 16839 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\bigbobby#x75af 19361 Yahoo https:\\me.yahoo.com\alice#c19fd Is that the right way to store OpenID identifiers in the database? How would I match the identifier RPX gave me with one in the database to log in the user (if the identifier is known). So here are concrete questions: How would I make it accessible to users not having an OpenID or not wanting to use one? (security concerns over say, logging in with their Google account for example) How do I store the identifier in the database? (I'm not sure if the tables above are right) What measures do I need to take in order to prevent someone from logging in as another user and happily doing anything with their account? (as I understand RPX sends the identifier via HTTP, so what anyone would have to do is to just somehow grab it then enter it in the "OpenID" field) What else do I need to be aware of when using OpenID?

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• Why does PostgresQL query performance drop over time, but restored when rebuilding index

  - by Jim Rush

  According to this page in the manual, indexes don't need to be maintained. However, we are running with a PostgresQL table that has a continuous rate of updates, deletes and inserts that over time (a few days) sees a significant query degradation. If we delete and recreate the index, query performance is restored. We are using out of the box settings. The table in our test is currently starting out empty and grows to half a million rows. It has a fairly large row (lots of text fields). We are search is based of an index, not the primary key (I've confirmed the index is being used, at least under normal conditions) The table is being used as a persistent store for a single process. Using PostgresQL on Windows with a Java client I'm willing to give up insert and update performance to keep up the query performance. We are considering rearchitecting the application so that data is spread across various dynamic tables in a manner that allows us to drop and rebuild indexes periodically without impacting the application. However, as always, there is a time crunch to get this to work and I suspect we are missing something basic in our configuration or usage. We have considered forcing vacuuming and rebuild to run at certain times, but I suspect the locking period for such an action would cause our query to block. This may be an option, but there are some real-time (windows of 3-5 seconds) implications that require other changes in our code. Additional information: Table and index CREATE TABLE icl_contacts ( id bigint NOT NULL, campaignfqname character varying(255) NOT NULL, currentstate character(16) NOT NULL, xmlscheduledtime character(23) NOT NULL, ... 25 or so other fields. Most of them fixed or varying character fiel ... CONSTRAINT icl_contacts_pkey PRIMARY KEY (id) ) WITH (OIDS=FALSE); ALTER TABLE icl_contacts OWNER TO postgres; CREATE INDEX icl_contacts_idx ON icl_contacts USING btree (xmlscheduledtime, currentstate, campaignfqname); Analyze: Limit (cost=0.00..3792.10 rows=750 width=32) (actual time=48.922..59.601 rows=750 loops=1) - Index Scan using icl_contacts_idx on icl_contacts (cost=0.00..934580.47 rows=184841 width=32) (actual time=48.909..55.961 rows=750 loops=1) Index Cond: ((xmlscheduledtime < '2010-05-20T13:00:00.000'::bpchar) AND (currentstate = 'SCHEDULED'::bpchar) AND ((campaignfqname)::text = '.main.ee45692a-6113-43cb-9257-7b6bf65f0c3e'::text)) And, yes, I am aware there there are a variety of things we could do to normalize and improve the design of this table. Some of these options may be available to us. My focus in this question is about understanding how PostgresQL is managing the index and query over time (understand why, not just fix). If it were to be done over or significantly refactored, there would be a lot of changes.

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• Servlet, JSP, JavaBeans and HTML form

  - by dedalo

  Hi, I'm working on a servlet that makes a connection to a database gets the information of one of the tables ans sends this information to a jsp file. This file will print on the brower the information table, adding radio buttons that allows us to choose one of the rows. The servlet looks like this: List<InfoBean> items = new ArrayList<InfoBean>(); if (!conexion.isClosed()){ Statement st = (Statement) conexion.createStatement(); ResultSet rs = st.executeQuery("select * from lista_audio" ); while (rs.next()) {items.add(getRow(rs));} conexion.close();} req.getSession().setAttribute("items", items); In the JSP file I can print a table with the information, adding radio buttons that the user will use to choose 1 row and send the selected info to a servlet using a form I can add: < form action="administ" method=get enctype=multipart/form-data> < table> < table border=\"1\">< tr>< th>Title< /th>< th>Author< /th>< th>Album< /th>< /tr> < c:forEach items="${items}" var="item"> < tr>< td><input type="radio" name="SongInfo" value=${item.title}> < td>${item.title}< /td> < td>${item.author}< /td> < td>${item.album}< /td>< /tr> < /c:forEach> < /table> In the field 'value' I should be able to send to the servlet the information stored in ${item.title}. When I set value = ${item.title} and title is, for example "The bodyguard", in the servlet the information I can retrieve is just "The". It looks like it sends the characters located before the first white space of the string. How could I get the whole string? Thanks

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• Offline backup synchronization

  - by Pavan Kumar

  There is a Central Server running Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2005 and there are 7 client machines situated in various places and has XP Pro & SQL Server 2005 installed in all of them. They are not interconnected so they are physically seperate. One person goes to each of these centers maybe twice a month and takes the backup (Full database consisting of mdf and ldf files) with a pen drive and brings it to the Central server which contains the central database holding same schema as all the other client databases. I need to synchronize each backup database (belonging to different centers) one by one to update the existing data or inserting new data in the central database . The solution i got was Replication. The pendrive is brought to central server consisting of 7 instances of the databases and then the databases is attached to the central server one by one to the same SQL Server where the central database exists. Then my idea was to replicate the backup database one by one i.e using single subscription (Central Database) and multiple publication ( i.e 7 instances of databases in my case) toplogy by performing replication locally (i.e in the same machine). So i tried to develop a UI in C# .Net to programatically run the Transactional Replication with push subscription using RMO Programming (which is incomplete as of now because there is no point in developing when you already know it is not the solution). Transactional Replication can either be set to initialize with a snapshot or without a snapshot. If i go for the first option i.e with a snapshot , the data whatever is present in Central Database is overwritten by the new data . So the data present initially in the central database is lost. If i try to initialize without snapshot , no data (the data already has the updated and new data) will be sent from the backup database to server. The replication will work in a scenario where any incremental changes is done only after you set the replication . So the initial data whatever was present in the backup database when setting up the replication will not be replicated when running the snapshot agent for the first time to synchronize. Only changes in the backup database thereafter will be reflected to the central database .(Remember I am not going to insert new data or make any changes to the backup database after i attach it to the Central Server. ) So this solution is not feasible. I want a solution for synchronizing from one client database to central database present in the same machine using C#.NET. If you can provide me small example maybe with two databases(with same schema) DB1(Client) to DB2(Server) consisting of one or two tables it will be very helpful. The synchronization is not bidirectional.I want to only update existing data or insert new data from DB1 to DB2 (DB2 may contain some data initially). Thanks and Regards Pavan

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• NFS issue brings down entire vSphere ESX estate

