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  • Invoking jQuery function without an element

    - by Sandman
    So, I use jQuery quite extensively and I am well aware of the "right" way to do the below, but there are times where I want to solve it in a more generic way. I'll explain. So, I may have a link, like this: <a href='menu' class='popup'>Show menu</a>. Now, I have a jQuery function that fires on click for all a.popup that takes the href-attribute and shows the <div id='menu'></div> item (in this case). It also handles URL's if it can't find a DOM item with that ID. No problem here. But, there are times when I don't have the same control over the coe where I can create a selectable target that way. Either because the code isn't created by me or because it is created through a chain of function that would all need a huge ovrhaul which I won't do. So, from time to time, I would like to have this code: <a href="javascript:popup('menu')">Show menu</a> This would be in a case where I can only submit the label and the HREF for a link. No class, no nothing. Problem here is that the function popup() has no idea about what element invoked it, and in most cases that's not a problem for me, since I only need to know where the mouse cursor was upon invokation. But in some cases, I use someone elses jQuery functions, like qTip or something else. so I still want to fire off qTip(); when clicking a link that runs this JS function, but what do I attach it to to make it show? I can't just runt $().qTip(); because that implies $(this) and "this" is undefined inside the function. So how do I do it? Any ideas?

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  • jQuery code works in Chrome, not in IE9

    - by Francis Ducharme
    Pretty new to jQuery here, I've got a chunk of code that works OK in Chrome, but fails in IE9 (have not tried FF yet). Here's the code: var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9, I get an error to the effect that slice can't be called because textColor is undefined. I was not sure if it's because jQuery just can't find the #navmenu-body element or that it can't find the CSS attribute color. So I did: var j = $('#navmenu-body'); var textColor = $('#navmenu-body').css('color'); textColor = textColor.slice(4); In IE9's console, j.length returns 0. So the selector is indeed, not working Here's the #navmenu-body HTML DOM <div id="navmenu-body" class="x-panel-body x-panel-body-cssmenu x-layout-fit x-panel-body-cssmenu" style="height: 398px; left: 0px; top: 0px; width: 200px;"> </div> Do I need to do something else for IE9 support ?

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  • SVG text - total length changes depending on zoom

    - by skco
    In SVG (for web-browsers), if i add a <text>-element and add some text to it the total rendered width of the text string will change depending on the scale of the text. Lets say i add "mmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmA" as text, then i want to draw a vertical line(or other exactly positioned element) intersecting the very last character. Works fine but if i zoom out the text will become shorter or longer and the line will not intersect the text in the right place anymore. The error can be as much as +/- 5 characters width which is unacceptable. The error is also unpredictable, 150% and 160% zoom can add 3 characters length while 155% is 2 charlengths shorter. My zoom is implemented as a scale-transform on the root element of my canvas which is a <g>. I have tried to multiply the font-size with 1000x and scale down equally on the zoom-transform and vice versa in case it was a floating point error but the result is the same. I found the textLength-attribute[1] which is supposed to adjust the total length so the text always end where i choose but it only works in Webkit. Firefox and Opera seems to not care at all about this value (haven't tried in IE9 yet). Is there any way to render text exactly positioned without resorting to homemade filling of font-outlines? [1] http://www.w3.org/TR/SVG11/text.html#TextElementTextLengthAttribute Update Snippet of the structure i'm using <svg> <g transform="scale(1)"> <!--This is the root, i'm changing the scale of this element to zoom --> <g transform="scale(0.014)"> <!--This is a wrapper for multi-line text, scaling, other grouping etc --> <text font-size="1000" textLength="40000">ABDCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVXYZÅÄÖabcdefghijklmnopqrstxyzåäö1234567890</text> </g> </g>

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  • One-to-many Associations Empty Columns Issue (Ext on Rails)

