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  • Getting the highlighted text inside selected element only.

    - by ashays
    My goal is to be able to get the highlighted text within a document, but only if that text is within a given section, and then apply a certain style to that selected text after clicking a div tag. I'll explain what I mean: So, having looked at window.getSelection() and document.selection.createRange().text, I attempted to use elmnt.getSelection() or elmnt.selection.createRange().text for some HTML element, elmnt. However, it doesn't seem to work, so that idea seems pretty null. This means I can't use this idea to determine the text that is highlighted within a given location. In case this doesn't make sense, essentially, I want html code that looks like this: <body> <div id="content">Stuff here will not be effected</div> <div id="highlightable">Stuff here can be effected when highlighted</div> <div id="morecontent">Stuff here will also not be effected</div> </body> So that whenever I've highlighted text, clicking on a specified div will apply the proper CSS. Now, on to the div tags. Basically, here's what I've got on that: $('.colorpicker').click( function(e) { console.log(getSelectedText()); } Eventually, all I want this to highlight the selected text and have the div tag change the color of the selected text to that of the respective div tag that I've selected. Neither of these seems to be working right now, and my only guess for the reason of the div tag is that it unhighlights whatever I've got selected whenever I click on the div tag. Fallbacks: If there is more than one time that 'abc' is found on the page and I highlight to color 'abc', I would like that only that copy of 'abc' be highlighted. I know this is a lot in one question, but even if I could get a little head start on this idea, my next personal project would be going a lot more smoothly. Thanks. :)

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  • How to run crontab-e?

    - by user1723760
    I am currently reading this documentation here where I want to use CRON. Now it says in the first section that I need to enter in a command: crontab -e. Do I only need to enter this in a simple text editor file and just upload the file into the server? I am using helios.hud.ac.uk so would this be the correct command: * * 25 10 * helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php This will execute this php script below (inactivatesession.php): <?php include('connect.php'); $createDate = mktime(0,0,0,10,25,date("Y")); $selectedDate = date('d-m-Y', ($createDate)); $sql = "UPDATE Session SET Active = ? WHERE DATE_FORMAT(SessionDate,'%Y-%m-%d' ) <= ?"; $update = $mysqli->prepare($sql); $update->bind_param("is", 0, $selectedDate); $update->execute(); ?> The url for this php script is: helios.hud.ac.uk/u00000000/Mobile/inactivatesession.php I havn't used CRON before so just need little help on it. Thanks

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  • Capistrano fails for multiple host deployments

    - by morris082
    I be at a loss here, and after scouring the seas (read: internet) for solutions I am left with none other than to hit up the stack. any help appreciated. I have capistrano running locally for deployments onto several different environments. (I'm on windows 7, fwiw). All was well until I needed to deploy to multiple :app servers during a single deployment. Usually I'm prompted for my ssh passphrase once when I call 'cap deploy'. I have ssh-agent running (git never pesters for my pass) but despite this Capistrano has always bugged me once each deployment. Regardless, it always worked when deploying to ONE host. Now, when I attempt to deploy to multiple servers at once, it asks for my passphrase what appears to be multiple times: (ips removed by ME) servers: ["redacted", "redacted"]<br /> Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: Enter passphrase for ~/.ssh/id_rsa: So with the above I enter my passphrase but this doesn't work. It waits as little while, then spits out this error: connection failed for: <one of the server ips> (NoMethodError: undefined method `overwrite' for nil:NilClass) And that's the end of that. I can "passwordless" ssh into the servers I'm deploying on just fine. I'm pretty certain the ssh-agent is running since I can hit Git w/out entering my passphrase every time Using 'forward_agent' setting in cap deploy did not work. This is my role: role :app, "ip 1 removed", "ip 2 removed" If i set default_run_options[:max_hosts] = 1, it works OK but it asks for my passphrase for every single connection to each host I'm deploying to.. which ends up being a lot. Essentially I'm looking for any of the below (but not limited to): - "You're never going to fix that on windows" - "This is how you get REAL passwordless deployment in capistrano" - "Have you overlooked this setting/feature?" - "I have a rock that can fix anything, you may borrow it" Thanks!