  - by growse

  I experienced an odd issue this morning where an NFS issue appeared to have taken down the majority of my VMs hosted on a small vSphere 5.0 estate. The infrastructure itself is 4x IBM HS21 blades running around 20 VMs. The storage is provided by a single HP X1600 array with attached D2700 chassis running Solaris 11. There's a couple of storage pools on this which are exposed over NFS for the storage of the VM files, and some iSCSI LUNs for things like MSCS shared disks. Normally, this is pretty stable, but I appreciate the lack of resiliancy in having a single X1600 doing all the storage. This morning, in the logs of each ESX host, at around 0521 GMT I saw a lot of entries like this: 2011-11-30T05:21:54.161Z cpu2:2050)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4cf9a8 3 2011-11-30T05:21:54.161Z cpu2:2050)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4dc9e8 3 2011-11-30T05:21:54.161Z cpu2:2050)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4d3fa8 3 2011-11-30T05:21:54.161Z cpu2:2050)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4de0a8 3 [....] 2011-11-30T06:16:07.042Z cpu0:2058)WARNING: NFS: 283: Lost connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T06:17:01.459Z cpu2:4011)NFS: 292: Restored connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T06:25:17.887Z cpu3:2051)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4c2b28 3 2011-11-30T06:27:16.063Z cpu3:4011)NFSLock: 568: Start accessing fd 0x41000a4d8928 again 2011-11-30T06:35:30.827Z cpu1:2058)WARNING: NFS: 283: Lost connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /tank/ISO, mounted as 5acdbb3e-410e56e3-0000-000000000000 ("ISO (1)") 2011-11-30T06:36:37.953Z cpu6:2054)NFS: 292: Restored connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /tank/ISO, mounted as 5acdbb3e-410e56e3-0000-000000000000 ("ISO (1)") 2011-11-30T06:40:08.242Z cpu6:2054)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000a4c3e68 3 2011-11-30T06:40:34.647Z cpu3:2051)NFSLock: 568: Start accessing fd 0x41000a4d8928 again 2011-11-30T06:44:42.663Z cpu1:2058)WARNING: NFS: 283: Lost connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T06:44:53.973Z cpu0:4011)NFS: 292: Restored connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T06:51:28.296Z cpu5:2058)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000ae3c528 3 2011-11-30T06:51:44.024Z cpu4:2052)NFSLock: 568: Start accessing fd 0x41000ae3b8e8 again 2011-11-30T06:56:30.758Z cpu4:2058)WARNING: NFS: 283: Lost connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T06:56:53.389Z cpu7:2055)NFS: 292: Restored connection to the server 10.13.111.197 mount point /sastank/VMStorage, mounted as f0342e1c-19be66b5-0000-000000000000 ("SAStank") 2011-11-30T07:01:50.350Z cpu6:2054)ScsiDeviceIO: 2316: Cmd(0x41240072bc80) 0x12, CmdSN 0x9803 to dev "naa.600508e000000000505c16815a36c50d" failed H:0x0 D:0x2 P:0x0 Valid sense data: 0x5 0x24 0x0. 2011-11-30T07:03:48.449Z cpu3:2051)NFSLock: 608: Stop accessing fd 0x41000ae46b68 3 2011-11-30T07:03:57.318Z cpu4:4009)NFSLock: 568: Start accessing fd 0x41000ae48228 again (I've put a complete dump from one of the hosts on pastebin: http://pastebin.com/Vn60wgTt) When I got in the office at 9am, I saw various failures and alarms and troubleshooted the issue. It turned out that pretty much all of the VMs were inaccessible, and that the ESX hosts either were describing each VM as 'powered off', 'powered on', or 'unavailable'. The VMs described as 'powered on' where not in any way reachable or responding to pings, so this may be lies. There's absolutely no indication on the X1600 that anything was awry, and nothing on the switches to indicate any loss of connectivity. I only managed to resolve the issue by rebooting the ESX hosts in turn. I have a number of questions: What the hell happened? If this was a temporary NFS failure, why did it put the ESX hosts into a state from which a reboot was the only recovery? In the future, when the NFS server goes a little off-piste, what would be the best approach to add some resilience? I've been looking at budgeting for next year and potentially have budget to purchase another X1600/D2700/disks, would an identical mirrored disk setup help to mitigate these sorts of failures automatically? Edit (Added requested details) To expand with some details as requested: The X1600 has 12x 1TB disks lumped together in mirrored pairs as tank, and the D2700 (connected with a mini SAS cable) has 12x 300GB 10k SAS disks lumped together in mirrored pairs as sastank zpool status pool: rpool state: ONLINE scan: none requested config: NAME STATE READ WRITE CKSUM rpool ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t0d0s0 ONLINE 0 0 0 errors: No known data errors pool: sastank state: ONLINE scan: scrub repaired 0 in 74h21m with 0 errors on Wed Nov 30 02:51:58 2011 config: NAME STATE READ WRITE CKSUM sastank ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t14d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t15d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-1 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t16d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t17d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-2 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t18d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t19d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-3 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t20d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t21d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-4 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t22d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t23d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-5 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t24d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t25d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 errors: No known data errors pool: tank state: ONLINE scan: scrub repaired 0 in 17h28m with 0 errors on Mon Nov 28 17:58:19 2011 config: NAME STATE READ WRITE CKSUM tank ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t1d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t2d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-1 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t3d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t4d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-2 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t5d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t6d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-3 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t8d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t9d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-4 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t10d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t11d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 mirror-5 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t12d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 c7t13d0 ONLINE 0 0 0 errors: No known data errors The filesystem exposed over NFS for the primary datastore is sastank/VMStorage zfs list NAME USED AVAIL REFER MOUNTPOINT rpool 45.1G 13.4G 92.5K /rpool rpool/ROOT 2.28G 13.4G 31K legacy rpool/ROOT/solaris 2.28G 13.4G 2.19G / rpool/dump 15.0G 13.4G 15.0G - rpool/export 11.9G 13.4G 32K /export rpool/export/home 11.9G 13.4G 32K /export/home rpool/export/home/andrew 11.9G 13.4G 11.9G /export/home/andrew rpool/swap 15.9G 29.2G 123M - sastank 1.08T 536G 33K /sastank sastank/VMStorage 1.01T 536G 1.01T /sastank/VMStorage sastank/comstar 71.7G 536G 31K /sastank/comstar sastank/comstar/sql_tempdb 6.31G 536G 6.31G - sastank/comstar/sql_tx_data 65.4G 536G 65.4G - tank 4.79T 578G 42K /tank tank/FTP 269G 578G 269G /tank/FTP tank/ISO 28.8G 578G 25.9G /tank/ISO tank/backupstage 2.64T 578G 2.49T /tank/backupstage tank/cifs 301G 578G 297G /tank/cifs tank/comstar 1.54T 578G 31K /tank/comstar tank/comstar/msdtc 1.07G 579G 32.8M - tank/comstar/quorum 577M 578G 47.9M - tank/comstar/sqldata 1.54T 886G 304G - tank/comstar/vsphere_lun 2.09G 580G 22.2M - tank/mcs-asset-repository 7.01M 578G 6.99M /tank/mcs-asset-repository tank/mscs-quorum 55K 578G 36K /tank/mscs-quorum tank/sccm 16.1G 578G 12.8G /tank/sccm As for the networking, all connections between the X1600, the Blades and the switch are either LACP or Etherchannel bonded 2x 1Gbit links. Switch is a single Cisco 3750. Storage traffic sits on its own VLAN segregated from VM machine traffic.

