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  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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  • Create an index only on certain rows in mysql

    - by dhruvbird
    So, I have this funny requirement of creating an index on a table only on a certain set of rows. This is what my table looks like: USER: userid, friendid, created, blah0, blah1, ..., blahN Now, I'd like to create an index on: (userid, friendid, created) but only on those rows where userid = friendid. The reason being that this index is only going to be used to satisfy queries where the WHERE clause contains "userid = friendid". There will be many rows where this is NOT the case, and I really don't want to waste all that extra space on the index. Another option would be to create a table (query table) which is populated on insert/update of this table and create a trigger to do so, but again I am guessing an index on that table would mean that the data would be stored twice. How does mysql store Primary Keys? I mean is the table ordered on the Primary Key or is it ordered by insert order and the PK is like a normal unique index? I checked up on clustered indexes (http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/innodb-index-types.html), but it seems only InnoDB supports them. I am using MyISAM (I mention this because then I could have created a clustered index on these 3 fields in the query table). I am basically looking for something like this: ALTER TABLE USERS ADD INDEX (userid, friendid, created) WHERE userid=friendid

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  • SQL inner join from field defined table?

    - by Wolftousen
    I have a, currently, a total of 6 tables that are part of this question. The primary table, tableA, contains columns that all the entries in the other 5 tables have in common. The other 5 tables have columns which define the entry in tableA in more detail. For example: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text TableB ID|Color|Shape 0 |Blue |Sphere TableC ID|Direction|Velocity 1 |North |3.4 (column names are just examples don't take them for what they mean...) The ID field in Table A is unique to all other tables (i.e. TableB will have 0, but TableC will not, nor any other Tables). What I would like to do is select all the fields from TableA and the corresponding (according to ID field) detail Table (TableB-F). What I have currently done and not tested is added a field to TableA so it looks like this: TableA ID|Name|Volumn|Weight|Description|Table 0 |T1 |0.4 |0.1 |Random text|TableB 1 |R1 |5.3 |25 |Random text|TableC I have a few questions about this: 1.Is it proper to do such a thing to TableA, as foreign keys wont work in this situation since they all need to link to different tables? 2.If this is proper, would the SQL query look like this (ID would be input by the user)? SELECT * FROM TableA AS a INNER JOIN a.Table AS t ON a.ID = ID; 3.Is there a better way to do this? Thanks for the help.

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  • Retrieving the first picture with a HTML parser

    - by justin01
    Hey guys, (Not a native english speaker) I'm doing a personal project in PHP in which I use the Simple HTML Parser to parse the HTML of a given URL and retrieve the first image in a DIV that have a specific ID or class (maincontent, content, main, wrapper, etc. - it's all in an array) and ignore ads. The goal is to take this image and make a thumbnail with it, pretty much like on Digg and others. I thought everything was working fine until I tried my script with the website Snopes ("http://www.snopes.com/photos/animals/luckycoyote.asp" <- this page more exactly). The source of the first image it gets is: " graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg ". So far, to correct this problem I created a little function that gets the domain name of the given URL and insert it before the IMG's source attribute. So for sites like Snopes.com, it gives me: "http://www.snopes.com/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg" ... while the real URL for this image is "http://www.snopes.com*/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg*" (or, more precisely: " http://graphics1.snopes.com/photos/animals/graphics/luckycoyote1.jpg " - note the subdomain here). So my main question is: how can I externally/dynamically retrieve the full URL address of an image ("absolute path") when I am only given the "relative path"? I'm pretty sure this is possible, since when I paste the link in Facebook's "What are you doing?" field for example, it gives me the correct path to the image while on the website, the source of the image is only (example) "image/photo/example.jpg". Thank you for your time.

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  • php values of one array to key of another array

    - by mark
    I have 2 arrays $arr1 = Array ( [0] => 12 [1] => 4 [2] => 8 [3] => xx [4] => 1 [5] => 1year [6] => 7 ) $arr2 = Array ( [0] => 1 [1] => 2 [2] => 3 [3] => 4 [4] => 5 [5] => 6 [6] => 7 ) I want to create a new array with the values of a2 as keys in $arr1. My resultant array should be like this $arr3 = Array ( [1] => 12 [2] => 4 [3] => 8 [4] => xx [5] => 1 [6] => 1year [7] => 7 )

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  • What is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • How to delay program for a certain number of milliseconds, or until a key is pressed?

