Search Results

Search found 12824 results on 513 pages for 'glen little'.

Page 381/513 | < Previous Page | 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388  | Next Page >

  • What would cause native gem extensions on OS X to build but fail to load?

    - by goodmike
    I am having trouble with some of my rubygems, in particular those that use native extensions. I am on a MacBookPro, with Snow Leopard. I have XCode 3.2.1 installed, with gcc 4.2.1. Ruby 1.8.6, because I'm lazy and a scaredy cat and don't want to upgrade yet. Ruby is running in 32-bit mode. I built this ruby from scratch when my MBP ran OSX 10.4. When I require one of the affected gems in irb, I get a Load Error for the gem extension's bundle file. For example, here's nokogigi dissing me: > require 'rubygems' = true > require 'nokogiri' LoadError: Failed to load /usr/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/nokogiri-1.4.1/lib/nokogiri/nokogiri.bundle This is also happening with the Postgres pg and MongoDB mongo gems. My first thought was that the extensions must not be building right. But gem install wasn't throwing any errors. So I reinstalled with the verbose flag, hoping to see some helpful warnings. I've put the output in a Pastie, and the only warning I see is a consistent one about "passing argument n of ‘foo’ with different width due to prototype." I suspect that this might be an issue from upgrading to Snow Leopard, but I'm a little surprised to experience it now, since I've updated my XCode. Could it stem from running Ruby in 1.8.6? I'm embarrassed that I don't know quite enough about my Mac and OSX to know where to look next, so any guidance, even just a pointer to some document I couldn't find via Google, would be most welcome. Michael

    Read the article

  • mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi , mod_wsgi, mod_python, FLUP. I don't know how many more. what is mo

    - by claws
    I recently learnt Python. I liked it. I just wanted to use it for web development. This thought caused all the troubles. But I like these troubles :) Coming from PHP world where there is only one way standardized. I expected the same and searched for python & apache. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/449055/setting-up-python-on-windows-apache says Stay away from mod_python. One common misleading idea is that mod_python is like mod_php, but for python. That is not true. So what is equivalent of mod_php in python? I need little clarification on this one http://stackoverflow.com/questions/219110/how-python-web-frameworks-wsgi-and-cgi-fit-together CGI, FastCGI and SCGI are language agnostic. You can write CGI scripts in Perl, Python, C, bash, or even Assembly :). So, I guess mod_cgi , mod_fastcgi, mod_scgi are their corresponding apache modules. Right? WSGI is some kind of optimized/improved inshort an efficient version specifically designed for python language only. In order to use this mod_wsgi is a way to go. right? This leaves out mod_python. What is it then? Apache - mod_fastcgi - FLUP (via CGI protocol) - Django (via WSGI protocol) Flup is another way to run with wsgi for any webserver that can speak FCGI, SCGI or AJP What is FLUP? What is AJP? How did Django come in the picture? These questions raise quetions about PHP. How is it actually running? What technology is it using? mod_php & mod_python what are the differences? In future if I want to use Perl or Java then again will I have to get confused? Kindly can someone explain things clearly and give a Complete Picture.

    Read the article

  • model view controller question

    - by songBong
    Hi, I've been working on my iphone game recently and came across a forked road when deciding the design of my various classes. So far I've adhered to the MVC pattern but the following situation had me confused: I have 4 buttons displayed visually. Each button though consists of a container UIView (which I've subclassed) and 2 UIButtons (also subclassed) as subviews. When you press a button, it does the flip effect plus other stuff. The user input is using target-action from my container UIView to my controller. This part is ok, the following part is the debatable part: So I've subclassed the container view as well as the UIButtons and I need to add more data/methods (somewhere) to do more things. Putting data that needs to be serialized and non-rendering related code in the view classes seems to break the MVC design but at the moment, it makes the most sense to me to put it there. It's almost like my subclassed views are their own little MVC's and it seems neat. Separating out the data/methods from the view to my main controller in this case seems unnecessary and a more work. How should I be doing it? Thanks heaps.

    Read the article

  • Good Learning Method for Objective-C?