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  • parameter error in my Facebook app

    - by Robert
    I have written a small app and put it on facebook. I got an application ID and secret. Then I wrote the following script to access my app (just as told on the facebook page). <?php require './src/facebook.php'; $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'xxxx', 'secret' => 'xxxx', 'cookie' => true, // enable optional cookie support )); try { $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } if ($facebook->getSession()) { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLogoutUrl() . '">Logout</a>'; } else { echo '<a href="' . $facebook->getLoginUrl() . '">Login</a>'; } ?> Then I started running this script. It prompted me with the login link, then took me to the facebook login page. However, after I enter my facebook login details, I get this error page: Error. API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. Could anyone help me a little bit please, I am really confused here about what's going on.

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  • What is a Windows scripting language that: does not rely on .NET and offers the most OOP support and

    - by jJack
    What is a Windows scripting language that: does not rely on .NET and offers the most OOP support and has simplest deployment? It doesn't necessarily need to be a scripting language; It can be in the form of a compiled executable, however it needs to be self contained--only ONE file, no DLL's and it cannot be declared to "include" other files. I cannot rely on the user having any .NET installed and it needs to be able to run on Windows 7 64 bit. By "most OOP support", I basically mean anything that has better OOP support than VBScript. A little context: Everything I have done thus far is in VBScript and writes a bunch of data into an .html file, which in the end is to be viewed by Internet Explorer. It also zips up a bunch of directories and files. It heavily relies on accessing the registry, file-system, and WMI (I can probably do without accessing WMI though, as long as I have good registry access). I can bring myself to code in any language so long as it meets me ridonkulous requirements stated above. I look forward to some good answers from those more experienced than I.

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  • Python: Best way to check for Python version in program that uses new language features?

    - by Mark Harrison
    If I have a python script that requires at least a particular version of python, what is the correct way to fail gracefully when an earlier version of python is used to launch the script? How do I get control early enough to issue an error message and exit? For example, I have a program that uses the ternery operator (new in 2.5) and "with" blocks (new in 2.6). I wrote a simple little interpreter-version checker routine which is the first thing the script would call ... except it doesn't get that far. Instead, the script fails during python compilation, before my routines are even called. Thus the user of the script sees some very obscure synax error tracebacks - which pretty much require an expert to deduce that it is simply the case of running the wrong version of python. update I know how to check the version of python. The issue is that some syntax is illegal in older versions of python. Consider this program: import sys if sys.version_info < (2, 4): raise "must use python 2.5 or greater" else: # syntax error in 2.4, ok in 2.5 x = 1 if True else 2 print x When run under 2.4, I want this result $ ~/bin/python2.4 tern.py must use python2.5 or greater and not this result: $ ~/bin/python2.4 tern.py File "tern.py", line 5 x = 1 if True else 2 ^ SyntaxError: invalid syntax (channeling for a coworker)

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  • Altruistic network connection bandwidth estimation

    - by datenwolf
    Assume two peers Alice and Bob connected over a IP network. Alice and Bob are exchanging packets of lossy compressed data which are generated and to be consumes in real time (think a VoIP or video chat application). The service is designed to cope with as little bandwidth available, but relies on low latencies. Alice and Bob would mark their connection with an apropriate QoS profile. Alice and Bob want use a variable bitrate compression and would like to consume all of the leftover bandwidth available for the connection between them, but would voluntarily reduce the consumed bitrate depending on the state of the network. However they'd like to retain a stable link, i.e. avoid interruptions in their decoded data stream caused by congestion and the delay until the bandwidth got adjusted. However it is perfectly possible for them to loose a few packets. TL;DR: Alice and Bob want to implement a VoIP protocol from scratch, and are curious about bandwidth and congestion control. What papers and resources do you suggest for Alice and Bob to read? Mainly in the area of bandwidth estimation and congestion control.