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• ASP.NET FormView: "Object of type 'System.Int32' cannot be converted to type 'System.String"

  - by Vinzcent

  Hey I have a problem with my FromView. I would like to show some data from a Database Table in my FormView. But some data is from the tupe Int32, while this data should be in a TextBox, a string. How do you convert these Int32's. FormView and my ObjectDataSource <asp:FormView ID="fvDetailOrder" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> Aantal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label15" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("COUNT") %>' /><br /> Prijs:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label16" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PRICE") %>' /><br /> Korting:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label17" runat="server" Text='' /><br /> Totaal:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label18" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("AMOUNT") %>' /><br /> Betaald:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label19" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PAID") %>' /><br /> Datum betaling:<br /> <asp:Label CssClass="txtBox" ID="Label20" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("PDATE") %>' /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="objdsOrderID" runat="server" OnSelecting="objdsOrderID_Selecting" SelectMethod="getOrdersByID" TypeName="DAL.OrdersDAL"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="id" Type="Int32" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> My Code behind protected void gvOrdersAdmin_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { fvDetailOrder.DataSource = objdsOrderID; fvDetailOrder.DataBind(); // <-- HERE I GET THE ERROR } protected void objdsOrderID_Selecting(object sender, ObjectDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.InputParameters["id"] = gvOrdersAdmin.DataKeys[gvOrdersAdmin.SelectedRow.RowIndex].Values[0]; ; } My Data Acces Layer public static DataTable getOrdersByID(string id) { string sql = "SELECT 'AUTHOR' = tblAuthors.FIRSTNAME + ' ' + tblAuthors.LASTNAME, tblBooks.*, tblGenres.*, tblLanguages.*, tblOrders.* FROM tblAuthors INNER JOIN tblBooks ON tblAuthors.AUTHOR_ID = tblBooks.AUTHOR_ID INNER JOIN tblGenres ON tblBooks.GENRE_ID = tblGenres.GENRE_ID INNER JOIN tblLanguages ON tblBooks.LANG_ID = tblLanguages.LANG_ID INNER JOIN tblOrders ON tblBooks.BOOK_ID = tblOrders.BOOK_ID" + " WHERE tblOrders.ID = @id;"; SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(sql, GetConnectionString()); da.SelectCommand.Parameters["id"].Value = id; DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "Orders"); return ds.Tables["Orders"]; } Thanks a lot, Vincent

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• SqlMetal, Sql Server 2008 database, Table with HierachyID, dal cs file is created sometimes ?

  - by judek.mp

  I have 2 databases with a 2 tables with HierachyID fields. For one database I can get a dal cs file, for the other database I cannot get a dal cs file ? HBus is a database I can get the dal cs for, ... SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:HBus /code:HBusDC.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext This kicks me out a file, ... which works, but excludes the HierarchyID field for the table and includes all other fields for that table. This is OK I do not mind. The above cmd line kicks out an warning but still produces a file, like so SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:HBus /code:HBusDC.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext Microsoft (R) Database Mapping Generator 2008 version 1.00.30729 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework version 3.5 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.HMsg' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.vwHMsg' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). HMsg is a table with a HierarchyID field. I have another database, Elf, almost the same thing but I get a warning and an Error when using sql metal and I do not get a dal cs file ... SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:Elf /code:ElfDataContextDal.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext An error as well as the warning and the cs file fails to appear on my disc, ... :-( SqlMetal /server:.\SQLSERVER2008 /database:Elf /code:ElfDataContextDal.cs /views /functions /sprocs /namespace:HBusDC /context:HBusDataContext Microsoft (R) Database Mapping Generator 2008 version 1.00.30729 for Microsoft (R) .NET Framework version 3.5 Copyright (C) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Warning : SQM1021: Unable to extract column 'OrgNode' of Table 'dbo.EntityLink' from SqlServer because the column's DbType is a user-defined type (UDT). Error : Requested value 'ELF.SYS.HIERARCHYID' was not found. The fields are declared the same way in Elf db OrgNode [HierarchyID] null , in HBus db ... OrgNode [HierarchyID] null , Both databases are in the same instance of sql server 2008, so the HierarchyID is an inbuilt type, neither db has HierarchyID udt ,... cheers in advance for any replies ...

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• With sqlalchemy how to dynamically bind to database engine on a per-request basis

  - by Peter Hansen

  I have a Pylons-based web application which connects via Sqlalchemy (v0.5) to a Postgres database. For security, rather than follow the typical pattern of simple web apps (as seen in just about all tutorials), I'm not using a generic Postgres user (e.g. "webapp") but am requiring that users enter their own Postgres userid and password, and am using that to establish the connection. That means we get the full benefit of Postgres security. Complicating things still further, there are two separate databases to connect to. Although they're currently in the same Postgres cluster, they need to be able to move to separate hosts at a later date. We're using sqlalchemy's declarative package, though I can't see that this has any bearing on the matter. Most examples of sqlalchemy show trivial approaches such as setting up the Metadata once, at application startup, with a generic database userid and password, which is used through the web application. This is usually done with Metadata.bind = create_engine(), sometimes even at module-level in the database model files. My question is, how can we defer establishing the connections until the user has logged in, and then (of course) re-use those connections, or re-establish them using the same credentials, for each subsequent request. We have this working -- we think -- but I'm not only not certain of the safety of it, I also think it looks incredibly heavy-weight for the situation. Inside the __call__ method of the BaseController we retrieve the userid and password from the web session, call sqlalchemy create_engine() once for each database, then call a routine which calls Session.bind_mapper() repeatedly, once for each table that may be referenced on each of those connections, even though any given request usually references only one or two tables. It looks something like this: # in lib/base.py on the BaseController class def __call__(self, environ, start_response): # note: web session contains {'username': XXX, 'password': YYY} url1 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server1/finance' % session url2 = 'postgres://%(username)s:%(password)s@server2/staff' % session finance = create_engine(url1) staff = create_engine(url2) db_configure(staff, finance) # see below ... etc # in another file Session = scoped_session(sessionmaker()) def db_configure(staff, finance): s = Session() from db.finance import Employee, Customer, Invoice for c in [ Employee, Customer, Invoice, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, finance) from db.staff import Project, Hour for c in [ Project, Hour, ]: s.bind_mapper(c, staff) s.close() # prevents leaking connections between sessions? So the create_engine() calls occur on every request... I can see that being needed, and the Connection Pool probably caches them and does things sensibly. But calling Session.bind_mapper() once for each table, on every request? Seems like there has to be a better way. Obviously, since a desire for strong security underlies all this, we don't want any chance that a connection established for a high-security user will inadvertently be used in a later request by a low-security user.

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• Crystal reports .net visual studio 2008 bundled edition

  - by DeveloperChris

  I have a serious issue with crystal reports. when run in my development environment or debugged on my local machine it works fine. but when the application is published to a windows server 2003 it has the dreaded "The report you requested requires further information" Message I have had no luck trying to get rid of this message Anybody know what I can try? DC Here is a bunch more info. I use a placeholder in the aspx page and then set the user/password and database in the codebehind I could not get it to work with a dataset and found that I had to assign odbc connection in the cr designer. and then in the code behind change the above details as required. This is done because the same report can get the data from 3 different databases (live development and training) protected override void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { base.Page_Load(sender, e); CrystalReportSource1.ReportDocument.Load(Server.MapPath(@"~/Reports/Report5asp.rpt")); CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = ConfigureCrystalReports(CrystalReportSource1.ReportDocument,CrystalReportViewer1); // parameters CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo.Clear(); AddParameter("DIid", _app.Data["DIid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); AddParameter("EEid", _app.Data["EEid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); AddParameter("CTid", _app.Data["CTid"], CrystalReportViewer1.ParameterFieldInfo); } public ReportDocument ConfigureCrystalReports(ReportDocument report, CrystalReportViewer viewer) { String _connectionString = _app.ConnectionString(); String dsn = _app.DSN(); SqlConnectionStringBuilder SConn = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(_connectionString); TableLogOnInfos crtableLogoninfos = new TableLogOnInfos(); TableLogOnInfo crtableLogoninfo = new TableLogOnInfo(); ConnectionInfo crConnectionInfo = new ConnectionInfo(); crConnectionInfo.ServerName = dsn;// SConn.DataSource; crConnectionInfo.DatabaseName = SConn.InitialCatalog; crConnectionInfo.UserID = SConn.UserID; crConnectionInfo.Password = SConn.Password; crConnectionInfo.Type = ConnectionInfoType.SQL; crConnectionInfo.IntegratedSecurity = false; foreach (CrystalDecisions.CrystalReports.Engine.Table CrTable in report.Database.Tables) { crtableLogoninfo = CrTable.LogOnInfo; crtableLogoninfo.ConnectionInfo = crConnectionInfo; CrTable.ApplyLogOnInfo(crtableLogoninfo); } return report; } As stated this works fine on my XP machine used for development when deployed on winserver 2003 I get the error DC Some interesting additional information I moved the development to my home machine so I could work on the problem this weekend. So now I am developing debugging and testing on the same machine! In VS2008 I can edit and preview the reports with no problems If I fire up the debugger I can view the reports in the browser with no problems But if I publish the website to another folder on the same machine and fire up IIS and try to browse to a report I get the aforementioned error. All else works as expected. IIS runs under different permissions than VS2008 so perhaps its something to do with that, but I have tried lots of different permissions and cannot get it to run. DC