    - by Josh Kahane
    Hi I know this must be asked a millions times and can't be easy to answer as there is o definitive method, but any help would be appreciated, thanks. I have been playing around with all sorts of things in Xcode and with Objective-C, however I can't seem to find a good way of learning things in an efficient way. I have bought the book 'Programming in Objective-C 2.0' and its great but just lays down the basics it seems. I want to learn in the 2D game development direction, then of course 3D after nailing that, if thats the right thing to do? I am 17 currently in year 13, last year of school/A Levels and am almost definitely taking a gap year. Any good, well known reputable courses online or offline (real world)? This is my first programming language, and I am absolutely serious about learning this. One last question, is when learning things online, I have in the past started building a feature and learning a certain aspect in programming only to find out after adding more its slows down the app or its to inefficient. Is the key to use a certain method in a certain situation (being os many ways to do the same thing) or use any of those methods and refine it in your app to make it run smoothly? Sorry, its hard for me to know when I have little experience, thus far. Sorry for rambling on! I would appreciate any help, thank you!

    Read the article

  • Delphi, PGDac vs Zeos, Fetch, Lookup?

    - by durumdara
    Hi! I used Zeos to test to know: is ZTable uses fetch technics, or not? May in the future we migrate our lesser system to PGSQL, and this used now "Table" components (as BDE, but it have an SQL-like server). These tables use real cursors, a "Window" with N record, so lookup is very fast, because the Locate/Lookup is started on server, and only these N records are refreshed, no matter, how many records in the lookup table. PGSQL uses fetch technics as I know, and I tested it with a table (id int, name varchar(100)), and 1 million records. (I also trying this with mysql). The adapter is Zeos. ID, sec to find, allocated memory in bytes on client. MySQL 500000 2,761 113 196 344 1000000 3,214 225 471 232 313800 0,437 225 471 232 328066 0,468 225 471 232 276374 0,390 225 471 232 905984 1,264 225 471 232 260253 0,359 225 471 232 PGSQL 500000 3,042 113 188 184 1000000 3,744 225 463 064 313800 0,436 225 463 064 328066 0,452 225 463 064 276374 0,375 225 463 064 905984 1,295 225 463 064 260253 0,359 225 463 064 142023 0,203 225 463 064 As you see the records are fetched locally, this cause the 225 MB usage, and searches are slow a little, based where is the record we must find. I want to ask more things: a.) Is PGDAC have some technics to we can use the lookups without pay the fetch with memory and secs? b.) Or is PG ODBC driver can help in this problem with ADO? (As I know ADO can use server side cursors)? c.) Have anybody some experience with lookup tables, and performance? Is this critical question or it is not? (With client memory usage too). d.) If no chance to avoid fetch hell with lookups, what we can do? Server Side Joins, and unique code for Lookup field changing without real Lookup? Thanks for your help: dd

    Read the article

  • Match entities fulfilling filter (strict superset of search)

    - by Jon
    I have an entity (let's say Person) with a set of arbitrary attributes with a known subset of values. I need to search for all of these entities that match all my filter conditions. That is, given a set of Attributes A, I need to find all people that have a set of Attributes that are a superset of A. For example, my table structures look like this: Person: id | name 1 | John Doe 2 | Jane Roe 3 | John Smith Attribute: id | attr_name 1 | Sex 2 | Eye Color ValidValue: id | attr_id | value_name 1 | 1 | Male 2 | 1 | Female 3 | 2 | Blue 4 | 2 | Green 5 | 2 | Brown PersonAttributes id | person_id | attr_id | value_id 1 | 1 | 1 | 1 2 | 1 | 2 | 3 3 | 2 | 1 | 2 4 | 2 | 2 | 4 5 | 3 | 1 | 1 6 | 3 | 2 | 4 In JPA, I have entities built for all of these tables. What I'd like to do is perform a search for all entities matching a given set of attribute-value pairs. For instance, I'd like to be able to find all males (John Doe and John Smith), all people with green eyes (Jane Roe or John Smith), or all females with green eyes (Jane Roe). I see that I can already take advantage of the fact that I only really need to match on value_id, since that's already unique and tied to the attr_id. But where can I go from there? I've been trying to do something like the following, given that the ValidValue is unique in all cases: select distinct p from Person p join p.personAttributes a where a.value IN (:values) Then I've tried putting my set of required values in as "values", but that gives me errors no matter how I try to structure that. I also have to get a little more complicated, as follows, but at this point I'd be happy with solving the first problem cleanly. However, if it's possible, the Attribute table actually has a field for default value: id | attr_name | default_value 1 | Sex | 1 2 | Eye Color | 5 If the value you're searching on happens to be the default value, I want it to return any people that have no explicit value set for that attribute, because in the application logic, that means they inherit the default value. Again, I'm more concerned about the primary question, but if someone who can help with that also has some idea of how to do this one, I'd be extremely grateful.