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  • Entity Framework 4 overwrite Equals and GetHashCode of an own class property

    - by Zhok
    Hi, I’m using Visual Studio 2010 with .NET 4 and Entity Framework 4. I’m working with POCO Classes and not the EF4 Generator. I need to overwrite the Equals() and GetHashCode() Method but that doesn’t really work. Thought it’s something everybody does but I don’t find anything about the problem Online. When I write my own Classes and Equals Method, I use Equals() of property’s, witch need to be loaded by EF to be filled. Like this: public class Item { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Name { get; set; } public virtual List<UserItem> UserItems { get; set; } public virtual ItemType ItemType { get; set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { Item item = obj as Item; if (obj == null) { return false; } return item.Name.Equals(this.Name) && item.ItemType.Equals(this.ItemType); } public override int GetHashCode() { return this.Name.GetHashCode() ^ this.ItemType.GetHashCode(); } } That Code doesn’t work, the problems are in Equals and GetHashCode where I try to get HashCode or Equal from “ItemType” . Every time I get a NullRefernceException if I try to get data by Linq2Entites. A dirty way to fix it, is to capture the NullReferenceException and return false (by Equals) and return base.GetHashCode() (by GethashCode) but I hope there is a better way to fix this problem. I’ve wrote a little test project, with SQL Script for the DB and POCO Domain, EDMX File and Console Test Main Method. You can download it here: Download

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  • GitHub solution for personal repo

    - by Luke Maurer
    So I've got my private SVN repo on my home server, and it has maybe 30 different modules thrown together in it, ranging from abortive throw-away larks to a few endeavors that might actually go somewhere someday. But a recent filesystem failure (BTW, never ever EVER use XFS without a battery-backed hardware RAID) has me spooked and thinking of using a DVCS for all that. I've also just had quite the swig of the Git koolaid, and I've been working with GitHub of late, so that's where I'm looking right now. Of course, it would be silly to shell out major cash for a separate private Git repo for every little project, and I don't want to have to be selective about what I throw up there (I love all my children :-D ), so I'll have to be somewhat creative about this. I can happily use SSH to my home box to use Git the way I've been using SVN, and I'm thinking from there I could amalgamate everything into, say, a big project with 30 submodules, which I then push to GitHub. What'd be a sane way to set this up? Does using submodules sound feasible? How do I sync it all to my private GitHub repo? Cron job? Git hook? I'd love to hear it if anyone's done something similar. I'm not really married to Git or GitHub, so a sufficiently compelling feature of another solution might sway me. But if your answer does involve a different system (especially a different VCS), be advised it'll be a tougher sell :-)

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  • Binding a list belonging to another object in a custom model binder in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Dan
    I realize something like this has been asked, but this may be a little different Below is my Event object: Event : IEvent public int Id public string Title public List<EventContact> Contacts And EventContact: EventContact public int Id public string Name So, an Event has a list of EventContact' objects. Now, Event also implements IEvent - hence the custom model binder. I useIEventinstead of Event, so when the default model binder tries to do its thing, it lets me know it can't create anIEvent'. I have my view with populated with the contact info: <input type="text" name="contact[0].Name" value="DB Value"/> <input type="text" name="contact[1].Name" value="DB Value"/> <input type="text" name="contact[2].Name" value="DB Value"/> <!-- Event fields, etc --> So, in my custom model binder I am able to see all the value - sweet! The only thing is, I'm really not sure how to get all the contact fields and create a list of contacts from them, along with binding all the Event fields. Any and all help is appreciated!