    - by Jack
    I need to delay my program's execution for a specified number of milliseconds, but also want the user to be able to escape the wait when a key is pressed. If no key is pressed the program should wait for the specified number of milliseconds. I have been using Thread.Sleep to halt the program (which in the context of my program I think is ok as the UI is set to minimise during the execution of the main method). I have thought about doing something like this: while(GetAsyncKeyState(System.Windows.Forms.Keys.Escape) == 0 || waitTime > totalWait) { Thread.Sleep(100); waitTime += 100; } As Thread.Sleep will wait until at least the time specified before waking the thread up, there will obviously be a large unwanted extra delay as it is scaled up in the while loop. Is there some sort of method that will sleep for a specified amount of time but only while a condition holds true? Or is the above example above the "correct" way to do it but to use a more accurate Sleep method? If so what method can I use? Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • More than one unique key for HashMap problem (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    This question is a continuation of this thread: In short: To solve my problem, I want to use Map<Set<String>, String>. However, after I sort my data entries in Excel, remove the unnecessary parameters, and the following came out: flow content ==> content content flow content ==> content depth distance flow content ==> content depth within flow content ==> content depth within distance flow content ==> content within flow content ==> content within distance I have more than one unique key for the hashmap if that is the case. How do I go around this... anyone have any idea? I was thinking of maybe Map<Set <String>, List <String>> so that I can do something like: Set <flow content>, List <'content content','content depth distance','content depth within ', ..., 'content within distance'> But because I am parsing the entries line by line I can't figure out the way how to store values of the same repeated keys (flow content) into the same list and add it to the map. Anyone have a rough logic on how can this be done in Java? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to get correct children ids using fields_for "parents[]", parent do |f| using f.fields_for :children, child ?

    - by Anatortoise House
    I'm editing multiple instances of a parent model in an index view in one form, as in Railscasts #198. Each parent has_many :children and accepts_nested_attributes_for :children, as in Railscasts #196 and #197 <%= form_tag %> <% for parent in @parents %> <%= fields_for "parents[]", parent do |f| <%= f.text_field :job %> <%= f.fields_for :children do |cf| %> <% cf.text_field :chore %> <% end %> <% end %> <% end %> <% end %> Given parent.id==1 f.text_field :job correctly generates <input id="parents_1_job" type="text" value="coding" size="30" name="parents[1][job]"> But cf.text_field :chore generates ids and names that don't have the parent index. id="parents_children_attributes_0_chore" name="parents[children_attributes][0][chore]" If I try passing the specific child object to f.fields_for like this: <% for child in parent.children %> <%= f.fields_for :children, child do |cf| %> <%= cf.text_field :chore %> <% end %> <% end %> I get the same. If I change the method from :children to "[]children" I get id="parents_1___children_chore" which gets the right parent_index but doesn't provide an array slot for the child index. "[]children[]" isn't right either: id="parents_1__children_3_chore" as I was expecting attributes_0_chore instead of 3_chore. Do I need to directly modify an attribute of the FormBuilder object, or subclass FormBuilder to make this work, or is there a syntax that fits this situation? Thanks for any thoughts.

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  • jQuery removeClass(), how it works

    - by centro
    I have images on my page. User can add more images onto the page by clicking a button. New images are added asynchronously. Initially, each image on page use a special class to be used when the image is loaded. After the image is loaded, that class is removed. Each image being loaded has the class imageLoading: <img class="imageLoading" scr="someimage.png"> After those images are loaded, I remove that class (simplified code without details): $('img.imageLoading') .each(function(){ $(this) .load(function(){ $(this) .removeClass('imageloading'); });}); Visually, I see that style is removed. But when I run the query again: $('img.imageLoading') I see via debugging that all images, not just loading ones, are returned, i.e. it works like I didn't remove the class for the images that were already loaded. I had a look into the page source, and I saw that actually in HTML the class was not removed, though removeClass() was called. Is that behavior by design that all visual changes are applied but the class attribute is not removed in HTML code? If so, how it can be workarounded in this case. Or, probably, I missed something.