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• Using Include() with inherited entities problem

  - by Peter Stegnar

  In EF eager loading related entities is easy. But I'm having difficulties including inherited entities when loading data using table-per-type model. This is my model: Entities: ArticleBase (base article entity) ArticleSpecial (inherited from ArticleBase) UserBase (base user entity) UserSpecial (inherited from UserBase) Image Relations are as shown on the image (omitting many columns): In reality my users are always of type UserSpecial, since UserBase is used in another application, thus we can share credentials. That's the only reason I have two separate tables. UserBase table can't be changed in any way shape or form, because the other app would break. Question How am I suppose to load ArticleSpecial with both CreatedBy and EditedBy set, so that both are of type UserSpecial (that defines Image relation)? I've tried (unsuccessfully though) these options: 1. Using lambda expressions: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated.Image") .Include("UserEdited.Image"); In this case the problem is that both CreatedBy and EditedBy are related to UserBase, that doesn't define Image navigation. So I should somehow cast these two to UserSpecial type like: context.ArticleBases .OfType<ArticleSpecial>() .Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") .Include("UserEdited<UserSpecial>.Image"); But of course using generics in Include("UserCreated<UserSpecial>.Image") don't work. 2. I have tried using LINQ query var results = from articleSpecial in ctx.ArticleBase.OfType<ArticleSpecial>() join created in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserCreated.Id equals created.Id join edited in ctx.UserBase.OfType<UserSpecial>().Include("Image") on articleSpecial.UserEdited.Id equals edited.Id select articleSpecial; In this case I'm only getting ArticleSpecial object instances without related properties being set. I know I should select those somehow, but I don't know how? Select part in my LINQ could be changed to something like select new { articleSpecial, articleSpecial.UserCreated, articleSpecial.UserEdited }; but images are still not loaded into my context. My joins in this case are barely used to filter out articleSpecial results, but they don't load entities into context (I suppose). Can anybody provide any help regarding this problem? I think it's not so uncommon.

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• T-SQL - Left Outer Joins - Filters in the where clause versus the on clause.

  - by Greg Potter

  I am trying to compare two tables to find rows in each table that is not in the other. Table 1 has a groupby column to create 2 sets of data within table one. groupby number ----------- ----------- 1 1 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 4 Table 2 has only one column. number ----------- 1 3 4 So Table 1 has the values 1,2,4 in group 2 and Table 2 has the values 1,3,4. I expect the following result when joining for Group 2: `Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL `Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1` T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 The only way I can get this to work is if I put a where clause for the first join: PRINT 'Table 1 LEFT OUTER Join Table 2, with WHERE clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL and a filter in the ON for the second: PRINT 'Table 2 LEFT OUTER Join Table 1, with ON clause' select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Can anyone come up with a way of not using the filter in the on clause but in the where clause? The context of this is I have a staging area in a database and I want to identify new records and records that have been deleted. The groupby field is the equivalent of a batchid for an extract and I am comparing the latest extract in a temp table to a the batch from yesterday stored in a partioneds table, which also has all the previously extracted batches as well. Code to create table 1 and 2: create table table1 (number int, groupby int) create table table2 (number int) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (1, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (1) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (2, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (3) insert into table1 (number, groupby) values (4, 2) insert into table2 (number) values (4) EDIT: A bit more context - depending on where I put the filter I different results. As stated above the where clause gives me the correct result in one state and the ON in the other. I am looking for a consistent way of doing this. Where - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number --****************************** WHERE table1.groupby = 2 AND table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 2 2 NULL On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table1 LEFT OUTER join table2 --****************************** on table1.number = table2.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table2.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 NULL 2 2 NULL 1 2 NULL Where (table 2 this time) - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number AND table1.groupby = 2 --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- NULL NULL 3 On - select table1.groupby as [T1_Groupby], table1.number as [T1_Number], table2.number as [T2_Number] from table2 LEFT OUTER join table1 --****************************** on table2.number = table1.number --****************************** WHERE table1.number IS NULL AND table1.groupby = 2 Result: T1_Groupby T1_Number T2_Number ----------- ----------- ----------- (0) rows returned

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• [solved] PHP-called hyperlink stopped showing when CSS table implemented

  - by Luke

  EDIT: Solved - was not flutter's tag stripping, should work as advertised. I'm using Flutter (which creates custom fields) in Wordpress to display profile information entered as a Post. Before I implemented the CSS tables the link showed up and was clickable. Now I get nothing returned, even when I try to call the link outside the table. If you know anything about this, here's my code in the index.php file and I remain available for any questions. <?php if (in_category('Profile')) { ?> <table id="mytable" cellspacing="0"> -snip- <tr> <th class="row1" valign="top">Website </td> <td>Link: <a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?>"> <?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'FrWebsite', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr> -snip- </table> Thanks, L Edit: @Josh - there is a foreach looping construct in the table and it is reading and displaying the code correctly, I see what you're getting at now: <tr> <th class="row2" valign="top">Specialities </td> <td class="alt" valign="top"><?php $my_array = get('Expertise'); $output = ""; foreach($my_array as $check) { $output .= "<span>$check</span><br/> "; } echo $output; ?></td> </tr> Edit - @Josh - here's the old code as far as I can remember it, there was no major difference just a <td> tag where there now stands a <th>, there wasn't the class="" and there was no "Link:" and FrWebsite was called Website, but it still didn't work when called Website so I changed to see if that was the error. <tr> <td width="200" valign="top">Website </td> <td><a href="<?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?>"><?php echo get_post_meta($post->ID, 'Website', $single=true) ?></a></td> </tr>

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• Oracle sample data problems

  - by Jay

  So, I have this java based data trasformation / masking tool, which I wanted to test out on Oracle 10g. The good part with Oracle 10g is that you get a load of sample schemas with half a million records in some. The schemas are : SH, OE, HR, IX and etc. So, I installed 10g, found out that the installation scripts are under ORACLE_HOME/demo/scripts. I customized these scripts a bit to run in batch mode. That solves one half of my requirement - to create source data for my testing my data transformation software. The second half of the requirement is that I create the same schemas under different names (TR_HR, TR_OE and so on...) without any data. These schemas would represent my target schemas. So, in short, my software would pick up data from a table in a schema and load it up in to the same table in a different schema. Now, I have two issues in creating my target schema and emptying it. I would like this in a batch job. But the oracle scripts you get, the sample schema names are not configurable. So, I tried creating a script, replacing OE with TR_OE, HR with TR_HR and so on. However, this approach is kind of irritating coz the sample schemas are kind of complicated in the way they are created; Oracle creates synonyms, views, materialized views, data types and lot of weird stuff. I would like the target schemas (TR_HR, TR_OE,...) to be empty. But some of the schemas have circular references, which would not allow me to delete data. The only work around seems to be removing certain foreign keys, deleting data and then adding the constraints back. Is there any easy way to all this, without all this fuss? I would need a complicated data set for my testing (complicated as in tables with triggers, multiple hierarchies.. for instance.. a child table that has children up to 5 levels, a parent table that refers to an IOT table and an IOT table that refers to a non-IOT table etc..). The sample schemas are just about perfect from a data set perspective. The only challenge I see is in automating this whole process of loading up the source schemas, and then creating the target schemas and emptying them. Appreciate your help and suggestions.