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  • Python many-to-one mapping (creating equivalence classes)

    - by Adam Matan
    Hi, I have a project of converting one database to another. One of the original database columns defines the row's category. This coulmn should be mapepd to a new category in the new databse. For example, let's assume the original categories are:parrot, spam, cheese_shop, Cleese, Gilliam, Palin Now that's a little verbose for me, And I want to have these rows categorized as sketch, actor - That is, define all the sketches and all the actors as two equivalence classes. >>> monty={'parrot':'sketch', 'spam':'sketch', 'cheese_shop':'sketch', 'Cleese':'actor', 'Gilliam':'actor', 'Palin':'actor'} >>> monty {'Gilliam': 'actor', 'Cleese': 'actor', 'parrot': 'sketch', 'spam': 'sketch', 'Palin': 'actor', 'cheese_shop': 'sketch'} That's quite awkward- I would prefer having something like: monty={ ('parrot','spam','cheese_shop'): 'sketch', ('Cleese', 'Gilliam', 'Palin') : 'actors'} But this, of course, sets the entire tuple as a key: >>> monty['parrot'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#29>", line 1, in <module> monty['parrot'] KeyError: 'parrot' Any ideas how to create an elegant many-to-one dictionary in Python? Thanks, Adam

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  • Cassandra hot keyspace structure change

    - by Pierre
    Hello. I'm currently running a 12-node Cassandra cluster storing 4TB of data, with a replication factor set to 3. For the needs of an application update, we need to change the configuration of our keyspace, and we'd like to avoid any downtime if possible. I read on a mailing list that the best way to do it is to: Kill cassandra process on one server of the cluster Start it again, wait for the commit log to be written on the disk, and kill it again Make the modifications in the storage.xml file Rename or delete the files in the data directories according to the changes we made Start cassandra Goto 1 with next server on the list My questions would be: Did I understand the process well? Is there any risk of data corruption? During the process, there will be servers with different versions of the storage.xml file in the same cluser, same keyspace. Is it a problem? Same question as above if we not only add, rename and remove ColumnFamilies, but if we change the CompareWith parameter / transform an existing column family into a super one. Or do we need to change the name? Thank you for your answers. It's the first time I'll do this, and I'm a little bit scared.

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  • Setting attributes of a class during construction from **kwargs

    - by Carson Myers
    Python noob here, Currently I'm working with SQLAlchemy, and I have this: from __init__ import Base from sqlalchemy.schema import Column, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.types import Integer, String from sqlalchemy.orm import relationship class User(Base): __tablename__ = "users" id = Column(Integer, primary_key=True) username = Column(String, unique=True) email = Column(String) password = Column(String) salt = Column(String) openids = relationship("OpenID", backref="users") User.__table__.create(checkfirst=True) #snip definition of OpenID class def create(**kwargs): user = User() if "username" in kwargs.keys(): user.username = kwargs['username'] if "email" in kwargs.keys(): user.username = kwargs['email'] if "password" in kwargs.keys(): user.password = kwargs['password'] return user This is in /db/users.py, so it would be used like: from db import users new_user = users.create(username="Carson", password="1234") new_user.email = "[email protected]" users.add(new_user) #this function obviously not defined yet but the code in create() is a little stupid, and I'm wondering if there's a better way to do it that doesn't require an if ladder, and that will fail if any keys are added that aren't in the User object already. Like: for attribute in kwargs.keys(): if attribute in User: user.__attribute__[attribute] = kwargs[attribute] else: raise Exception("blah") that way I could put this in its own function (unless one hopefully already exists?) So I wouldn't have to do the if ladder again and again, and so I could change the table structure without modifying this code. Any suggestions?

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  • Load external pages using jquery

    - by user1688011
    I'm trying to use jquery to load external pages into the current without reloading. Apparently everything works fine except of one little issue, I hope I'll be clear as much as possible. When I call the page 'info.php' it is loaded into the #content div. That's what the script supposed to do, the problem is that in the main page, which contains the script and the #content div, I already have some code that I want it to be executed when someone visit the page and not to be called from external page. That is actually the case but when I click on one of the links in the menu, I can't go back to the initial content.. <script> $(function() { $('#nav a').click(function() { var page = $(this).attr('href'); $('#content').load(page + '.php'); return false; }); }); </script> <ul id="nav"> <li><a href="#">Page1</a></li> <li><a href="about">About</a></li> <li><a href="contact">Contact</a></li> <li><a href="info">Info</a></li> </ul> <div id="content"> Here I have some code that I wanted to be attributed to the "Page1" </div> Do you have any suggestions how to fix this issue? Thanks