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  • click event working in Chrome but error in Firefox and IE

    - by Hunter Stanchak
    I am writing a messaging system with jquery. When you click on a thread title with the class '.open_message', It opens a thread with all the messages for that thread via Ajax. My issue is that when the thread title is clicked it is not recognizing the id attribute for that specific thread title in firefox and IE. It works fine in chrome, though. Here is the code: $('.open_message').on('click', function(e) { $(this).parent().removeClass('unread'); $(this).parent().addClass('read'); $('.message_container').html(''); var theID = e.currentTarget.attributes[0].value; theID = theID.replace('#', ''); var url = '".$url."'; var dataString = 'thread_id=' + theID; $('.message_container').append('<img id=\"loading\" src=\"' + url + '/images/loading.gif\" width=\"30px\" />'); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'get_thread.php', data: dataString, success: function(result) { $('#loading').hide(); $('.message_container').append(result); } }); return false; }); Thanks for the help!

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  • question about permut-by-sorting

    - by davit-datuashvili
    hi i have following question from book introduction in algorithms second edition there is such problem suppose we have some array A int a[]={1,2,3,4} and we have some random priorities array P={36,3,97,19} we shoud permut array a randomly using this priorities array here is pseudo code P ERMUTE -B Y-S ORTING ( A) 1 n ? length[A] 2 for i ? 1 to n do P[i] = R ANDOM(1, n 3 ) 3 4 sort A, using P as sort keys 5 return A and result will be permuted array B={2, 4, 1, 3}; please help any ideas i have done this code and need aideas how continue import java.util.*; public class Permut { public static void main(String[]args){ Random r=new Random(); int a[]=new int[]{1,2,3,4}; int n=a.length; int b[]=new int[a.length]; int p[]=new int[a.length]; for (int i=0;i<p.length;i++){ p[i]=r.nextInt(n*n*n)+1; } // for (int i=0;i<p.length;i++){ // System.out.println(p[i]); //} } } please help

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  • Applying jQuery attr value to new DOM elements (result of AJAX query)

    - by Daniel
    Hello everyone, I have a div on a page whose contents is replaced by an AJAX request when the user selects an option from a select list. When the page loads, I issue a command to disable the autocomplete feature for all of the pages text input elements: //Stop that pesky browser autocomplete $('input[type=text]').attr("autocomplete", "off"); However, when new elements appear in the div after an AJAX call, this line of code does not reference them because they were not part of the original DOM (when the page was loaded). I have tried appending the autocomplete line to the end of the post function: //AJAX Post request that changes the fields in the address div for each different country $("div#address select#country").live("change", function() { $.post("<?php print($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']); ?>", { country: $(this).val() }, function(data) { $('div#address').html(data); }, "text"); $('div#address input[type=text]').attr("autocomplete", "off"); }); But for some reason it does not work and the autocomplete pops up when text is entered into any of the address fields. As far as I am aware I cannot use .live() to select the input elements because changing an attribute is not classed as an event. So can anyone advise me how to modify the attributes of a newly created DOM element?

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  • Ninject: Singleton binding syntax?

    - by Rosarch
    I'm using Ninject 2.0 for the .Net 3.5 framework. I'm having difficulty with singleton binding. I have a class UserInputReader which implements IInputReader. I only want one instance of this class to ever be created. public class MasterEngineModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { // using this line and not the other two makes it work //Bind<IInputReader>().ToMethod(context => new UserInputReader(Constants.DEFAULT_KEY_MAPPING)); Bind<IInputReader>().To<UserInputReader>(); Bind<UserInputReader>().ToSelf().InSingletonScope(); } } static void Main(string[] args) { IKernel ninject = new StandardKernel(new MasterEngineModule()); MasterEngine game = ninject.Get<MasterEngine>(); game.Run(); } public sealed class UserInputReader : IInputReader { public static readonly IInputReader Instance = new UserInputReader(Constants.DEFAULT_KEY_MAPPING); // ... public UserInputReader(IDictionary<ActionInputType, Keys> keyMapping) { this.keyMapping = keyMapping; } } If I make that constructor private, it breaks. What am I doing wrong here?