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• Linq-to-SQL: How to perform a count on a sub-select

  - by Peter Bridger

  I'm still trying to get my head round how to use LINQ-to-SQL correctly, rather than just writing my own sprocs. In the code belong a userId is passed into the method, then LINQ uses this to get all rows from the GroupTable tables matching the userId. The primary key of the GroupUser table is GroupUserId, which is a foreign key in the Group table. /// <summary> /// Return summary details about the groups a user belongs to /// </summary> /// <param name="userId"></param> /// <returns></returns> public List<Group> GroupsForUser(int userId) { DataAccess.KINv2DataContext db = new DataAccess.KINv2DataContext(); List<Group> groups = new List<Group>(); groups = (from g in db.Groups join gu in db.GroupUsers on g.GroupId equals gu.GroupId where g.Active == true && gu.UserId == userId select new Group { Name = g.Name, CreatedOn = g.CreatedOn }).ToList<Group>(); return groups; } } This works fine, but I'd also like to return the total number of Users who are in a group and also the total number of Contacts that fall under ownership of the group. Pseudo code ahoy! /// <summary> /// Return summary details about the groups a user belongs to /// </summary> /// <param name="userId"></param> /// <returns></returns> public List<Group> GroupsForUser(int userId) { DataAccess.KINv2DataContext db = new DataAccess.KINv2DataContext(); List<Group> groups = new List<Group>(); groups = (from g in db.Groups join gu in db.GroupUsers on g.GroupId equals gu.GroupId where g.Active == true && gu.UserId == userId select new Group { Name = g.Name, CreatedOn = g.CreatedOn, // ### This is the SQL I would write to get the data I want ### MemberCount = ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM GroupUser AS GU WHERE GU.GroupId = g.GroupId ), ContactCount = ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Contact AS C WHERE C.OwnerGroupId = g.GroupId ) // ### End of extra code ### }).ToList<Group>(); return groups; } }

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• Map One-To-One Relationship Doesn't Allow Inserting

  - by nfplee

  Hi, I'm trying to setup a one-to-one mapping from my Users to the UserDetails table. Say I have the following tables in my database: Users: - UserID (PK, Identity) - UserName - Password UsersDetails: - UserID (PK, FK) - FirstName - LastName I have created the following poco classes: public class User { public virtual int UserID { get; set; } public virtual string UserName { get; set; } public virtual string Password { get; set; } public virtual UserDetails Details { get; set; } } public class UserDetails { public virtual int UserID { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public UserDetails() { } public UserDetails(User user) { User = user; } } Which are fluently mapped (please note the xml mapping is very similar and if all you know is the xml mapping then I would still appreciate you guidance): public class UserMap : ClassMap<User> { public UserMap() { Table("Users"); Id(x => x.UserID); Map(x => x.UserName); Map(x => x.Password); HasOne(x => x.Details) .Constrained() .Cascade.All(); } } public class UserDetailsMap : ClassMap<UserDetails> { public UserDetailsMap() { Table("UsersDetails"); Id(x => x.UserID) .GeneratedBy.Foreign("User"); HasOne(x => x.User) .Constrained(); Map(x => x.FirstName); Map(x => x.LastName); } } Everything displays correctly but if I say: var user = new User() { UserName = "Test", Password = "Test" }; user.Details = new UserDetails(user) { FirstName = "Test", LastName = "Test" }; session.Save(user); I get the error: "NHibernate.Id.IdentifierGenerationException: null id generated for: UserDetails." I'd really appreciate it if someone could show me what I've done wrong. Thanks

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• Binding Source suspends itself when I don't want it to.

  - by Scott Chamberlain

  I have two data tables set up in a Master-Details configuration with a relation "Ticket_CallSegments" between them. I also have two Binding Sources and a Data Grid View configured like this (Init Code) // // dgvTickets // this.dgvTickets.AllowUserToAddRows = false; this.dgvTickets.AllowUserToDeleteRows = false; this.dgvTickets.AllowUserToResizeRows = false; this.dgvTickets.AutoGenerateColumns = false; this.dgvTickets.ColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumnHeadersHeightSizeMode.AutoSize; this.dgvTickets.Columns.AddRange(new System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewColumn[] { this.cREATEDATEDataGridViewTextBoxColumn, this.contactFullNameDataGridViewTextBoxColumn, this.pARTIALNOTEDataGridViewTextBoxColumn}); this.dgvTickets.DataSource = this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource; this.dgvTickets.Dock = System.Windows.Forms.DockStyle.Fill; this.dgvTickets.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(0, 0); this.dgvTickets.MultiSelect = false; this.dgvTickets.Name = "dgvTickets"; this.dgvTickets.ReadOnly = true; this.dgvTickets.RowHeadersVisible = false; this.dgvTickets.SelectionMode = System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewSelectionMode.FullRowSelect; this.dgvTickets.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(359, 600); this.dgvTickets.TabIndex = 0; // // ticketsDataSetBindingSource // this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource.DataMember = "Ticket"; this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource.DataSource = this.ticketsDataSet; this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource.CurrentChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource_CurrentChanged); // // callSegementBindingSource // this.callSegementBindingSource.DataMember = "Ticket_CallSegments"; this.callSegementBindingSource.DataSource = this.ticketsDataSetBindingSource; this.callSegementBindingSource.Sort = "CreateDate"; //Function to update a rich text box. private void ticketsDataSetBindingSource_CurrentChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); rtbTickets.Clear(); foreach (DataRowView drv in callSegementBindingSource) { TicketsDataSet.CallSegmentsRow row = (TicketsDataSet.CallSegmentsRow)drv.Row; sb.AppendLine("**********************************"); sb.AppendLine(String.Format("CreateDate: {1}, Created by: {0}", row.USERNAME, row.CREATEDATE)); sb.AppendLine("**********************************"); rtbTickets.SelectionFont = new Font("Arial", (float)11, FontStyle.Bold); rtbTickets.SelectedText = sb.ToString(); rtbTickets.SelectionFont = new Font("Arial", (float)11, FontStyle.Regular); rtbTickets.SelectedText = row.NOTES + "\n\n"; } } However when ticketsDataSetBindingSource_CurrentChanged gets called when I select a new row in my Data Grid View callSegementBindingSource.IsBindingSuspended is set to true and my text box does not update correctly (it seems to always pull from the same row in CallSegments). Can anyone see what I am doing wrong or tell me how to unsuspend the binding so it will pull the correct data?