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  • Drag/drop problem (draggable in position:relative parent)

    - by MackDaddy
    Here's the scenario, I'm using prototype and scriptaculous, but I believe jquery would have the same issue. I have a list draggable images in a relatively positioned div. The problem is I can't drag the images out of the parent div... well... you can, they're just not visible. If you remove the position:relative on the parent div, it works just fine, I can drag items out of the div perfectly. However because of this little IE7 bug: http://snook.ca/archives/html%5Fand%5Fcss/position%5Frelative%5Foverflow%5Fie/ that position:relative is required. IS there another work around to this bug that does not require setting position? I've tried playing with z-index and everything I can think of to no avail. Here's the CSS for the box: #products{ width: 680px; height: 400px; border: 1px solid gray; /*background-color: #66FF00;*/ overflow-y: scroll; overflow-x: hidden; font-family:"Helvetica Neue","Helvetica"; font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; position: relative; } If you would like to see this bug in action, you can visit it here: http://twinmed-dev.com/template%5Fadd.php. Try searching for an item like "gloves" then adding it to the cart below. Thanks for any help.

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  • android & libgdx - disable blurry images rendering

    - by android developer
    i'm trying out libgdx as an opengl wrapper , and i have some issues with its graphical rendering : for some reason , all images (textures) on android device look a little blurred using libgdx . this also includes text (font) . however, for normal images , even though i show the entire image , i expect it to look as sharp as i see it on a computer , especially if i have such a good screen on the device (it's galaxy nexus) . i've tried to set the anti-aliasing off , by using the next code : final AndroidApplicationConfiguration androidApplicationConfiguration=new AndroidApplicationConfiguration(); androidApplicationConfiguration.numSamples=0; //tried the value of 1 too. ... i've also tried to set the scaling method to various methods , but with no luck. example: texture.setFilter(TextureFilter.Nearest,TextureFilter.Nearest); as a test , i've found a sharp image that is exactly the same as the seen resolution on the device (720x1184 for galaxy nexus , because of the buttons bar) , and i've put it to be on the background of the libgdx app . of course , i had to add extra blank space in order for the texute to be loaded , so the final size of the image (which will include content and empty space) is still a power of 2 for both width and height (1024x2048 in my case) . on the desktop app , it look ok . on the device , it looked blurred. a weird thing that i've noticed is that when i change the device's orientation (horizontal <= vertical) , for the very short time before the rotating animation starts , i see both the image and the text very well . can anyone please help me?

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  • Python socket error on UDP data receive. (10054)

    - by Charles
    I currently have a problem using UDP and Python socket module. We have a server and clients. The problem occurs when we send data to a user. It's possible that user may have closed their connection to the server through a client crash, disconnect by ISP, or some other improper method. As such, it is possible to send data to a closed socket. Of course with UDP you can't tell if the data really reached or if it's closed, as it doesn't care (atleast, it doesn't bring up an exception). However, if you send data and it is closed off, you get data back somehow (???), which ends up giving you a socket error on sock.recvfrom. [Errno 10054] An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Almost seems like an automatic response from the connection. Although this is fine, and can be handled by a try: except: block (even if it lowers performance of the server a little bit). The problem is, I can't tell who this is coming from or what socket is closed. Is there anyway to find out 'who' (ip, socket #) sent this? It would be great as I could instantly just disconnect them and remove them from the data. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Sending items in a LINQ sequence to a method that returns void

    - by generalt
    Hello all. Often while I'm dealing with LINQ sequences, I want to send each item to a method returning void, avoiding a foreach loop. However, I haven't found an elegant way to do this. Today, I wrote the following code: private StreamWriter _sw; private void streamToFile(List<ErrorEntry> errors) { if (_sw == null) { _sw = new StreamWriter(Path.Combine (Path.GetDirectoryName(_targetDatabasePath), "errors.txt")); } Func<ErrorEntry, bool> writeSelector = (e) => { _sw.WriteLine(getTabDelimititedLine(e)); return true; }; errors.Select(writeSelector); _sw.Flush(); } As you can see, I write a lambda function that just returns true, and I realize that the Select method will return a sequence of booleans- I'll just ignore that sequence. However, this seems a little bit noobish and jank. Is there any elegant way to do this? Or am I just misapplying LINQ? Thanks.