    - by Joe
    I'm playing with rewriting part of a web application in Rails + Ext. However, I'm having trouble getting an associated models' name to display in the grid view. I've been able to successfully convert several models and arrange the views nicely using tabs and Ext's layout helpers. However, I'm in the middle of setting up an association -- I've followed along with Jon Barket's tutorial on how to do this using Ext -- and I've made all the Rails and JS changes suggested (with appropriate name changes for my models,) the result being that the combo box is now being correctly populated with the names of the associated models, and changes are actually written correctly to database, BUT the data doesn't show up in the column, it's just empty. However, the correct data is there in the 'detail' view. Really just wondering if anyone else ran into this, or had any thoughts on what could be happening. Definitely willing to post code if requested; just note that (AFAIK) my changes follow the tutorial pretty closely. Thanks in advance! UPDATE: Alright, slight progress - kind of. I can get the associated model id # displaying properly -- just by modifying the column model slightly. But I can't get the virtual attribute displayed in the main table (in Jon's example it's country_name.) It still goes blank when I change the data source for that column from dataIndex: 'model[associated_model_id]' to dataIndex: 'virtual_attributes[associated_model_name]' ANOTHER UPDATE: Bump. Has NOBODY here tried integrating Ext with Rails?

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  • How to serialize each item in IEnumerable for ajax post

    - by bflemi3
    I have a PartialView that displays IEnumerable<Movie>. _MoviePartial.cshtml @foreach(var movie in Model) { <div class="content"> <span class="image"><img src="@movie.Posters.Profile" alt="@movie.Title"/></span> <span class="title">@movie.Title</span> <div class="score`"> <span class="critics-score">@movie.Ratings.CriticsScore</span> <span class="audience-score">@movie.Ratings.AudienceScore</span> </div> @Html.ActionLink("Add Movie", "Add", "MyMovies") </div> } When the user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I am going to do an ajax post to add the selected movie to the users collection. My problem is that I would like to send the entire selected Movie class to the "Add" action but not sure how to serialize each movie since the entire Movie class is not rendered in the PartialView, just a few properties. I know I can serialize something like this... <script type="text/javascript"> var obj = @Html.Raw(Json.Encode(movie)); </script> But I'm not sure how that would work inside a foreach loop that renders html, especially inside a PartialView. So, just to be clear, when a user clicks the "Add Movie" ActionLink I would like to send the serialized Movie class for that respective movie to my controller via ajax. My questions is... Is there a better way to serialize each movie and append it to it's respective anchor? I know there's the data- html5 attribute but I thought they only allow string values, not json objects. I also know I could use jQuery's .data() function but I'm struggling to think through how to get that to run from a PartialView, especially since the html rendered by _MoviePartial.cshtml may be returned from a controller via ajax.

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  • Xml updating with linq not working when quering

    - by user1734230
    I have problem i'm trying to update a specific part of the XML with the linq query but it doesn't work. So i an xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <DesignConfiguration> <Design name="CSF_Packages"> <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> </Design> </DesignConfiguration> I want to select the part where the part where there is Design name="somethning" and get the descendants and then update the descendants value that means this part: <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> I have this code: XDocument configXml = XDocument.Load(configXMLFileName); var updateData = configXml.Descendants("DesignConfiguration").Elements().Where(el => el.Name == "Design" && el.Attribute("name").Value.Equals("AFP_GRAFIKA")).FirstOrDefault(); configXml.Save(configXMLFileName); I'm getting the null data in the updateData varibale. When I'm trying the Descendat's function through QuickWatch it also returns a null value. When I'm checking the configXML variable it has data that is my whole xml. What am I doing wrong?

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  • JMS message. Model to include data or pointers to data?

    - by John
    I am trying to resolve a design difference of opinion where neither of us has experience with JMS. We want to use JMS to communicate between a j2ee application and the stand-alone application when a new event occurs. We would be using a single point-to-point queue. Both sides are Java-based. The question is whether to send the event data itself in the JMS message body or to send a pointer to the data so that the stand-alone program can retrieve it. Details below. I have a j2ee application that supports data entry of new and updated persons and related events. The person records and associated events are written to an Oracle database. There are also stand-alone, separate programs that contribute new person and event records to the database. When a new event occurs through any of 5-10 different application functions, I need to notify remote systems through an outbound interface using an industry-specific standard messaging protocol. The outbound interface has been designed as a stand-alone application to support scalability through asynchronous operation and by moving it to a separate server. The j2ee application currently has most of the data in memory at the time the event is entered. The data would consist of approximately 6 different objects; a person object and some with multiple instances for an average size in the range of 3000 to 20,000 bytes. Some special cases could be many times this amount. From a performance and reliability perspective, should I model the JMS message to pass all the data needed to create the interface message, or model the JMS message to contain record keys for the data and have the stand-alone Java application retrieve the data to create the interface message?