    Read the article

  • Zend Framework or CakePHP?

    - by gorzan
    My group is going to attempt to build a new CMS from scratch, designed to serve the needs of our organization. It should be noted that none of us have any formal programming education, but we've picked up this and that from developing different websites, among others the one our community uses now. We've decided to program the new CMS in PHP, with total MVC seperation. Not wanting to re-invent all the little cogs and wheels needed for such a potentially large project as this, we've been looking into using a PHP framework, and some googling and blog-surfing landed us in a discussion: Zend vs Cake? Anyone have any useful input here? Also, any other tips for embarking on this project would be appreciated. (Except for suggestions for existing CMSes, we know they're out there.) EDIT: It seems I was a bit unclear. None of us are NEW to PHP - in fact, we all have fairly extensive experience from previous projects, including the current solution our community's website runs on which we built ourselves. The decision to not use an existing CMS is a very informed one, so although I appreciate all the good suggestions we really are going to do this ourselves. So. Zend vs Cake?

    Read the article

  • Can per-user randomized salts be replaced with iterative hashing?

    - by Chas Emerick
    In the process of building what I'd like to hope is a properly-architected authentication mechanism, I've come across a lot of materials that specify that: user passwords must be salted the salt used should be sufficiently random and generated per-user ...therefore, the salt must be stored with the user record in order to support verification of the user password I wholeheartedly agree with the first and second points, but it seems like there's an easy workaround for the latter. Instead of doing the equivalent of (pseudocode here): salt = random(); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword, salt); Why not use the hash of the username as the salt? This yields a domain of salts that is well-distributed, (roughly) random, and each individual salt is as complex as your salt function provides for. Even better, you don't have to store the salt in the database -- just regenerate it at authentication-time. More pseudocode: salt = hash(username); hashedPassword = hash(salt . password); storeUserRecord(username, hashedPassword); (Of course, hash in the examples above should be something reasonable, like SHA-512, or some other strong hash.) This seems reasonable to me given what (little) I know of crypto, but the fact that it's a simplification over widely-recommended practice makes me wonder whether there's some obvious reason I've gone astray that I'm not aware of.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC on GoDaddy Not Working (Not Primary Domain Deployment)

    - by JPrescottSanders
    I am trying to get ASP.NET MVC working on GoDaddy and I'm not having much luck. I have read the post on SO that covers the subject, but I must have a slightly different configuration or must be missing somehting along the way because the main MVC page comes up, but all links seem to fail and no amount of tweaking the URLs seems to get it to work. A little back ground. I have a single hosting plan with many domains pointed to sub folders of the main domain. Basic ASP.NET web forms pages work just fine, but of course I wanted to try and host a sample MVC site in one of these non-primary domains. You can go to the URL here. As you can see this first page comes up, but if you click on Home or About it doesn't work. Clicking on Home creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/" and clicking on about creates this link "http://www.jprescottsanders.com/jps/Home/About". As you can see JPS sneaks in there, this of course is the sub folder that i place my web app files in. I would like to know if this is a MVC related issue or a GoDaddy issue. I suspect that MVC may want to sit in the root directory of the site, and when it puts the "jps" into the URLs it breaks the routing mechanisms (but this is conjecture). I know Dan said this was possible so I'm hoping he sees this and helps me get to the bottom of this deployment strategy for MVC.