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  • Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

    - by Rene
    Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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  • How to generate an ear file from a maven-archetype-webapp artifact?

    - by Mike
    I currently have a project built with maven-archetype-webapp artifact. The default packaging for this project is war. Is it possible for me to insert the maven-ear-plugin in this webapp pom.xml generate an ear file that contains this project war? I tried that, but the war file doesn't get embedded in the generated ear file. It has everything except the war file. I read many Maven related articles, and perhaps I could use maven-archetype-j2ee-simple artifact. However, I'm reluctant to this use for 2 reasons:- This artifact handles ejbs and all the extra features that I don't use. It makes my project looks bloated. Second, it seems like it requires me to install the web module into the repository first before I can create the ear file. Is this the preferred way to create an ear file? How do I create an ear file that contains the war file using maven-ear-plugin from my webapp's pom.xml? If this way is not possible, what's the preferred way? I'm sorry if my questions sound a little novice, I realized I have whole lot more to learn about Maven. Thanks much.

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  • Execute less compiler anywhere on the computer

    - by Xenioz
    I'm having a little problem with executing *.cmd files so I can execute them anywhere on the computer with cmd. What I exactly want is to execute the less.cmd file, which support optional arguments and uses lessc.wsf (Less.js compiler for Windows Script Host) for converting less css to pure css. The less.cmd contains: ::For convenience @cscript //nologo "%~dp0lessc.wsf" %* What I've done so far: added absolute path to lessc.cmd to the PATH system variable and moved .cmd in the PATHTEXT system variable to the beginning. Also did this: From a command prompt; assoc .bat should return with ..bat=batfile If not assoc .bat=batfile to restore the default file type association. ftype batfile should return with batfile="%1" %* If not ftype batfile="%1" %* to restore the default "Open" action for the file type. This still doesn't work unless I approach the cmd file with a absolute path in cmd, if I enter lessc anywhere else then I get C:\Intel Intel is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. , I've restarted my computer more than once to be sure changes will take effect. I hope somebody has the answer.

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  • Initial text and paperclipped-URL for action in UIActivityViewController & UIActivityItemSource?

    - by Benjamin Kreeger
    Finally been making it through Apple's (rather dismal) documentation on the new UIActivityViewController class and the UIActivityItemSource protocol, and I'm trying to send different data sets to different actions called from the activity view. To simplify things, I'm looking at two things. A Facebook posting action, which should say "Check this out!" and also attach a URL to the post (with that cute little paperclip). A Twitter posting action, which should say "Check this out, with #hashtag!" and also attach that same URL (with the same paperclip). Here's the code I've got implemented right now. - (id)activityViewController:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController itemForActivityType:(NSString *)activityType { if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToFacebook]) { return @"Check this out!"; } else if ([activityType isEqualToString:UIActivityTypePostToTwitter]) { return @"Check this out, with #hashtag!"; } return @""; } - (id)activityViewControllerPlaceholderItem:(UIActivityViewController *)activityViewController { return @""; } And then when I set up this activity view controller (it's in the same class), this is what I do. UIActivityViewController *activityView = [[UIActivityViewController alloc] initWithActivityItems:@[self] applicationActivities:nil]; [self presentViewController:activityView animated:YES completion:nil]; My dilemma is how to attach that NSURL object. It's relatively easy when calling the iOS 6 SL-class posting modals; you just call the individual methods to attach a URL or an image. How would I go about doing this here? I'll note that instead of returning NSString objects from -activityViewController:itemForActivityType, if I return just NSURL objects, they show up with that paperclip, with no body text in the post. If I return an array of those two items, nothing shows up at all.

