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  • Potential issues using member's "from" address and the "sender" header

    - by Paul Burney
    Hi all, A major component of our application sends email to members on behalf of other members. Currently we set the "From" address to our system address and use a "Reply-to" header with the member's address. The issue is that replies from some email clients (and auto-replies/bounces) don't respect the "Reply-to" header so get sent to our system address, effectively sending them to a black hole. We're considering setting the "From" address to our member's address, and the "Sender" address to our system address. It appears this way would pass SPF and Sender-ID checks. Are there any reasons not to switch to this method? Are there any other potential issues? Thanks in advance, -Paul Here are way more details than you probably need: When the application was first developed, we just changed the "from" address to be that of the sending member as that was the common practice at the time (this was many years ago). We later changed that to have the "from" address be the member's name and our address, i.e., From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> With a "reply-to" header set to the member's address: Reply-To: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> This helped with messages being mis-categorized as spam. As SPF became more popular, we added an additional header that would work in conjunction with our SPF records: Sender: <[email protected]> Things work OK, but it turns out that, in practice, some email clients and most MTA's don't respect the "Reply-To" header. Because of this, many members send messages to [email protected] instead of the desired member. So, I started envisioning various schemes to add data about the sender to the email headers or encode it in the "from" email address so that we could process the response and redirect appropriately. For example, From: "Mary Smith" <[email protected]> where the string after "messages" is a hash representing Mary Smith's member in our system. Of course, that path could lead to a lot of pain as we need to develop MTA functionality for our system address. I was looking again at the SPF documentation and found this page interesting: http://www.openspf.org/Best_Practices/Webgenerated They show two examples, that of evite.com and that of egreetings.com. Basically, evite.com is doing it the way we're doing it. The egreetings.com example uses the member's from address with an added "Sender" header. So the question is, are there any potential issues with using the egreetings method of the member's from address with a sender header? That would eliminate the replies that bad clients send to the system address. I don't believe that it solves the bounce/vacation/whitelist issue since those often send to the MAIL FROM even if Return Path is specified.

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  • iPhone SDK / Core Data usage scenario, similar to GAE data store?

    - by boliva
    Hi all, I am currently rewriting a map based App which I wrote in the past, specifically for 2.2.1 devices. Originally I wrote it to make use of SQLite databases but I would like to try and migrate it over Core Data, now that it's available on 3.X (for which I am rewriting to). I am fairly experienced in iPhone/Obj-C development, SQL and server backend technologies, but I have never had the chance to work with Core Data so IDK really if it's the appropiate tool for what I am trying to accomplish. The App works on a limited area in a map over which there are about 4000 placemarks, with different kinds of icons and sizes. Of course not all 4000 placemarks are shown at once but only those currently visible in the map viewport, and depending on the zoom level. What I am doing right now is, after the user moves the map in any way (panning or zooming) I am requesting from the backend server the required information for the placemarks that would be visible given the viewport coordinates boundaries and zoom level, however the process isn't as smooth as I'd like (the backend is sending its response in XML and I am compressing it using gzip), it takes anywhere from 1 to 3 seconds to update the display of the placemarks after the user ends moving the map. What I would like to do is to prefetch all the placemarks data at the App launch and use it all through the app life time - I don't mind storing it for later use because the data should be dynamic. The way I would do it right now is, after retrieving all the data, to store it on an SQLite db which I would query later, whenever the user moves the map, to return only the placemarks inside the viewport coordinate boundaries and specific to a given zoom level. Now, the question itself is, if is it possible to use some more 'native', object driven way to carry this queries process, which got me thinking about Core Data and if it is in any way similar to what Google App Engine offers through its datastore where you can fetch a number of objects from the backend given a certain query or criteria, without resorting to an SQL query itself. Like I said before I don't have any experience on Core Data but I have a pretty deep understanding of Obj-C and iPhone development, as well as SQL databases. Any guides on how to achieve what I'm trying (if possible at all) would be greatly appreciated.

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  • MVC 2 AntiForgeryToken - Why symmetric encryption + IPrinciple?