    Read the article

  • From ASPX to WCF

    - by Barguast
    I'm hoping someone can advise me on how to solve my networking scenario. Both the client and server are to be C# / .NET based. I basically want to invoke some kind of web service from my client in order to retrieve both binary data (e.g. files) and serialised objects and lists of objects (e.g. database query results). At the moment, I'm using ASPX pages, using the query string to provide parameters and I get back either the binary data, or the binary data of the serialised messages. This affords me a lot of flexbility, and I can choose how to transmit the data, perform simulatanous requests, cancel ongoing requests, etc. Since I can control the serialised format, I can also deserialise lists of objects as they are received which is crucial. My problem isn't a problem as such, but this feels a little hack-ish and I can't help but wonder if there are better ways to go about it. I'm considering moving on to WCF or perhaps another technology to see if it helps. However, I need to know if it helps with my scenarios above that is; Can a WCF method return a list of objects, and can the client receive the items of this list as they arrive as opposed to getting the entire list on completion (i.e. streaming). Does anyone know of any examples of this? Am I likely to get any performance benefits from this? I don't know how well ASPX pages are tuned for this, as it surely isn't their primary purpose. Are there any other approaches I should consider? Thanks for your time spent reading this. I hope you can help.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't this jQuery snippet work in IE8 like it does in Chrome/Firefox (live demo included)?

    - by Siracuse
    I asked for help earlier on Stackoverflow involving highlighting spans with the same Class when a mouse hovers over any Span with that same Class. It is working great: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2709686/how-can-i-add-a-border-to-all-the-elements-that-share-a-class-when-the-mouse-has $('span[class]').hover( function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','green'); }, function() { $('.' + $(this).attr('class')).css('background-color','yellow'); } ) Here is an example of it in usage: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html However, it doesn't appear to work properly in IE8, while it DOES work in Chrome/Firefox. Here is a screenshot of it in IE8, with my mouse hovered over the " min) { min" section in the middle. As you can see, it highlighted the span that the mouse is hovering over perfectly fine. However, it has also highlighted some random spans above and below it that don't have the same class! Only the span's with the same Class as the one where the mouse is over should be highlighted green. In this screenshot, only that middle green section should be green. Here is a screenshot of it working properly in Firefox/Chrome with my mouse in the exact same position: This screenshot is correct as the span that the mouse is over (the green section) is the only one in this section that shares that class. Why is IE8 randomly green-highlighting spans when it shouldn't be (they don't share the same class) using my little jQuery snippet? Again, if you want to see it live I have it here: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/638285/0utput.html

    Read the article

  • Prevent empty tooltips at a wpf datagrid

    - by TheCalendarProgrammer
    I am working on a calendar program, which consists mainly of a WPF DataGrid. As there is not always enough space to display all the entries of a day (which is a DataGridCell), a tooltip with all the entries of the day shell appear at mouse over. This works so far with the code snippet shown below. And now the (little) problem: If there are no entries for a day, no tooltip shell pop up. With the code below an empty tooltip pops up. <DataGridTemplateColumn x:Name="Entry" IsReadOnly="True"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid> <TextBlock Text="{Binding EntryText}" Foreground="{Binding EntryForeground}" FontWeight="{Binding EntryFontWeight}"> </TextBlock> <TextBlock Text="{Binding RightAlignedText}" Foreground="Gray" Background="Transparent"> <TextBlock.ToolTip> <TextBlock Text="{Binding AllEntriesText}"/> </TextBlock.ToolTip> </TextBlock> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> The Databinding is made via myCalDataGrid.Itemssource = _listOfDays; in code behind, where a 'Day' is the view model for a single calendar row.

    Read the article

  • Cross-browser padding/margins

    - by Lucifer
    Hi All, I was wondering if you could give me some helpful hints on how to correct this issue? I have a main menu on my site, the code for it is as follows: li:hover { background-color: #222222; padding-top: 8px; padding-bottom: 9px; } And here's a demo of what it actually looks like: The problem is that when I hover over a menu option (li), the background appears, but it overflows to the outside of the menu's background, and makes it look really dodgy/crap/cheap/yuck! Note that (obviously) when I change the padding to make it display correctly in these browsers, it appears too small in height in IE! So I'm screwed either way. How can I make little imperfections like this look the same in all browsers? Update: HTML (The menu): <ul class="menu"> <li class="currentPage" href="index.php"><a>Home</a></li> <li><a href="services.php">Services</a></li> <li><a href="support.php">Support</a></li> <li><a href="contact.php">Contact Us</a></li> <li><a href="myaccount/" class="myaccount">My Account</a></li> </ul> The CSS: .menu { margin-top: 5px; margin-right: 5px; width: 345px; float: right; } li { font-size: 9pt; color: whitesmoke; padding-left: 6px; padding-right: 8px; display: inline; list-style: none; } li:hover { background-color: #222222; padding-top: 8px; padding-bottom: 9px; }