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  • managedObjectContext question...

    - by treasure
    Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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  • Is OpenID too complicated?

    - by John Leidegren
    I'm beginning to seriously doubt the OpenID community despite that fact that it works. I'm in the process of currently evaluating OpenID as an authentication service for 'this' site and while the promises are great, I just can't get it to work. And I'm really lost. I ask of the SO community to help me out here. Give me answers and show me examples so I can leverage this in the way it was meant to be. My scenario is very typical. I want to authenticate users through a specific Google Apps domain. If you have access to this Google Apps domain, then you have access to my web application. Where I get lost, is all the prerequisites and dependencies involved. What is XRD? What is Yadis? Why do I need XRD and Yadis? What do I need to do to deploy OpenID authentication on my website? Also, this is really important to me. When I login to SO, I use my Google Account. When I click the login button I'm presented with this confirmation page. Where I'm granting SO the right to use my Google Account credentials. Somehow, Google knows that it's "Stackoverflow.com" that's asking me if it's okay to login. And I wish to know what manner of control I have over this little text. I intend to deploy OpenID on several different domains but I would prefer if they would all work without having to be individually configured with special parameters, such as secret API keys and what not. However, I don't know for sure if this is a prerequisite of OpenID, that or the Federated Login API that Google provides.

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • How can I read and parse chunks of data into a Perl hash of arrays?

    - by neversaint
    I have data that looks like this: #info #info2 1:SRX004541 Submitter: UT-MGS, UT-MGS Study: Glossina morsitans transcript sequencing project(SRP000741) Sample: Glossina morsitans(SRS002835) Instrument: Illumina Genome Analyzer Total: 1 run, 8.3M spots, 299.9M bases Run #1: SRR016086, 8330172 spots, 299886192 bases 2:SRX004540 Submitter: UT-MGS Study: Anopheles stephensi transcript sequencing project(SRP000747) Sample: Anopheles stephensi(SRS002864) Instrument: Solexa 1G Genome Analyzer Total: 1 run, 8.4M spots, 401M bases Run #1: SRR017875, 8354743 spots, 401027664 bases 3:SRX002521 Submitter: UT-MGS Study: Massive transcriptional start site mapping of human cells under hypoxic conditions.(SRP000403) Sample: Human DLD-1 tissue culture cell line(SRS001843) Instrument: Solexa 1G Genome Analyzer Total: 6 runs, 27.1M spots, 977M bases Run #1: SRR013356, 4801519 spots, 172854684 bases Run #2: SRR013357, 3603355 spots, 129720780 bases Run #3: SRR013358, 3459692 spots, 124548912 bases Run #4: SRR013360, 5219342 spots, 187896312 bases Run #5: SRR013361, 5140152 spots, 185045472 bases Run #6: SRR013370, 4916054 spots, 176977944 bases What I want to do is to create a hash of array with first line of each chunk as keys and SR## part of lines with "^Run" as its array member: $VAR = { 'SRX004541' => ['SRR016086'], # etc } But why my construct doesn't work. And it must be a better way to do it. use Data::Dumper; my %bighash; my $head = ""; my @temp = (); while ( <> ) { chomp; next if (/^\#/); if ( /^\d{1,2}:(\w+)/ ) { print "$1\n"; $head = $1; } elsif (/^Run \#\d+: (\w+),.*/){ print "\t$1\n"; push @temp, $1; } elsif (/^$/) { push @{$bighash{$head}}, [@temp]; @temp =(); } } print Dumper \%bighash ;

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  • JavaScript Key Codes

    - by Jonathan Wood
    I'm working with a JavaScript routine I didn't write. It is called from a text box's onkeydown attribute to prevent unwanted keystrokes. The first argument is apparently not used. The second argument is a list of characters that should be allowed. function RestrictChars(evt, chars) { var key; var keychar; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; else if (e) key = e.which; else return true; keychar = String.fromCharCode(key); if ((key == null) || (key == 0) || (key == 8) || (key == 9) || (key == 13) || (key == 27)) // Control key return true; else if (((chars).indexOf(keychar) > -1)) return true; else return false; } This seems to work for alpha-numeric characters. However, characters such as . and / cause this function to return false, even when these characters are included in the chars parameter. For example, if the . key is pressed, key is set to 190, and keychar gets set to the "3/4" character. Can anyone see how this was meant to work and/or why it doesn't? I don't know enough about JavaScript to see what it's trying to do.