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  • ldap_bind_s returning LDAP_SUCCESS with wrong credentials

    - by rezna
    Hi guys, I have this little problem. I want to authenticate user against LDAP (Windows Active Directory), everything works OK, but the combination (good user, good password, wrong domain). LDAP* ldap = ldap_init(L"myserver", 389); ULONG ldap_version = 3; ULONG ret = LDAP_SUCCESS; ret = ldap_set_option(ldap, LDAP_OPT_PROTOCOL_VERSION, (void*)&ldap_version); ret = ldap_connect(ldap, NULL); SEC_WINNT_AUTH_IDENTITY ai; ai.Domain = (unsigned short*)BAD_DOMAIN; ai.DomainLength = wcslen(BAD_DOMAIN); ai.User = (unsigned short*)OK_USER; ai.UserLength = wcslen(OK_USER); ai.Password = (unsigned short*)OK_PASS; ai.PasswordLength = wcslen(OK_PASS); ai.Flags = SEC_WINNT_AUTH_IDENTITY_UNICODE; ret = ldap_bind_s(ldap, NULL, (PWCHAR) &ai, LDAP_AUTH_NTLM); // !!! HERE !!! ret = ldap_unbind_s(ldap); On the line marke '!!! HERE !!!' I'd expect 0x31 or any other error returned. Instead I get LDAP_SUCCESS :( Any suggestions? Thx, Milan

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  • ruby comma operator and step question

    - by ryan_m
    so, i'm trying to learn ruby by doing some project euler questions, and i've run into a couple things i can't explain, and the comma ?operator? is in the middle of both. i haven't been able to find good documentation for this, maybe i'm just not using the google as I should, but good ruby documentation seems a little sparse . . . 1: how do you describe how this is working? the first snippet is the ruby code i don't understand, the second is the code i wrote that does the same thing only after painstakingly tracing the first: #what is this doing? cur, nxt = nxt, cur + nxt #this, apparently, but how to describe the above? nxt = cur + nxt cur = nxt - cur 2: in the following example, how do you describe what the line with 'step' is doing? from what i can gather, the step command works like (range).step(step_size), but this seems to be doing (starting_point).step(ending_point, step_size). Am i right with this assumption? where do i find good doc of this? #/usr/share/doc/ruby1.9.1-examples/examples/sieve.rb # sieve of Eratosthenes max = Integer(ARGV.shift || 100) sieve = [] for i in 2 .. max sieve[i] = i end for i in 2 .. Math.sqrt(max) next unless sieve[i] (i*i).step(max, i) do |j| sieve[j] = nil end end puts sieve.compact.join(", ")

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  • AJAX vs ActiveX/Flash for browser-based game

    - by iconiK
    I have been following the usage of JavaScript for the past few years, and with the release of extremely fast scripting engines (V8, SquirrelFish Extrene, TraceMonkey, etc.) the possibilities of JavaScript have increased dramatically. However, the usage share of Internet Explorer coupled with it's total lack of support for recent standards makes me want to drop a bomb on Microsoft's HQ, as it creates a huge amount of problems for any website. The game will need to be pretty dynamic client-side, with animations and other eye-candy things, but not a full-blown game like those that run directly in the OS using DirectX or OpenGL. However, this might be a little stretch for JavaScript and will certainly feel extremely slow in Internet Explorer (given that the current IE engine can be hundreds of times slower than SFX; gotta see what IE9 will bring), would it be better to just do the whole thing in Flash? I know this means requiring the plug-in AND I have no experience whatsoever with Flash (other than browsing YouTube :P). It also means I can't just output directly from PHP, I would have to use XML or some other format to pass data to it (JSON is directly integrated in JS and PHP can deal with it easily). Another idea would be to provide an alternative interface just for IE, though I don't know how (ActiveX maybe? or with Flash, then why not just provide it to all browsers) or totally not supporting it and requiring the use of other browsers, although this is plain stupid from a business perspective. So here am I, wondering what approach to take and thus asking for your advice. How should I build the client-side? AJAX in all browsers, Flash in all browsers or a mix (AJAX for "modern" browsers and something else for the "grandpa": IE).

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