    Read the article

  • Advantages/disadvantages of Python and Ruby

    - by Seburdis
    I know this is going to seem a little like all the other python vs ruby question out there, but I'm not looking specifically to pick one over the other all the time. My question is, essentially, why would you use one language over the other when you are starting a new project? What features does ruby have that python doesn't that would make you decide on it for a given project? What about python over ruby? I was just recently thinking about the differentiation between the two languages because of Jamis Buck's "There is no magic, only awesome" series of articles (4 parts, available here) when I realized I really don't know enough about the two languages to know when to choose one over the other. I'm hoping to get objective answers from people who have experience with both languages, rather than just "python is better, ruby sucks" kind of responses. If you know of a feature in one language that doesn't exist in the other and is great in a certain situation, feel free to chime in and say why you think it's awesome. If you have another language comparable to these that you'd like to suggest pros/cons for, like groovy for example, that would be appreciated too. Some thing I know each language has going for it: Ruby: Awesome metaprogramming Great community Wide selection of Gems Rails Great code readability, usually MacRuby is great for native development on Mac without objc Amazing testing tools (cucumber, rspec, shoulda, autotest, etc.) Python: Whitespace indentation List comprehensions Better functional programming support? Lots of support on linux Easy_install isn't far from gems Great variety of libraries available

    Read the article

  • a facebook app question

    - by Robert
    I have written a small app and put it on facebook. I got an application ID and secret. Then I wrote the following script to access my app (just as told on the facebook page). <?php require './src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxx', 'cookie' => true, // enable optional cookie support )); try { $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } if ($facebook->getSession()) { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLogoutUrl() . '">Logout</a>'; } else { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLoginUrl() . '">Login</a>'; } ?> Then I started running this script. It prompted me with the login link, then took me to the facebook login page. However, after I enter my facebook login details, I get this error page: Error. API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. Could anyone help me a little bit please, I am really confused here about what's going on.

    Read the article

  • Loading the target of a link in a <DIV> via jQuery's .live event into the same <DIV>??

    - by Martin Pescador
    Hello together I call a certain div from another page with jquery to be loaded into a div on my main page like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $("#scotland").load("http://www.example.com/scotland .gallery"); </script> <div id="scotland"></div> The div I call is a piece of code which is automatically generated by a CMS made simple module, by the way. Now it comes to my problem: The .gallery div I call, looks, a little simplified, like this: <div class="gallery"> <span><img src="http://www.example.com/scotlandimage1.jpg"></span> <span class="imgnavi"><a href="link_to_next_page_with_one_image">Next image</href></span> </div> I want the "next image"-link to load the next page into the .gallery div (it is always a page with one image on it). But what it does, is, it opens the new page http://www.example.com/scotland only. I tried to use jquerys .live event to load the linked page (that would be "scotlandimage2" and the navigation, as you can see in the upper part - not only the image!), but I must have done something wrong. I tried different ways, but never got it to work. This was my last try: $(".imgnavi a").click(function() { var myUrl = $(this).attr("href"); $(".gallery").load(myUrl); return false; }); I have to admit that I am very new to jquery... But does someone know what I did wrong (do I even follow the right handlers?)? Thanks very much in advance! Martin

    Read the article

  • Wordpress.. Is it a CMS?