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  • Has inheritance become bad?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • How do I create and populate a non-uniformly structured array in PHP?

    - by stormist
    I am trying to decide on a data structure for an array that has a date for the key and the amount of bandwidth consumed as values. examples Key Consumed Policy October 50 Basic November 75 Basic December 100 Basic Some months, but not all, will have more than one policy. In that case, I need break them down by policy once the total is shown. So for the above example, assume December had 3 policies. The table i construct from my array would then need to show: Key Consumed Policy October 50 Basic November 75 Basic December 100 .. December 25 Basic December 25 Extended December 50 Premium Could all this data be represented in an array ? $myArray['december'] would be a different data structure than the others because it would need a last entry, probably another array, that had the policy names as keys and the amount of data consumed as values. Does PHP allow for arrays that are not structured uniformly? i.e. key october and November have only 2 entries under their key while December has 2 entries plus a 3rd which is an additional array. My best guess is something like: Array ( [October] => "50", "Basic" [November] => "75", "Basic" [December] => "100", "..", Array( [Basic] => 25 [Extended] =>25 [Premium] => 50 ) ) My question is if this is possible and how to declare it and populate it with values with PHP. Thanks in advance for any clarifications or assistance!

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  • HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

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  • Is a python dictionary the best data structure to solve this problem?

    - by mikip
    Hi I have a number of processes running which are controlled by remote clients. A tcp server controls access to these processes, only one client per process. The processes are given an id number in the range of 0 - n-1. Were 'n' is the number of processes. I use a dictionary to map this id to the client sockets file descriptor. On startup I populate the dictionary with the ids as keys and socket fd of 'None' for the values, i.e no clients and all pocesses are available When a client connects, I map the id to the sockets fd. When a client disconnects I set the value for this id to None, i.e. process is available. So everytime a client connects I have to check each entry in the dictionary for a process which has a socket fd entry of None. If there are then the client is allowed to connect. This solution does not seem very elegant, are there other data structures which would be more suitable for solving this? Thanks

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  • Why does a checkbox remain checked in FF3 but not in IE, Chrome or ...

    - by sirrocco
    So - I have a checkbox <asp:CheckBox ID="chkOrder" runat="server" Visible='<%#IsCheckBoxVisible() %>' Checked="false" OnCheckedChanged="chkOrder_CheckedChanged" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="false"></asp:CheckBox> the one above. Now, the checkbox is in a gridview and on databound - for all the rows in the gridview the checkbox is set to false. The problem is that the first checkbox is still true checked. In IE the problem doesn't exist, same for Chrome. I'm running out of options. Also if i use $("checkboxName").attr("checked"); // verified on jquery ready function. In FF it is true; IE false; Chrome false. Any tips? EDIT Now get ready for this : in the generated html - there is NO checked attribute. The diff between FF and IE is exactly the same. Another thing - the grid that contains the checkboxes has an ajax panel on it and when I page the grid, try to go to page 2 - the checkedChanged in codebehind is triggered.

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  • XCode Obj-C: Make new NSArray from one key each out of an Array of Dictionaries

    - by user323772
    This actually could be a multipart question. But here's the first part ... I have an array (actually in a plist) of dictionaries. Each dictionary has 3 keys in it: (title), (points), and (description). I am trying to make a NEW array with the values of the key "title" from each dictionary in that first array. Let me explain WHY I am doing this and maybe that will provide a better all around explanation. I am trying to let people pick from a pre-determined list. Heck, if this was a web page it would be very simple since all I really care about are the "points" and the "Title". On a web site I could simply do a drop down combo-box with the "points" being the value and the title being the text for each row. But this is not a web page. So what I am trying to do here is pop out a modal picker when they click the text field. The modal picker shows the alphabetical ordered "titles" from our new array. And whichever one they select, it closes the modal view and assigns that "title" text to the UITextField which cannot be edited by the user. I have some code to get my modal picker to pop out. But I need to feed it an array of just the "titles" of each dictionary in my real array. Thanks in advance (and yes I am a newbie)

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  • Conflict with @Html.LabelFor and W3C Validator?