    - by Brad R
    We recently updated our solution to MVC 2, and this has updated the way that the AntiForgeryToken works. Unfortunately this does not fit with our AJAX framework any more. The problem is that MVC 2 now uses symmetric encryption to encode some properties about the user, including the user's Name property (from IPrincipal). We are able to securely register a new user using AJAX, after which subsequent AJAX calls will be invalid as the anti forgery token will change when the user has been granted a new principal. There are also other cases when this may happen, such as a user updating their name etc. My main question is why does MVC 2 even bother using symmetric encryption? Any then why does it care about the user name property on the principal? If my understanding is correct then any random shared secret will do. The basic principle is that the user will be sent a cookie with some specific data (HttpOnly!). This cookie is then required to match a form variable sent back with each request that may have side effects (POST's usually). Since this is only meant to protect from cross site attacks it is easy to craft up a response that would easily pass the test, but only if you had full access to the cookie. Since a cross site attacker is not going to have access to your user cookies you are protected. By using symmetric encryption, what is the advantage in checking the contents of the cookie? That is, if I already have sent an HttpOnly cookie the attacker cannot override it (unless a browser has a major security issue), so why do I then need to check it again? After having a think about it it appears to be one of those 'added layer of security' cases - but if your first line of defence has fallen (HttpOnly) then the attacker is going to get past the second layer anyway as they have full access to the users cookie collection, and could just impersonate them directly, instead of using an indirect XSS/CSRF attack. Of course I could be missing a major issue, but I haven't found it yet. If there are some obvious or subtle issues at play here then I would like to be aware of them.

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  • Adding Icons next to items in Navigation Drawer

    - by DunriteJW
    I have been trying to figure this out for quite some time right now. I've looked all over this site and many others, and can't find anything that works. I simply want icons next to each item in my navigation drawer. I am currently using the method that Google's navigation drawer sample app uses. in the MainActivity.java I have the following: mColorTitles = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.colors_array); mDrawerLayout = (DrawerLayout) findViewById(R.id.drawer_layout); mDrawerList = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.left_drawer); mColorIcons = getResources().getStringArray(R.array.color_icons); adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.drawer_list_item, mColorTitles); // set a custom shadow that overlays the main content when the drawer opens mDrawerLayout.setDrawerShadow(R.drawable.drawer_shadow, GravityCompat.START); // set up the drawer's list view with items and click listener mDrawerList.setAdapter(adapter); mDrawerList.setOnItemClickListener(new DrawerItemClickListener()); my drawer_list_item.xml: <TextView xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@android:id/text1" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceListItemSmall" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:paddingLeft="5dp" android:paddingRight="16dp" android:textColor="#000" android:background="?android:attr/activatedBackgroundIndicator" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeightSmall"/> it currently just makes the navigation drawer display the color titles from the array. I have the icons that I want in another array, and they follow the exact same order as I want them associated with the colors. I just have no idea how to even begin inserting the icons from that array into the navigation items if it helps, here's what my arrays look like in my strings.xml (not full code) <string-array name="colors_array"> <item>Home</item> <item>Cherry</item> <item>Crimson</item> ... <array name="color_icons"> <item>@drawable/homeicon</item> <item>@drawable/cherryicon</item> <item>@drawable/crimsonicon</item> ... I've tried putting a drawable in the drawer_list_item, which works, but (of course) it always puts the same one in there. I could not think of a way to change it according to the color. I am relatively new to android programming, so if I am missing something simple, I'm sorry. If you could help me out, I would greatly appreciate it, as this is basically the last thing I need to do before I publish my application to the Play Store. Thanks in advance!

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  • understanding logic of dijit css and styles