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• How to optimize this mysql query - explain output included

  - by Sandeepan Nath

  This is the query (a search query basically, based on tags):- select SUM(DISTINCT(ttagrels.id_tag in (2105,2120,2151,2026,2046) )) as key_1_total_matches, td.*, u.* from Tutors_Tag_Relations AS ttagrels Join Tutor_Details AS td ON td.id_tutor = ttagrels.id_tutor JOIN Users as u on u.id_user = td.id_user where (ttagrels.id_tag in (2105,2120,2151,2026,2046)) group by td.id_tutor HAVING key_1_total_matches = 1 And following is the database dump needed to execute this query:- CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Users` ( `id_user` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `id_group` int(11) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id_user`), KEY `Users_FKIndex1` (`id_group`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 AUTO_INCREMENT=730 ; INSERT INTO `Users` (`id_user`, `id_group`) VALUES (303, 1); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tutor_Details` ( `id_tutor` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `id_user` int(10) NOT NULL default '0', PRIMARY KEY (`id_tutor`), KEY `Users_FKIndex1` (`id_user`), KEY `id_user` (`id_user`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=58 ; INSERT INTO `Tutor_Details` (`id_tutor`, `id_user`) VALUES (26, 303); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tags` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL auto_increment, `tag` varchar(255) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id_tag`), UNIQUE KEY `tag` (`tag`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`), KEY `tag_2` (`tag`), KEY `tag_3` (`tag`), KEY `tag_4` (`tag`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=2957 ; INSERT INTO `Tags` (`id_tag`, `tag`) VALUES (2026, 'Brendan.\nIn'), (2046, 'Brendan.'), (2105, 'Brendan'), (2120, 'Brendan''s'), (2151, 'Brendan)'); CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `Tutors_Tag_Relations` ( `id_tag` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL default '0', `id_tutor` int(10) unsigned default NULL, `tutor_field` varchar(255) default NULL, `cdate` timestamp NOT NULL default CURRENT_TIMESTAMP, `udate` timestamp NULL default NULL, KEY `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`), KEY `id_tutor` (`id_tutor`), KEY `id_tag` (`id_tag`), KEY `id_tutor_2` (`id_tutor`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; INSERT INTO `Tutors_Tag_Relations` (`id_tag`, `id_tutor`, `tutor_field`, `cdate`, `udate`) VALUES (2105, 26, 'firstname', '2010-06-17 17:08:45', NULL); ALTER TABLE `Tutors_Tag_Relations` ADD CONSTRAINT `Tutors_Tag_Relations_ibfk_2` FOREIGN KEY (`id_tutor`) REFERENCES `Tutor_Details` (`id_tutor`) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION, ADD CONSTRAINT `Tutors_Tag_Relations_ibfk_1` FOREIGN KEY (`id_tag`) REFERENCES `Tags` (`id_tag`) ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION; What the query does? This query actually searches tutors which contain "Brendan"(as their name or biography or something). The id_tags 2105,2120,2151,2026,2046 are nothing but the tags which are LIKE "%Brendan%". My question is :- 1.In the explain of this query, the reference column shows NULL for ttagrels, but there are possible keys (Tutors_Tag_Relations,id_tutor,id_tag,id_tutor_2). So, why is no key being taken. How to make the query take references. Is it possible at all? 2. The other two tables td and u are using references. Any indexing needed in those? I think not. Check the explain query output here http://www.test.examvillage.com/explain.png

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• INSERT OR IGNORE in a trigger

  - by dan04

  I have a database (for tracking email statistics) that has grown to hundreds of megabytes, and I've been looking for ways to reduce it. It seems that the main reason for the large file size is that the same strings tend to be repeated in thousands of rows. To avoid this problem, I plan to create another table for a string pool, like so: CREATE TABLE AddressLookup ( ID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, Address TEXT UNIQUE ); CREATE TABLE EmailInfo ( MessageID INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, ToAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID), FromAddrRef INTEGER REFERENCES AddressLookup(ID) /* Additional columns omitted for brevity. */ ); And for convenience, a view to join these tables: CREATE VIEW EmailView AS SELECT MessageID, A1.Address AS ToAddr, A2.Address AS FromAddr FROM EmailInfo LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A1 ON (ToAddrRef = A1.ID) LEFT JOIN AddressLookup A2 ON (FromAddrRef = A2.ID); In order to be able to use this view as if it were a regular table, I've made some triggers: CREATE TRIGGER trg_id_EmailView INSTEAD OF DELETE ON EmailView BEGIN DELETE FROM EmailInfo WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_ii_EmailView INSTEAD OF INSERT ON EmailView BEGIN INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.ToAddr); INSERT OR IGNORE INTO AddressLookup(Address) VALUES (NEW.FromAddr); INSERT INTO EmailInfo SELECT NEW.MessageID, A1.ID, A2.ID FROM AddressLookup A1, AddressLookup A2 WHERE A1.Address = NEW.ToAddr AND A2.Address = NEW.FromAddr; END; CREATE TRIGGER trg_iu_EmailView INSTEAD OF UPDATE ON EmailView BEGIN UPDATE EmailInfo SET MessageID = NEW.MessageID WHERE MessageID = OLD.MessageID; REPLACE INTO EmailView SELECT NEW.MessageID, NEW.ToAddr, NEW.FromAddr; END; The problem After: INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (1, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); INSERT OR REPLACE INTO EmailView VALUES (2, '[email protected]', '[email protected]'); The updated rows contain: MessageID ToAddr FromAddr --------- ------ -------- 1 NULL [email protected] 2 [email protected] [email protected] There's a NULL that shouldn't be there. The corresponding cell in the EmailInfo table contains an orphaned ToAddrRef value. If you do the INSERTs one at a time, you'll see that Alice's ID in the AddressLookup table changes! It appears that this behavior is documented: An ON CONFLICT clause may be specified as part of an UPDATE or INSERT action within the body of the trigger. However if an ON CONFLICT clause is specified as part of the statement causing the trigger to fire, then conflict handling policy of the outer statement is used instead. So the "REPLACE" in the top-level "INSERT OR REPLACE" statement is overriding the critical "INSERT OR IGNORE" in the trigger program. Is there a way I can make it work the way that I wanted?

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• Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

  - by Ronedog

  I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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• How effective are technical test(s) and is it necessary?

  - by The Elite Gentleman

  Hi everyone, I recently took a Java technical test (for a company who wanted are looking for senior java developers) and, funny enough, I only realised the technical terms of what I've been doing all along after I've written the test. I'm not too IT jargon when it comes to development but I can pretty much code and create solutions unaware that I'm using design pattern (or the specifics of that design pattern) or technology. I learned things such as JMS, Frameworks, etc. while programming at home and having to google stuff online to problems I have. Others e.g. IoC, Surrogates in Databases, etc., I have used extensively without knowing that it had a name for it. Do you think that these technical test are effective and why? What interesting questions did you find that boggled your brains out while the clock kept ticking? Seeing that IT is vastly evolving at a rapid rate, do we have to constantly be updated with new terms that comes out? Some questions I was asked : What object oriented principle is violated by this architectural mechanism for dot notation? Is indexing tables effective for range query or point query search? What is ThreadLocal and what is it used for? Method overloading vs Method overriding. What is the difference between the 2? What is dynamic binding? Now, imagine my poor head trying to understand these jargons (considering I use it almost everyday) PS The question was not a programming question, where you have a problem and write code to solve it. Rather, a thinking type question and you write answers (against the clock). Update I clearly didn't come out clearly as I should have. There are those that are technically "book smart" but with very little hands-on experience and vice versa. So, the question (in connection to what I've asked) is that are these technical test seeking "book smart" people or people with lots of hands-on experience (some who are not that well clued up with too much book-smart jargons). How effective is it then, for companies to look for developers if most of the questions are too terminology-centric? (if that's the correct term, :))