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  • How do I use has_many :through and in_place_edit?

    - by Angela
    I have two Models: Campaign and Contact. A Campaign has_many Contacts. A Contact has_many Campaigns. Currently, each Contact has a contact.date_entered attribute. A Campaign uses that date as the ate to count down to the different Events that belong_to the Campaign. However, there are situations where a Campaign for a specific Contact may need to be delayed by X number of days. In this instance, the campaigncontact.delaydays = 10. In some cases, the Campaign must be stopped altogether for the specific Contact, so for now I set campaigncontact.delaydays = 1. (Are there major problems with that?) By default, I am assuming that no campaigncontact exists (but not sure how that works?) So here's what I've tried to do: class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :campaigncontacts has_many :campaigns, :through => :campaigncontacts end class Campaign < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :campaigncontacts has_many :contacts, :through => :campaigncontacts end script/generate model campaigncontact campaign_id:integer contact_id:integer delaydays:integer class Campaigncontact < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :campaign belongs_to :contact end So, here's the question: Is the above correct? If so, how do I allow a user to edit the delay of a campaign for a specific Contact. For now, I want to do so from the Contact View. This is what I tried: In the Contact controller (?) in_place_edit_for :campaigncontact, column.delaydays And in the View <%= in_place_editor_field :campaigncontact, :delaydays %> How can I get it right?

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  • xml filtering with python

    - by saminny
    Hi, I have a following xml document: <node1> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x2"> ... </node2> <node2 a1="x1"> ... </node2> </node1> I want to filter out node2 when a1 = x2. The user provides the xpath and attribute values that need to tested and filtered out. I looked at some solutions in python like BeautifulSoup but they are too complicated and dont preserve the case of text. I want to keep the document same as before with some stuff filtered out. Can you recommend a simple and succinct solution? This should not be too complicated from the looks of it. The actual xml document is not as simple as above but idea is the same.

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  • Creating a dictionary with list of lists in Python

    - by ghbhatt
    I have a huge file (with around 200k inputs). The inputs are in the form: A B C D B E F C A B D D I am reading this file and storing it in a list as follows: text = f.read().split('\n') This splits the file whenever it sees a new line. Hence text is like follows: [[A B C D] [B E F] [C A B D] [D]] I have to now store these values in a dictionary where the key values are the first element from each list. i.e the keys will be A, B, C, D. I am finding it difficult to enter the values as the remaining elements of the list. i.e the dictionary should look like: {A: B C D; B: E F; C: A B D; D: 0} I have done the following: inlinkDict = {} for doc in text: adoc= doc.split(' ') docid = adoc[0] inlinkDict[docid] = inlinkDict.get(docid,0) + {I do not understand what to put in here} Please help as to how should i add the values to my dictionary. It should be 0 if there are no elements in the list except for the one which will be the key value. Like in example for 0.

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  • Elegant ways to print out a bunch of instance attributes in python 2.6?

    - by wds
    First some background. I'm parsing a simple file format, and wish to re-use the results in python code later, so I made a very simple class hierarchy and wrote the parser to construct objects from the original records in the text files I'm working from. At the same time I'd like to load the data into a legacy database, the loader files for which take a simple tab-separated format. The most straightforward way would be to just do something like: print "%s\t%s\t....".format(record.id, record.attr1, len(record.attr1), ...) Because there are so many columns to print out though, I thought I'd use the Template class to make it a bit easier to see what's what, i.e.: templ = Template("$id\t$attr1\t$attr1_len\t...") And I figured I could just use the record in place of the map used by a substitute call, with some additional keywords for derived values: print templ.substitute(record, attr1_len=len(record.attr1), ...) Unfortunately this fails, complaining that the record instance does not have an attribute __getitem__. So my question is twofold: do I need to implement __getitem__ and if so how? is there a more elegant way for something like this where you just need to output a bunch of attributes you already know the name for?