    - by Tyler
    I have a model that I am using to present an index of a model from a database and have given a display name to some of the rows that may need spaces in them, (I.e. "weekstarting" in a db would be given a display name of "Week Starting"). So I set the display name for my model like this: [DisplayName("Week Starting")] public DateTime WeekStarting { get; set; } and then in the table headers for my table I use the following line of code to display the field name using its given display name: @Html.LabelFor(x => x.First().WeekStarting) The above all works fine. But I am using the W3C validator and it is giving me the following error for the example I have given: The for attribute of the label element must refer to a form control. Forgive me if it is obvious but what am I doing wrong here? I am not using a form I am simply displaying an index of items in a table. I have tried to look for an answer and saw someone suggest that the form controls being referred to need ids (even though I'm not using a form) but this would not be applicable in this instance because if I tried to set an id in the index it would be duplicated with each item in the index: foreach (var item in Model.Tbms) { <tr><td>@item.value</td><tr>.... would be repeated for each item, and also unsure where I would put the id in any case, the td? } Or is there a better way to label the field header, with my preferred display name in the first place? I guess I could just swap @Html.LabelFor... for Hard code field name but do I have to?

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • C# XML Documentation Compiler Warning

    - by ImperialLion
    I am curious as to why I get a compiler warning in the following situation. /// <summary>This is class A /// </summary> public class A { /// <summary>This is the documentation for Method A /// </summary> public void MethodA() { //Do something } } /// <summary>This is class B /// </summary> public class B : A { /// <summary>This does something that I want to /// reference <see cref="MethodA"/> /// </summary> public void MethodB() { //Do something } } The warning states that "XML comment on 'B.MethodB()' has cref attribute 'MethodA' that could not be resolved." If B inherits from A shouldn't the compiler be able to see that method when generating the documentation without me specifying the parent class in the cref? If I change the cref to be cref="A.MethodA()" it works fine, but it seems like that's unnecessary and is a pain to do, especially if I have to go up more than one level. As a note to anyone testing this you have to be sure to "XML documentation file" checked in the Properties - Build in order to see the warning.

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  • Velocity CTP: can we 'search' for objects?

    - by Stato Machino
    It appears that 'tags' allow us to associate a 'search term' with the objects placed into the Velocity cache space. However, these can only be queried within a 'region'. Further, regions somehow limit the locality of objects in the cache to a single server (or maybe something kinda like that). So this appears to make it hard to perform any operation for which the unique Id of the cached item is not persisted or continuously available to the application that stores and retrieves objects to and from the cache. In any case, I can't see an easy way to 'cleanse' the cache of objects or to find objects across the entire cache that may share some prefix, postfix or infix values in the cache key so that i can clear out the cache of object repeatedly created in unit tests, for example. And I am unsure about the consequences of regions being associated with single server cache locations. So I would appreciate any help with the following questions: What is the difference between a 'distributed cache' (called a 'partitioned' cache??) when using regions, and a 'local cache'? 1.a. In particular, are the region-oriented values in a distributed cache visible through a cache factory that is configured to 'see' the entire cache space? Are the operations of creating and removing 'regions' efficient enough that it would be reasonable to create a region and a group of tags for each bundle of objects that need to be cached? 2.a. Or does this just push the problem of scoping the 'search for objects' up the chain because the ability of the DataCache object to query down through regions and tags as limited as querying for the cache keys of objects themselves. Thanks, Stato

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  • How to delay program for a certain number of milliseconds, or until a key is pressed?

    - by Jack
    I need to delay my program's execution for a specified number of milliseconds, but also want the user to be able to escape the wait when a key is pressed. If no key is pressed the program should wait for the specified number of milliseconds. I have been using Thread.Sleep to halt the program (which in the context of my program I think is ok as the UI is set to minimise during the execution of the main method). I have thought about doing something like this: while(GetAsyncKeyState(System.Windows.Forms.Keys.Escape) == 0 || waitTime > totalWait) { Thread.Sleep(100); waitTime += 100; } As Thread.Sleep will wait until at least the time specified before waking the thread up, there will obviously be a large unwanted extra delay as it is scaled up in the while loop. Is there some sort of method that will sleep for a specified amount of time but only while a condition holds true? Or is the above example above the "correct" way to do it but to use a more accurate Sleep method? If so what method can I use? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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