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• Explanation of converting exporting an XML document as a relational database using XSLT

  - by Yaaqov

  I would like to better understand the basic steps needed to a take an XML document like this Breakfast Menu... <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <breakfast_menu> <food> <name>Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$5.95</price> <description>two of our famous Belgian Waffles with plenty of real maple syrup</description> <calories>650</calories> </food> <food> <name>Strawberry Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$7.95</price> <description>light Belgian waffles covered with strawberries and whipped cream</description> <calories>900</calories> </food> <food> <name>Berry-Berry Belgian Waffles</name> <price>$8.95</price> <description>light Belgian waffles covered with an assortment of fresh berries and whipped cream</description> <calories>900</calories> </food> <food> <name>French Toast</name> <price>$4.50</price> <description>thick slices made from our homemade sourdough bread</description> <calories>600</calories> </food> <food> <name>Homestyle Breakfast</name> <price>$6.95</price> <description>two eggs, bacon or sausage, toast, and our ever-popular hash browns</description> <calories>950</calories> </food> </breakfast_menu> And "export" it to say, an Access or MySQL database using XSLT, creating two joined tables: Table: breakfast_menu Field: menu_item_id Field: food_id Table: food Field: food_id Field: name Field: price Field: description Field: calories If there are online tutorials on this that you know of, I'd be interesting in learning more, as well. Thanks.

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• HQL : LEFT OUTER JOIN

  - by Parama

  Hi all, I have two tables and respective classes in java.The mapping in the HBM.xml is as follows : The query in the HBM.xml is as follows : from Reports as rep left join rep.parts as parts I am getting the following exception while executing the code : May 19, 2010 10:47:04 AM org.hibernate.util.JDBCExceptionReporter logExceptions WARNING: SQL Error: 904, SQLState: 42000 May 19, 2010 10:47:04 AM org.hibernate.util.JDBCExceptionReporter logExceptions SEVERE: ORA-00904: "REPORTS0_"."PARTNO": invalid identifier org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query at org.hibernate.exception.SQLStateConverter.convert(SQLStateConverter.java:67) at org.hibernate.exception.JDBCExceptionHelper.convert(JDBCExceptionHelper.java:43) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2223) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.listIgnoreQueryCache(Loader.java:2104) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.list(Loader.java:2099) at org.hibernate.loader.hql.QueryLoader.list(QueryLoader.java:378) at org.hibernate.hql.ast.QueryTranslatorImpl.list(QueryTranslatorImpl.java:338) at org.hibernate.engine.query.HQLQueryPlan.performList(HQLQueryPlan.java:172) at org.hibernate.impl.SessionImpl.list(SessionImpl.java:1121) at org.hibernate.impl.QueryImpl.list(QueryImpl.java:79) at com.hcl.spring.db.sample.dao.ItemDAOImpl.loadItems(ItemDAOImpl.java:43) at com.hcl.spring.db.sample.service.ItemServiceImpl.loadItems(ItemServiceImpl.java:20) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Unknown Source) at org.springframework.aop.support.AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(AopUtils.java:304) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.invokeJoinpoint(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:182) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:149) at org.springframework.transaction.interceptor.TransactionInterceptor.invoke(TransactionInterceptor.java:106) at org.springframework.aop.framework.ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed(ReflectiveMethodInvocation.java:171) at org.springframework.aop.framework.JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(JdkDynamicAopProxy.java:204) at $Proxy3.loadItems(Unknown Source) at com.hcl.spring.db.sample.Main.loadItems(Main.java:40) at com.hcl.spring.db.sample.Main.main(Main.java:19) Caused by: java.sql.SQLException: ORA-00904: "REPORTS0_"."PARTNO": invalid identifier at oracle.jdbc.driver.DatabaseError.throwSqlException(DatabaseError.java:112) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CTTIoer.processError(T4CTTIoer.java:331) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CTTIoer.processError(T4CTTIoer.java:288) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4C8Oall.receive(T4C8Oall.java:743) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.doOall8(T4CPreparedStatement.java:216) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeForDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:799) at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(OracleStatement.java:1038) at oracle.jdbc.driver.T4CPreparedStatement.executeMaybeDescribe(T4CPreparedStatement.java:839) at oracle.jdbc.driver.OracleStatement.doExecuteWithTimeout(OracleStatement.java:1133) at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeInternal(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3285) at oracle.jdbc.driver.OraclePreparedStatement.executeQuery(OraclePreparedStatement.java:3329) at org.hibernate.jdbc.AbstractBatcher.getResultSet(AbstractBatcher.java:186) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.getResultSet(Loader.java:1787) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQuery(Loader.java:674) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(Loader.java:236) at org.hibernate.loader.Loader.doList(Loader.java:2220) ... 22 more Do request your help on the same.

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• How can I resolve this one application coming up with an "You don't have permission to use the application" error?