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  • PHP function to handle most database queries has a problem with results. I am getting the right numb

    - by asdasds
    Here is my little function. It does not handle the results correctly. I do get all the rows that I want, but all the rows of the $results array contain the exact same values. So i make 2 arrays, a temporary array to hold the values after each fetch, and another array to hold all the temporary arrays. First i take the temp array and map its keys to the column names. Then i give it to bind_result, and call fetch() and use it like I would any other result value. Could this be because I re-use the $results array? numresults is the number of values you are taking from each row. if 0, you are not getting any results back. function db_query($db, $query, $params = NULL, $numresults = 0) { if($stmt = $db -> prepare($query)) { if($params != NULL) { call_user_func_array(array($stmt, 'bind_param'), $params); } if(!$stmt -> execute()) { //echo 'exec error:',$db->error; return false; } if($numresults > 0) { $results = array(); $tmpresult = array(); $meta = $stmt->result_metadata(); while ($columnName = $meta->fetch_field()) $tmpresult[] = &$results[$columnName->name]; call_user_func_array(array($stmt, 'bind_result'), $tmpresult); $meta->close(); $results = array(); while($stmt -> fetch()) $results[] = $tmpresult; } $stmt -> close(); } else { //echo 'prepare error: ',$db->error; return false; } if($numresults == 0) return true; return $results; }

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  • how to get tables of an access db into a list box using c#?

    - by fathatsme
    hi evry1! i needed to create a form in which i hav to browse and open mdb files --- i did this part usin oprnfile dialogue! private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OpenFileDialog oDlg = new OpenFileDialog(); oDlg.Title = "Select MDB"; oDlg.Filter = "MDB (*.Mdb)|*.mdb"; oDlg.RestoreDirectory = true; string dir = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.Desktop); oDlg.InitialDirectory = dir; DialogResult result = oDlg.ShowDialog(); if (result == DialogResult.OK) { textBox1.Text = oDlg.FileName.ToString(); } } **this is my code so far!!! now i need to make 3 list boxes!! 1st one to display the table names of the db! 2nd to to display field names when clicked on table name!!! 3rd to display attributes on fiels on clickin on it! v can edit the attribute values and on clickin of save button it should update the database!!! pls help** i'm new to C# so if u could pls help specifically on d doubt i asked it wud b really helpful to me

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  • undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass message with rails and a legacy database

    - by Jude Osborn
    I'm setting up a very simple rails 3 application to view data in a legacy MySQL database. The legacy database is mostly rails ORM compatible, except that foreign key fields are pluralized. For example, my "orders" table has a foreign key field to the "companies" table called "companies_id" (rather than "company_id"). So naturally I'm having to use the ":foreign_key" attribute of "belongs_to" to set the field name manually. I haven't used rails in a few years, but I'm pretty sure I'm doing everything right, yet I get the following error when trying to access "order.currency.code": undefined method `code' for nil:NilClass This is a very simple application so far. The only thing I've done is generate the application and a bunch of scaffolds for each of the legacy database tables. Then I've gone into some of the models to make adjustments to accommodate the above mentioned difference in database naming conventions, and added some fields to the views. That's it. No funny business. So my database tables look like this (relevant fields only): orders ------ id description invoice_number currencies_id currencies ---------- id code description My Order model looks like this: class Order < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :currency, :foreign_key=>'currencies_id' end My Currency model looks like this: class Currency < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :orders end The relevant view snippet looks like this: <% @orders.each do |order| %> <tr> <td><%= order.description %></td> <td><%= order.invoice_number %></td> <td><%= order.currency.code %></td> </tr> <% end %> I'm completely out of ideas. Any suggestions?

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  • Union of two or more (hash)maps

    - by javierfp
    I have two Maps that contain the same type of Objects: Map<String, TaskJSO> a = new HashMap<String, TaskJSO>(); Map<String, TaskJSO> b = new HashMap<String, TaskJSO>(); public class TaskJSO { String id; } The map keys are the "id" properties. a.put(taskJSO.getId(), taskJSO); I want to obtain a list with: all values in "Map b" + all values in "Map a" that are not in "Map b". What is the fastest way of doing this operation? Thanks EDIT: The comparaison is done by id. So, two TaskJSOs are considered as equal if they have the same id (equals method is overrided). My intention is to know which is the fastest way of doing this operation from a performance point of view. For instance, is there any difference if I do the "comparaison" in a map (as suggested by Peter): Map<String, TaskJSO> ab = new HashMap<String, TaskJSO>(a); ab.putAll(b); ab.values() or if instead I use a set (as suggested by Nishant): Set s = new Hashset(); s.addAll(a.values()); s.addAll(b.values());