    - by Tom
    Hi, I am trying to use dijit.InlineEditBox. I have put the following code in my HTML, using the example in the dojo docs: <script type="text/javascript"> dojo.require("dijit.InlineEditBox"); dojo.require("dojo.parser"); dojo.require("dijit.form.TextBox"); function editableHeaderOnChange(id, arg){ alert("details changed with id " + id + " and arguments "+arg); } </script> ... <span id="myText" dojoType="dijit.InlineEditBox" onChange="editableHeaderOnChange(this.id,arguments[0])" autoSave="true" title="My Text">click to edit me</span> I am using tundra theme. It works, however it doesn't look so good. The widget has its own style, which doesn't fit my CSS. I used firebug to locate the source of the problem. The widget creates many nested div/span elements, each has it's own style (element style in firebug): <span id="dijit__InlineEditor_0" class="dijitReset dijitInline" style="margin: 0px; position: absolute; visibility: hidden; display: block; opacity: 0;" ...> <input type="text" autocomplete="off" class="dijit dijitReset dijitLeft dijitTextBox" id="dijit_form_TextBox_0" style="line-height: 20px; font-weight: 400; font-family: Trebuchet MS,Helvetica,Arial,Verdana; font-size: 14.5167px; font-style: normal; width: 100%;"> ...> </span></span> (showing only the relevant parts...) to get the visual that I want, which will not break to a newline, I need to change the width of dijit_form_TextBox_0** to 50%, and the positioning of dijit__InlineEditor_0 to display: inline**; or to change the positioning of everything (most of my layout is floated, so position: absolute doesn't fit) I cannot address those span elements in my css to change the properties, because the element.style has priority, of course. I don't understand the logic in this system... why is dijit generating the style directly inside the element? how can I change these properties? Thanks Tom

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  • NSDocument Subclass not closed by NSWindowController?

    - by Nathan Douglas
    Okay, I'm fairly new to Cocoa and Objective-C, and to OOP in general. As background, I'm working on an extensible editor that stores the user's documents in a package. This of course required some "fun" to get around some issues with NSFileWrapper (i.e. a somewhat sneaky writing and loading process to avoid making NSFileWrappers for every single document within the bundle). The solution I arrived at was to essentially treat my NSDocument subclass as just a shell -- use it to make the folder for the bundle, and then pass off writing the actual content of the document to other methods. Unfortunately, at some point I seem to have completely screwed the pooch. I don't know how this happened, but closing the document window no longer releases the document. The document object doesn't seem to receive a "close" message -- or any related messages -- even though the window closes successfully. The end result is that if I start my app, create a new document, save it, then close it, and try to reopen it, the document window never appears. With some creative subclassing and NSLogging, I managed to figure out that the document object was still in memory, and still attached to the NSDocumentController instance, and so trying to open the document never got past the NSDocumentController's "hmm, currently have that one open" check. I did have an NSWindowController and NSDocumentController instance, but I've purged them from my project completely. I've overridden nearly every method for NSDocument trying to find out where the issue is. So far as I know, my Interface Builder bindings are all correct -- "Close" in the main menu is attached to "performClose:" of the First Responder, etc, and I've tried with fresh unsullied MainMenu and Document xibs as well. I thought that it might be something strange with my bundle writing code, so I basically deleted it all and started from scratch, but that didn't seem to work. I took out my init method overrides, and that didn't help either. I don't have the source of any simple document apps here, so I didn't try the next logical step (to substitute known-working code for mine in the readfromurl and writetourl methods). I've had this problem for about sixteen hours of uninterrupted troubleshooting now, and needless to say, I'm at the end of my rope. If I can't figure it out, I guess I'm going to try the project from scratch with a lot more code and intensity based around the bundle-document mess. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Which management tools would you recommend for software development?

    - by Robert Schneider
    What would you generally recommend for software developement? Which combination do you use or would you recommend? I assume that tools are needed for Version control, issues/bugs/task, Release management, Requirement management. Tools for Test management and Project management should be accounted for as well, I guess. Did I forget anything? Maybe tools for Continous Integration. I'm not interested in a halfway combination of one ore two tools like a Subversion + Bugzilla (I know they are good but for a company they might not be sufficient). And also tools like make/ant shouldn't be taken into account. I'd like to know a combination that covers all what is important for professional software development. However, it could be a single tool of course if it covers all the management issues. What do you think would be a good combination? I assume a combination should be regardes as good if the tools itself are good but also if they have good integrations. Udate: Something like Ant is just a script not a management tool. Okay: we do already have Perforce. But this is somehow generic. We have different projects that uses C-, VS/.NET-, Python-, PHP and we will be starting new projects in Java. Plenty of languages and frameworks, though some are going to be legacy. So the tools should be generic. Obviously we don't want to use Bugzilla for one project and Jira for another. The management tools have to be generic. Further thoughts: Think of sourceforge: For each project they offer a version control system, an issue tracker, a wiki, ... totally independent of what the project is about. Those are some management tools that a project usually needs. I would say that most companies need such a set of tools. But I could imagine, if a company has several projects, they need further tools too: for Project management, Quality management, ... And I could imagine there are some recommendable combinations of tools. A not really apropiate comparison to this could be LAMP (Linux, Apache, MySQL, PHP). A combination of software that has evolved since they work very well together, and are pretty useful for a lot of applications (or rather web sites). So maybe there are some recommendable management tool combinations that also fit toghether like LAMP. The integration is important. Thank you for the incredibly fast and helpful responses!!!