  - by morgant

  I've got a Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard Server Open Directory Master with a user who's getting Mobility & Application managed preferences from a group (the only group they're a member of). The workstation is also running Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard, when the user logs in and tries to run our primary application which they're explicitly allowed to run (via the group's preferences), it says "You don't have permission to use the application 'Blah'". Now, the application is added to the group's list of always allowed applications, unsigned (so a minor difference in application version or file contents shouldn't disallow it). It even lives in a subdirectory of /Applications which is in the list of folders to allow applications. I've run into this when logging this user into new workstations and the following usually works: Log them out Remove the following files from their mobile home folder on the workstation: /Library/Managed\ Preferences/, ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Remove the following files from their network home folder on the server: ~/.FileSync, ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.finder.plist, and ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist. Log them back in on the workstation. However, this no longer resolves the issue. Their Home Sync preferences are set (on the group) to sync ~, but not the following files (manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync here): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/NAVMac800QSFile ~/Library ~/.FileSync ~/.account Their Preferences Sync preferences are set (also on the group) to sync ~/Library & ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data, but not the following files (also manually, at login, and at logout... no background sync): ~/.SymAVQSFile ~/.Trash ~/.Trashes ~/Documents/Microsoft User Data/Entourage Temp ~/Library/Application Support/SyncServices ~/Library/Application Support/MobileSync ~/Library/Caches ~/Library/Calendars/Calendar Cache ~/Library/Logs ~/Library/Mail/AvailableFeeds ~/Library/Mail/Envelope Index ~/Library/Preferences/Macromedia/ ~/Library/Printers ~/Library/PubSub/Database ~/Library/PubSub/Downloads ~/Library/PubSub/Feeds ~/Library/Safari/Icons.db ~/Library/Safari/HistoryIndex.sk ~/Library/iTunes/iPhone Software Updates IMAP-* Exchange-* EWS-* Mac-* ~/Library/Preferences/ByHost ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.dock.plist ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.sitebarlists.plist ~/Library/Application Support/4D ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist ~/.FileSync ~/.account Even with ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist prevented from syncing during a Preferences Sync, it still seems to show up in the network home on the server frequently. Are there any other files other than ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist that contain application Managed Preferences that might be causing this one app to be showing up as not allowed? Any ideas on how ~/Library/Preferences/com.apple.MCX.plist keeps getting sync'd back up the network home folder on the server? Update: I thought I had found a workaround this morning, but it also seemed to be extremely temporary. Basically, loking at /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist I discovered that it didn't have an entry for the application in question, but /Library/Managed\ Preferences/[shortname]/complete.plist did. Naturally, I deleted com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist, logged in again, and it worked... on one workstation. It failed on others, and after logging out & back in a couple more times it started failing on all of them again, even after further deletions of com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist. Oddly, com.apple.applicationaccess.new.plist & complete.plist do both contain an entry for the application in question now, but it still says it's not allowed. Further Update: Okay, so I now have a reproducible workaround which seems to be required after every reboot of the workstation: Log in as the user (you'll discover you cannot launch the application in question). Fast User Switch to the local admin account on the workstation (we always have one on every machine). From that local admin account, run sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname' (logging out and back in as the user in question will not work). Fast User Switch back to the user (you'll still not be allowed to run the application). Log the user out and back in (you'll now be able to run the application in question.) Fast User Switch back to the local admin account, log it out, and log back in as the user in question. If you do all that exactly as described it'll keep working through log out & log back in, but NOT through a reboot. If, after a reboot, you try something like logging in as the local admin account, running sudo mcxrefresh -n 'shortname', logging out, then logging in as the user in question, it will NOT work. Yet Another Update We don't have any computer groups in our Open Directory, so it shouldn't be getting any conflicting settings from there. I ran sudo mcxquery -format xml -user shortname -group groupname before & after performing the aforementioned process to allow the application in question to be run and the results were identical (saved the result to files & diff'd... I'm not just guessing here). One Step Forward, Half a Step Back: When the Mac OS X 10.6.5 Server update was released, we upgraded our Open Directory Master to it as the changes included the following managed preferences fixes which I hoped might address this issue: Addresses an issue that could prevent managed preferences from being applied when a user logs in on a workstation that has been idle. Fixes an issue that could prevent administrators from bypassing client management settings on a workstation. This seemed to improve the situation slightly. The application in question now usually launches without error. If, and when it does launch with the "You don't have permission to use the application" error, logging the user out and back in seems to correct it. That said, we've since had to add a couple of applications to the user's ~/Applications/ directory and those are still prevented from launching. The workstations are running Mac OS X 10.6.4, the OD Master (which the workstations are bound to) is running Mac OS 10.6.5 Server (although there are two OD Replicas still running 10.6.4 Server), and we're using Workgroup Manager 10.6.3 (which is included with the Server Admin Tools 10.6.5 upgrade) to add the applications (unsigned, as always). This time, I've caught the following in /var/log/system.log when attempting to launch one of the allowed applications from ~/Applications: Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker checkApp:csFlags:] [954:username] -- *** Incoming app appears to be masquerading as white listed app and failed signature validation: /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro. Note: This may be a valid app of a different version than what was whitelisted (on a different volume?) Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname [0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]: launch of /Users/username/Applications/FileMaker Pro 5.5/FileMaker Pro.app/Contents/MacOS/FileMaker Pro was blocked Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname com.apple.launchd.peruser.1340[6375] ([0x0-0xa42a42].com.filemaker.filemakerpro[43304]): Exited with exit code: 255 Dec 22 17:36:24 hostname parentalcontrolsd[43221]: -[ActivityTracker(Private) _removeAppFromWhiteList:] [1362:username] -- *** Couldn't find local user record Running sudo mcxquery -format xml -user username -group groupname includes the following entry for FileMaker Pro 5.5 (and appears to include a full integration of the user's application whitelist & group's application whitelist): <dict> <key>bundleID</key> <string>com.filemaker.filemakerpro</string> <key>displayName</key> <string>FileMaker Pro</string> </dict> Note the lack of <key>appID</key><data> ... </data> which seems to specify a signed application. While whitelisted directories also appear to be correctly listed in the results, they too do not actually allow the applications to be run either. What is going on here?! Where else should I be looking?

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• Creating a music catalog in C# and extracting first 30 seconds as soon as the first words are sung

  - by Rad

  I already read a question: Separation of singing voice from music. I don’t need this complex audio processing. I only need some detection mechanism that would detect that there is some voice/vocal playing while the music is playing (or not playing) I need to extract first 30 seconds when a vocalist starts singing along with full band music. See question 2 below. I want to create a music catalog using ASP.NET MVC 2 and Silverlight clients and C#.NET 4.0 programming language that would be front store. On the backend I would also like to create a desktop WPF/Windows application to create the music catalog from already existing music files, most of which have metadata in them ID3v1, ID3v2.3, ID3v2.4, iTunes MP4, WMA, Vorbis Comments and APE Tags etc. I would possibly like to create a web service that would allow catalog contributors to upload a zipped album and trigger metadata extraction of music data and extraction of music segments as described below. I would be happy if I achieve no. 1 below. Let's say I have 1000ths of songs in mp3 (or other formats) grouped in subfolders using some classification (Genre, Artists, Albums, Composers or other groupings). I want to create tables in DB that would organize songs so they can be searched based on different criteria (year, length, above classification or by song title, description etc) like what iTune store allows to their customers. I want to extract metadata from various formats (I will try to get songs in mp3 format, but there may be other popular formats) and allow music Catalog manager person to add missing data from either desktop or web applications. He or other contributors can upload zipped music via an HTML or Silverlight upload or WPF. Can anybody suggest open source libraries, articles, code snippets that can do that in an automatic way using .NET and possibly SQL Server DB? My main questions are these. This is an audio processing challenge. I want to extract 2 segments of music (questions 1 and 2): 1. How to extract a music segment: 1-2 seconds before a vocal starts singing and up to 30 seconds from that point in time and 2. Much more challenging is to find repeating segments (One would usually find or recognize the names of the songs and songs are usually known by these refrains. How would I go about creating a list of songs that go great together like what Genius from iTune does? Is there any characteristics of music that can be used to match songs? The goal is for people quickly scan and recognize songs i.e. associate melody, words with a title/album so they can make intelligent decisions like buying a song, create similar mood songs. Thanks, Rad

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• DOM memory issue with IE8 (inserting lots of JSON data)

  - by okie.floyd

  i am developing a small web-utility that displays some data from some database tables. i have the utility running fine on FF, Safari, Chrome..., but the memory management on IE8 is horrendous. the largest JSON request I do will return information to create around 5,000 or so rows in a table within the browser (3 columns in the table). i'm using jquery to get the data (via getJSON). to remove the old/existing table, i'm just doing a $('#my_table_tbody').empty(). to add the new info to the table, within the getJSON callback, i am just appending each table row that i am creating to a variable, and then once i have them all, i am using $('#my_table_tbody').append(myVar) to add it to the existing tbody. i don't add the table rows as they are created because that seems to be a lot slower than just adding them all at once. does anyone have any recommendation on what someone should do who is trying to add thousands of rows of data to the DOM? i would like to stay away from pagination, but i'm wondering if i don't have a choice. Update 1 So here is the code I was trying after the innerHTML suggestion: /* Assuming a div called 'main_area' holds the table */ document.getElementById('main_area').innerHTML = ''; $.getJSON("my_server", {my: JSON, args: are, in: here}, function(j) { var mylength = j.length; var k =0; var tmpText = ''; tmpText += /* Add the table, thead stuff, and tbody tags here */; for (k = mylength - 1; k = 0; k--) { /* stack overflow wont let me type greater than & less than signs here, so just assume that they are there. */ tmpText += 'tr class="' + j[k].row_class . '" td class="col1_class" ' + j[k].col1 + ' /td td class="col2_class" ' + j[k].col2 + ' /td td class="col3_class" ' + j[k].col3 + ' /td /tr'; } document.getElementById('main_area').innerHTML = tmpText; } That is the gist of it. I've also tried using just a $.get request, and having the server send the formatted HTML, and just setting that in the innerHTML (i.e. document.getElementById('main_area').innerHTML = j;). thanks for all of the replies. i'm floored with the fact that you all are willing to help.

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