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  • Advance Query with Join

    - by user1462589
    I'm trying to convert a product table that contains all the detail of the product into separate tables in SQL. I've got everything done except for duplicated descriptor details. The problem I am having all the products have size/color/style/other that many other products contain. I want to only have one size or color descriptor for all the items and reuse the "ID" for all the product which I believe is a Parent key to the Product ID which is a ...Foreign Key. The only problem is that every descriptor would have multiple Foreign Keys assigned to it. So I was thinking on the fly just have it skip figuring out a Foreign Parent key for each descriptor and just check to see if that descriptor exist and if it does use its Key for the descriptor. Data Table PI Colo Sz OTHER 1 | Blue | 5 | Vintage 2 | Blue | 6 | Vintage 3 | Blac | 5 | Simple 4 | Blac | 6 | Simple =================================== Its destination table is this =================================== DI Description 1 | Blue 2 | Blac 3 | 5 4 | 6 6 | Vintage 7 | Simple ============================= Select Data.Table Unique.Data.Table.Colo Unique.Data.Table.Sz Unique.Data.Table.Other ======================================= Then the dual part of the questions after we create all the descriptors how to do a new query and assign the product ID to the descriptors. PI| DI 1 | 1 1 | 3 1 | 4 2 | 1 2 | 3 2 | 4 By figuring out how to do this I should be able to duplicate this pattern for all 300 + columns in the product. Some of these fields are 60+ characters large so its going to save a ton of space. Do I use a Array?

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  • Generic Event Generator and Handler from User Supplied Types?

    - by JaredBroad
    I'm trying to allow the user to supply custom data and manage the data with custom types. The user's algorithm will get time synchronized events pushed into the event handlers they define. I'm not sure if this is possible but here's the "proof of concept" code I'd like to build. It doesn't detect T in the for loop: "The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found" class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Algorithm algo = new Algorithm(); Dictionary<Type, string[]> userDataSources = new Dictionary<Type, string[]>(); // "User" adding custom type and data source for algorithm to consume userDataSources.Add(typeof(Weather), new string[] { "temperature data1", "temperature data2" }); for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { foreach (Type T in userDataSources.Keys) { string line = userDataSources[typeof(T)][i]; //Iterate over CSV data.. var userObj = new T(line); algo.OnData < typeof(T) > (userObj); } } } //User's algorithm pattern. interface IAlgorithm<TData> where TData : class { void OnData<TData>(TData data); } //User's algorithm. class Algorithm : IAlgorithm<Weather> { //Handle Custom User Data public void OnData<Weather>(Weather data) { Console.WriteLine(data.date.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } //Example "user" custom type. public class Weather { public DateTime date = new DateTime(); public double temperature = 0; public Weather(string line) { Console.WriteLine("Initializing weather object with: " + line); date = DateTime.Now; temperature = -1; } } }

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  • Problems parsing Google Data Booksearch API XML in Ruby

    - by FrogBot
    I'm trying to parse some XML I've gotten from the Google Data Booksearch API and I'm having trouble trying to target a specific element. Currently my code looks like so: require 'gdata' client = GData::Client::BookSearch.new feed = client.get("http://books.google.com/books/feeds/volumes?q=Foundation").to_xml books = [] feed.elements.each('entry') do |entry| book = { :title => entry.elements['title'].text, :author => entry.elements['dc:creator'].text, :book_id => entry.elements['dc:identifier'].text } books.push(book) end p books and that all works fine, but I want to add a thumbnail URL to the book hash. The tag with each book's thumbnail URL looks like so: <feed> <entry> ... <link rel="http://schemas.google.com/books/2008/thumbnail" type="image/x-unknown" href="http://bks6.books.google.com/books?id=ID5P7xbmcO8C&printsec=frontcover&img=1&zoom=5&edge=curl&source=gbs_gdata"/> ... </entry> </feed> I want to grab the contents of the href attribute from this element and I'm not exactly sure how. Can anyone help me out here?

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