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  • How to actually use Swing Application Framework?

    - by Joonas Pulakka
    Hello, I'd like to learn how to effectively use Swing Application Framework. Most of the the examples I've found are blog entries that just explain how to great it is to extend SingleFrameApplication and override its startup method, but that's about it. Sun's article is almost two years old, as is the project's own introduction, and there has apparently been some evolution since then. Are there any recent and thorough tutorials/HOWTOs available anywhere? There is JavaDoc of course, but it's hard to get the big picture from there. Any pointers are appreciated. Update: I realized that there's a mailing list archive at the project's site. While somewhat clumsy (compared to StackOverflow ;) it seems to be quite active. Still it's a pity that there are no real tutorials anywhere. The information is scattered here and there. Update 2: Let me clarify - I'm not having trouble using Swing (the widget toolkit) itself, I'm talking about its Application Framework, which is supposed to ease things like application lifecycle (startup, exit and whatever happens between them), action management etc. - that is, things that most Swing applications will need. It's cool to get such framework to be standard part of Java. The only problem is to learn how it's intended to be used. Update 3: For the interested, there was just some discussion at the project's forum regarding the current state and future of JSR 296. Shortly: the current version 1.03 is considered to be quite usable, but the API is not stable and it will change to the final version in Java 7. The package name will also change so Java 7 will not break current applications made on SAF. Update 4: Karsten Lentzsch stated at the above mentioned forum: "I doubt that it can be included in Java 7; and I'll vote against it.". I would rather not question the sincerity of this great guru, and it's certainly wise not to let anything flawed to slip into the core JDK, but frankly it's a strange situation - he is the author of JGoodies Swing Suite which is partly a commercial competitor of JSR 296, and he is sitting in the committee that will decide whether this JSR will be included to standard Java. It was the same thing with JSR 295 Beans Binding which I wrote about earlier. Given the current state of SAF, I think the best solution is to wrap the current implementation into a "homebrew" framework, which can then accommodate possible changes to the existing API.

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  • Efficiency of data structures in C99 (possibly affected by endianness)

    - by Ninefingers
    Hi All, I have a couple of questions that are all inter-related. Basically, in the algorithm I am implementing a word w is defined as four bytes, so it can be contained whole in a uint32_t. However, during the operation of the algorithm I often need to access the various parts of the word. Now, I can do this in two ways: uint32_t w = 0x11223344; uint8_t a = (w & 0xff000000) >> 24; uint8_t b = (w & 0x00ff0000) >> 16; uint8_t b = (w & 0x0000ff00) >> 8; uint8_t d = (w & 0x000000ff); However, part of me thinks that isn't particularly efficient. I thought a better way would be to use union representation like so: typedef union { struct { uint8_t d; uint8_t c; uint8_t b; uint8_t a; }; uint32_t n; } word32; Using this method I can assign word32 w = 0x11223344; then I can access the various parts as I require (w.a=11 in little endian). However, at this stage I come up against endianness issues, namely, in big endian systems my struct is defined incorrectly so I need to re-order the word prior to it being passed in. This I can do without too much difficulty. My question is, then, is the first part (various bitwise ands and shifts) efficient compared to the implementation using a union? Is there any difference between the two generally? Which way should I go on a modern, x86_64 processor? Is endianness just a red herring here? I could inspect the assembly output of course, but my knowledge of compilers is not brilliant. I would have thought a union would be more efficient as it would essentially convert to memory offsets, like so: mov eax, [r9+8] Would a compiler realise that is what happening in the bit-shift case above? If it matters, I'm using C99, specifically my compiler is clang (llvm). Thanks in advance.