    - by madcolor
    I recently was contacted by a client who simply wanted to increase their organic rankings in Google. My approach was to do the following: A) Take them off of their overpriced host and move them to a nicer, cheaper, more feature-rich hosting solution which included a simple Wordpress install. B) Apply a theme to WordPress which followed the look and feel of their existing website. C) Train my client on how to login to their copy of Wordpress and create/manage pages/posts. This took me very little time.. Most of the work in converting asp forms into php and tweaking a theme to fit their design. Now my client is able to create/manage as many pages or posts as they desire. I believe, for this purpose, Worpress was the easiest solution. Would you categorize Wordpress as a CMS? Similar: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/250880/is-there-any-cms-better-than-wordpress-or-should-i-roll-my-own http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1101818/wordpress-as-a-cms-option http://stackoverflow.com/questions/490899/which-cms-to-choose http://stackoverflow.com/questions/629203/is-it-advisable-to-use-wordpress-as-cms-closed http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1451326/is-wordpress-good-for-building-a-large-cms-site-with-many-pages-about-over-100-00 External: http://codex.wordpress.org/User%3ALastnode/Wordpress%5FCMS http://wordpress.org/development/2009/11/wordpress-wins-cms-award/

    Read the article

  • Bash and regex problem : check for tokens entered into a Coke vending machine

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: Here is a "challenge question" I've got from Linux system programming lecture. Any of the following strings will give you a Coke if you kick: L = { aaaa, aab, aba, baa, bb, aaaa"a", aaaa"b", aab"a", … ab"b"a, ba"b"a, ab"bbbbbb"a, ... } The letters shown in wrapped double quotes indicate coins that would have fallen through (but those strings are still part of the language in this example). Exercise (a bit hard) show this is the language of a regular expression And this is what I've got so far : #!/usr/bin/bash echo "A bottle of Coke costs you 40 cents" echo -e "Please enter tokens (a = 10 cents, b = 20 cents) in a sequence like 'abba' :\c" read tokens #if [ $tokens = aaaa ]||[ $tokens = aab ]||[ $tokens = bb ] #then # echo "Good! now a coke is yours!" #else echo "Thanks for your money, byebye!" if [[ $token =~ 'aaaa|aab|bb' ]] then echo "Good! now a coke is yours!" else echo "Thanks for your money, byebye!" fi Sadly it doesn't work... always outputs "Thanks for your money, byebye!" I believe something is wrong with syntax... We didn't provided with any good reference book and the only instruction from the professor was to consult "anything you find useful online" and "research the problem yourself" :( I know how could I do it in any programming language such as Java, but get it done with bash script + regex seems not "a bit hard" but in fact "too hard" for anyone with little knowledge on something advanced as "lookahead"(is this the terminology ?) I don't know if there is a way to express the following concept in the language of regex: Valid entry would consist of exactly one of the three components : aaaa, aab and bb, regardless of order, followed by an arbitrary sequence of a or b's So this is what is should be like : (a{4}Ua{2}bUb{2})(aUb)* where the content in first braces is order irrelevant. Thanks a lot in advance for any hints and/or tips :)

    Read the article

  • Refresh iFrame (Cache Issue)

    - by Ramiz Uddin
    We are getting a weird issue on which we are not sure what exactly cause it. Let me elaborate the issue. Suppose, we have two different html pages a.html and b.html. And a little script written in index.html: <html> <head> <script> function reloadFrame(iframe, src) { iframe.src = src; } </script> </head> <body> <form> <iframe id="myFrame"></iframe> <input type="button" value="Load a.html" onclick="reloadFrame(document.getElementById('myFrame'), 'a.html')"> <input type="button" value="Load b.html" onclick="reloadFrame(document.getElementById('myFrame'), 'b.html')"> </form> </body> </html> A server component is continuously updating both files a.html and b.html. The problem is the content of both files are successfully updating on the server side. If we open we can see the updated changes but client getting the older content which doesn't show the updated changes. Any idea?