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  • C# - How to override GetHashCode with Lists in object

    - by Christian
    Hi, I am trying to create a "KeySet" to modify UIElement behaviour. The idea is to create a special function if, eg. the user clicks on an element while holding a. Or ctrl+a. My approach so far, first lets create a container for all possible modifiers. If I would simply allow a single key, it would be no problem. I could use a simple Dictionary, with Dictionary<Keys, Action> _specialActionList If the dictionary is empty, use the default action. If there are entries, check what action to use depending on current pressed keys And if I wasn't greedy, that would be it... Now of course, I want more. I want to allow multiple keys or modifiers. So I created a wrapper class, wich can be used as Key to my dictionary. There is an obvious problem when using a more complex class. Currently two different instances would create two different key, and thereby he would never find my function (see code to understand, really obvious) Now I checked this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/638761/c-gethashcode-override-of-object-containing-generic-array which helped a little. But my question is, is my basic design for the class ok. Should I use a hashset to store the modifier and normal keyboardkeys (instead of Lists). And If so, how would the GetHashCode function look like? I know, its a lot of code to write (boring hash functions), some tips would be sufficient to get me started. Will post tryouts here... And here comes the code so far, the Test obviously fails... public class KeyModifierSet { private readonly List<Key> _keys = new List<Key>(); private readonly List<ModifierKeys> _modifierKeys = new List<ModifierKeys>(); private static readonly Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action> _testDict = new Dictionary<KeyModifierSet, Action>(); public static void Test() { _testDict.Add(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A), () => Debug.WriteLine("nothing")); if (!_testDict.ContainsKey(new KeyModifierSet(Key.A))) throw new Exception("Not done yet, help :-)"); } public KeyModifierSet(IEnumerable<Key> keys, IEnumerable<ModifierKeys> modifierKeys) { foreach (var key in keys) _keys.Add(key); foreach (var key in modifierKeys) _modifierKeys.Add(key); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key, ModifierKeys modifierKey) { _keys.Add(key); _modifierKeys.Add(modifierKey); } public KeyModifierSet(Key key) { _keys.Add(key); } }

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  • Why am I getting the extra xmlns="" using LinqToXML?

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hello all, I'm using LinqToXML to generate a piece of XML. Everything works great except I'm throwing in some empty namespace declarations somehow. Does anyone out there know what I'm doing incorrectly? Here is my code private string SerializeInventory(IEnumerable<InventoryInformation> inventory) { var zones = inventory.Select(c => new { c.ZoneId , c.ZoneName , c.Direction }).Distinct(); XNamespace ns = "http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"; XNamespace xsi = "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"; var xml = new XElement(ns + "InventoryList" , new XAttribute(XNamespace.Xmlns + "xsi", xsi) , zones.Select(station => new XElement("StationInventory" , new XElement("station-id", station.ZoneId) , new XElement("station-name", station.ZoneName) , new XElement("station-travel-direction", station.Direction) , new XElement("detector-list" , inventory.Where(p => p.ZoneId == station.ZoneId).Select(plaza => new XElement("detector" , new XElement("detector-id", plaza.PlazaId))))))); xml.Save(@"c:\tmpXml\myXmlDoc.xml"); return xml.ToString(); } And here is the resulting xml. I hope it renders correctly? The browser may hide the tags. - <InventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory xmlns=""> <station-id>999</station-id> <station-name>Zone 999-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>7503</detector-id> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>2705</detector-id> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </InventoryList> Notice the empty namespace declaration in the first child element. Any ideas how I can remedy this? Any tips are of course appreciated. Thanks All, ~ck

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  • Inherited TShape.Paint does not work after overriding Shape property