    Read the article

  • Regex statements for date ranges <=4/1/2009 and <=10/01/2009

    - by reggiereg
    Hi, I need serious help building two Regex statements for a project. The software we're using ONLY accepts Regex for validation. I need one that fires for any date <4/1/2009 and a second that fires for any date <10/1/2009 My co-worker gave me the following code to check for <=10/01/2010, but it checks leap years and all that stuff. I need something a little more streamlined than this in the MM/DD/YYYY format. Thanks in advance! ^(?:(?:0?[1-9])|(?:1[0-2]))(\/|-|.)(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-8])(\/|-|.)(?:2[0-9][2-9][0-9])$|^(?:(?:0?[1-9])|(?:1[0-2]))(\/|-|.)(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-8])(\/|-|.)(?:201[1-9])$|^(?:(?:(?:0?[13578]|1[02])(\/|-|.)31)|(?:(?:0?[1,3-9]|1[0-2])(\/|-|.)(?:29|30)))(\/|-|.)(?:201[1-9])$|^(?:(?:(?:11)(\/|-|.))(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-9]|30)(\/|-|.))(2010)$|^(?:(?:(?:10|12)(\/|-|.))(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-9]|30|31)(\/|-|.))(2010)$|^(?:(?:0?[1-9])|(?:1[0-2]))(\/|-|.)(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-8])(\/|-|.)(?:2[0-9][2-9][0-9])$|^(?:(?:(?:0?[13578]|1[02])(\/|-|.)31)\1|(?:(?:0?[1,3-9]|1[0-2])(\/|-|.)(?:29|30)))(\/|-|.)(?:2[0-9][2-9][0-9])$|^(?:(?:0?[1-9])|(?:1[0-2]))(\/|-|.)(?:0?[1-9]|1\d|2[0-8])(\/|-|.)(?:2011)$|^(?:0?2(\/|-|.)29\3(?:(?:(?:2[0-9][1-9]\d)?(?:0[48]|[2468][048]|[13579][26])|(?:(?:16|[2468][048]|[3579][26])00))))$

    Read the article

  • Persistent warning message about "initWithDelegate"!

    - by RickiG
    Hi This is not an actual Xcode error message, it is a warning that has been haunting me for a long time. I have found no way of removing it and I think I maybe have overstepped some unwritten naming convention rule. If I build a class, most often extending NSObject, whose only purpose is to do some task and report back when it has data, I often give it a convenience constructor like "initWithDelegate". The first time I did this in my current project was for a class called ISWebservice which has a protocol like this: @protocol ISWebserviceDelegate @optional - (void) serviceFailed:(NSError*) error; - (void) serviceSuccess:(NSArray*) data; @required @end Declared in my ISWebservice.h interface, right below my import statements. I have other classes that uses a convenience constructor named "initWithDelegate". E.g. "InternetConnectionLost.h", this class does not however have its methods as optional, there are no @optional @required tags in the declaration, i.e. they are all required. Now my warning pops up every time I instantiate one of these Classes with convenience constructors written later than the ISWebservice, so when utilizing the "InternetConnectionLost" class, even though the entire Class owning the "InternetConnectionLost" object has nothing to do with the "ISWebservice" Class, no imports, methods being called, no nothing, the warning goes: 'ClassOwningInternetConnectionLost' does not implement the 'ISWebserviceDelegate' protocol I does not break anything, crash at runtime or do me any harm, but it has begun to bug me as I near release. Also, because several classes use the "initWithDelegate" constructor naming, I have 18 of these warnings in my build results and I am getting uncertain if I did something wrong, being fairly new at this language. Hope someone can shed a little light on this warning, thank you:)

    Read the article

  • Running multiple applications in STM32 flash

    - by Richard
    Hey! I would like to have two applications in my STM32 flash, one is basically a boot and the other the 'main' application. I have figured out how to load each of them into different areas of flash, and after taking a memory dump everything looks like it is in the right place. So when I do a reset it loads the boot, all the boot does at the moment is jump to the application. Debugging the boot, this all appears to work correctly. However the problems arrives after i've made the jump to the application, it just executes one instruction (assembly) and then jumps back to the boot. It should stay in the application indefinitely. My question is then, where should I 'jump' to in the app? It seems that there are a few potential spots, such as the interrupt vectors, the reset handler, the main function of the app. Actually I've tried all of those with no success. Hopefully that makes sense, i'll update the question if not. thanks for your help! Richard Updates: I had a play around in the debugger and manually changed the program counter to the main of the application, and well that worked a charm, so it makes me think there is something wrong with my jump, why doesn't the program counter keep going after the jump? Actually it seems to be the PSR, the 'T' gets reset on the jump, if I set that again after the jump it continues on with the app as I desire Ok found a solution, seems that you need to have the PC LSB set to 1 when you do a branch or it falls into the 'ARM' mode (32 bit instruction instead of 16 bit instructions like in the 'thumb' mode. Quite an obscure little problem, thanks for letting me share it with you!

    Read the article

  • Calculate total batch upload transfer percent with limited information

    - by GONeale
    Hi there, I have a system which uploads to a server file by file and displays a progress bar on file upload progress, then underneath a second progress bar which I want to indicate percentage of batch complete across all files queued to upload. Information and algorithms I can work out are: Bytes Sent / Total Bytes To Send = First progress bar (eg. 512KB of 1024KB (50%)) That works fine. However supposing I have two other files left to upload, but both file sizes are unknown (as this is only known once the file is about to commence upload, at which point it is compressed and file size is determined) how would I go about making my third progress bar? I didn't think this would be possible as I would need "Total Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send", to replicate the logic of my first progress bar on a larger scale, however I did get a version working: "Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send" returning the percentage through the batch, however obviously will not incrementally update and it's pretty crude. So on further thinking I thought if I could incorporate the current file % with this algorithm I could perhaps get the correct progress percentage of my batch's current point. I tried this algorithm, but alas to no such avail (sorry to any math heads, it's probably quite apparent why it won't work) ("Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send") * ("Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send") For example I thought I was on the right track when testing with this example: 2/3 (2nd of 3rd file) = 66% (this is right so far) but then when I added * 0.20 (for indicating only 20% of 2nd file has uploaded) we went back to 13%. What I need is only a little over 33%! I did try the inverse at 0.80 and a (2/3 * (2/3 * 0.2)) Can this be done without knowing entire bytes in batch to upload? Please help! Thank you!

    Read the article

  • TCP: Address already in use exception - possible causes for client port? NO PORT EXHAUSTION

    - by TomTom
    Hello, stupid problem. I get those from a client connecting to a server. Sadly, the setup is complicated making debugging complex - and we run out of options. The environment: *Client/Server system, both running on the same machine. The client is actually a service doing some database manipulation at specific times. * The cnonection comes from C# going through OleDb to an EasySoft JDBC driver to a custom written JDBC server that then hosts logic in C++. Yeah, compelx - but the third party supplier decided to expose the extension mechanisms for their server through a JDBC interface. Not a lot can be done here ;) The Symptom: At (ir)regular intervals we get a "Address already in use: connect" told from the JDBC driver. They seem to come from one particular service we run. Now, I did read all the stuff about port exhaustion. This is why we have a little tool running now that counts ports and their states every minute. Last time this happened, we had an astonishing 370 ports in use, with the count rising to about 900 AFTER the error. We aleady patched the registry (it is a windows machine) to allow more than the 5000 client ports standard, but even then, we are far far from that limit to start with. Which is why I am asking here. Ayneone an ide what ELSE could cause this? It is a Windows 2003 Server machine, 64 bit. The only other thing I can see that may cause it (but this functionality is supposedly disabled) is Symantec Endpoint Protection that is installed on the server - and being capable of actinc as a firewall, it could possibly intercept network traffic. I dont want to open a can of worms by pointing to Symantec prematurely (if pointing to Symantec can ever be seen as such). So, anyone an idea what else may be the cause? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Rails: constraint violation on create but not on update

    - by justinbach
    Note: This is a "railsier" (and more succinct) version of this question, which was getting a little long. I'm getting Rails behavior on a production server that I can't replicate on the development server. The codebases are identical save for credentials and caching settings, and both are powered by Oracle 10g databases with identical schema (but different data). My Rails application contains a user model, which has_one registration; registration in turn has_and_belongs_to_many company_ownerships through a registration_ownerships table. Upon registering, users fill out data pertinent to all three models, including a series of checkboxes indicating what registration_ownerships might apply to their account. On the dev server, the registration process is seamless, no matter what data is entered. On production, however, if users check off any of the company ownership fields before submitting their registration, Oracle complains about a constraint violation on the primary key of the company_ownerships table (which is a two-field key based on company_ownership_id and registration_id) and users get the standard Rails 500 error screen. In every case, I've verified that no conflicting record on these two fields exists in the production database, so I don't know why the constraint is getting violated. To further confuse things, if a user registers without listing any ownerships and later goes back and modifies their account to reflect ownership data (which is done through the same interface), the application happily complies with their request and Oracle is well-behaved (this is both on production and dev). I've spent the past couple days trying to figure out what might be causing this problem and am reaching the end of my wits. Any advice would be greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386 387 388  | Next Page >