    - by DarkWalker
    I'm to code a TExpandedShape class inherited from TShape. TExpandedShape must act like TShape and be able to draw extra shapes: Polygon and Star. Here is my code unit ExpandedShape; interface uses SysUtils, WinTypes, WinProcs, Messages, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, ExtCtrls, Windows; type TExpandedShapeType = ( stRectangle, stSquare, stRoundRect, stRoundSquare, stEllipse, stCircle, stPolygon, stStar ); TExpandedShape = class(TShape) private FShape: TExpandedShapeType; FEdgeCount: integer; procedure SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); procedure SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); public procedure Paint; override; published property Shape : TExpandedShapeType read FShape write SetShape;// default stPolygon; property EdgeCount : integer read FEdgeCount write SetEdgeCount default 5; end; procedure Register; implementation procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Course', [TExpandedShape]); end; // TExpandedShape procedure TExpandedShape.Paint; begin case Shape of stStar : begin {Draw Star} end; stPolygon : begin {Draw Polygon} end; else begin {It is supposed to draw Circle, Rectangle etc, but it does not} inherited; end; end; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetEdgeCount(const Value: integer); begin FEdgeCount := Value; Repaint; end; procedure TExpandedShape.SetShape(const Value: TExpandedShapeType); begin FShape := Value; Repaint; end; end. So, what is wrong? IMO TShape.Paint checks private value like FShape in case section and then decides what to draw. When inherited Paint method is called in my code it checks FShape value sees default 0 value [stRectangle] in there and draws it. PS: I did solve it with blackmagic way using Shape1 property instead of Shape one and if Shape1 value is not stPolygon or stStar i do like this: begin Shape := TShapeType(Shape1); inherited end; But this option is not really an option. I need a good short nice-looking one.

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  • NHibernate criteria query question

    - by Chris
    I have 3 related objects (Entry, GamePlay, Prize) and I'm trying to find the best way to query them for what I need using NHibernate. When a request comes in, I need to query the Entries table for a matching entry and, if found, get a) the latest game play along with the first game play that has a prize attached. Prize is a child of GamePlay and each Entry object has a GamePlays property (IList). Currently, I'm working on a method that pulls the matching Entry and eagerly loads all game plays and associated prizes, but it seems wasteful to load all game plays just to find the latest one and any that contain a prize. Right now, my query looks like this: var entry = session.CreateCriteria<Entry>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Phone", phone)) .AddOrder(Order.Desc("Created")) .SetFetchMode("GamePlays", FetchMode.Join) .SetMaxResults(1).UniqueResult<Entry>(); Two problems with this: It loads all game plays up front. With 365 days of data, this could easily balloon to 300k of data per query. It doesn't eagerly load the Prize child property for each game. Therefore, my code that loops through the GamePlays list looking for a non-null Prize must make a call to load each Prize property I check. I'm not an nhibernate expert, but I know there has to be a better way to do this. Ideally, I'd like to do the following (pseudocode): entry = findEntry(phoneNumber) lastPlay = getLatestGamePlay(Entry) firstWinningPlay = getFirstWinningGamePlay(Entry) The end result of course is that I have the entry details, the latest game play, and the first winning game play. The catch is that I want to do this in as few database calls as possible, otherwise I'd just execute 3 separate queries. The object definitions look like: public class Entry { public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Phone {get;set;} public IList<GamePlay> GamePlays {get;set;} // ... other properties } public class GamePlay { public Guid Id {get;set;} public Entry Entry {get;set;} public Prize Prize {get;set;} // ... other properties } public class Prize { public Guid Id {get;set;} // ... other properties } The proper NHibernate mappings are in place, so I just need help figuring out how to set up the criteria query (not looking for HQL, don't use it).

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  • Does this MSDN article violate MVVM?

    - by rasx
    This may be old news but back in March 2009, this article, “Model-View-ViewModel In Silverlight 2 Apps,” has a code sample that includes DataServiceEntityBase: // COPIED FROM SILVERLIGHTCONTRIB Project for simplicity /// <summary> /// Base class for DataService Data Contract classes to implement /// base functionality that is needed like INotifyPropertyChanged. /// Add the base class in the partial class to add the implementation. /// </summary> public abstract class DataServiceEntityBase : INotifyPropertyChanged { /// <summary> /// The handler for the registrants of the interface's event /// </summary> PropertyChangedEventHandler _propertyChangedHandler; /// <summary> /// Allow inheritors to fire the event more simply. /// </summary> /// <param name="propertyName"></param> protected void FirePropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (_propertyChangedHandler != null) { _propertyChangedHandler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members /// <summary> /// The interface used to notify changes on the entity. /// </summary> event PropertyChangedEventHandler INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged { add { _propertyChangedHandler += value; } remove { _propertyChangedHandler -= value; } } #endregion What this class implies is that the developer intends to bind visuals directly to data (yes, a ViewModel is used but it defines an ObservableCollection of data objects). Is this design diverging too far from the guidance of MVVM? Now I can see some of the reasons Why would we go this way: what we can do with DataServiceEntityBase is this sort of thing (which is intimate with the Entity Framework): // Partial Method to support the INotifyPropertyChanged interface public partial class Game : DataServiceEntityBase { #region Partial Method INotifyPropertyChanged Implementation // Override the Changed partial methods to implement the // INotifyPropertyChanged interface // This helps with the Model implementation to be a mostly // DataBound implementation partial void OnDeveloperChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Developer"); } partial void OnGenreChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Genre"); } partial void OnListPriceChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPrice"); } partial void OnListPriceCurrencyChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ListPriceCurrency"); } partial void OnPlayerInfoChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("PlayerInfo"); } partial void OnProductDescriptionChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductDescription"); } partial void OnProductIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductID"); } partial void OnProductImageUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductImageUrl"); } partial void OnProductNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductName"); } partial void OnProductTypeIDChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ProductTypeID"); } partial void OnPublisherChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Publisher"); } partial void OnRatingChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("Rating"); } partial void OnRatingUrlChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("RatingUrl"); } partial void OnReleaseDateChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("ReleaseDate"); } partial void OnSystemNameChanged() { base.FirePropertyChanged("SystemName"); } #endregion } Of course MSDN code can seen as “toy code” for educational purposes but is anyone doing anything like this in the real world of Silverlight development?

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  • Accessing array values in jQuery ajax callback function

    - by gibberish
    Values are received through a jQuery AJAX callback, but I've been unsuccessful getting at the values. Here's the ajax call: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax/ax_all_ajax_fns.php", data: 'request=edit_timecard_entry&staff_id='+staff_id+'&tid='+tid, success: function(data){ alert(data); } } Here's the code sent out by ax_all_ajax_fns.php: $staff_id = $_POST['staff_id']; $t_id = $_POST['tid']; $rCard = mysql_query("SELECT `staff_id`, `date`, `project_id`, `project_num`, `task_desc`, `hours` FROM `timecards` WHERE `t_id`='$t_id'"); $aCard = mysql_fetch_assoc($rCard); print_r($aCard); // echo $aCard; Of course, I don't want the information print_r'd, I want it echoed. The print_r was used to demonstrate that the correct data was sent out by the PHP script, and it is echoed successfully in the alert() box in the success function. So the correct data is being returned, and (if correctly formatted) it is viewable. The data returned in this way looks like this in the alert() popup: Array ( [staff_id] => 51 [date] => 2012-10-18 [project_id] => 0 [project_num => 49 [task_desk] => This is a task [hours] => 3.30 ) But when I use echo to output the $aCard array and then try to break it down inside the success function of the ajax call, I can't figure out how to get at the values. My attempts have consistently returned values of "undefined". In the success function, in place of alert(data);, I've tried this: var tce_staff_id = data['staff_id']; alert(tce_staff_id); and this: var tce_staff_id = data.staff_id; alert(tce_staff_id); What am I missing? UPDATE: Thanks to Martin S. for information re json_encode() PHP instruction. I've modified the ajax script as follows: echo json_encode($aCard); I now get THIS result from alert(data); in the success function: {"staff_id":"51","date":"2012-10-18","project_id":"0","project_num":"49","task_desc":"This is a task","hours":"3.30"} However, the following returns "undefined": alert(data.staff_id); alert(data[0].staff_id); var test = data.staff_id; alert(test); Can anyone see what I'm missing? All above code comes immediately after alert(data) inside the success callback of the ajax function. alert(data) DOES work and displays the desired data, as above.

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  • Ajax problem not displaying data using multiple javascript calls...

    - by Ronedog
    I'm writing an app that uses ajax to retrieve data from a mysql db using php. Because of the nature of the app, the user clicks an href link that has an "onclick" event used to call the javascript/ajax. I'm retrieving the data from mysql, then calling a separate php function which creates a small html table with the necessary data in it. The new table gets passed back to the responseText and is displayed inside a div tag. The tables only have around 10-20 rows of data in them. This functionality is working fine and displays the data in html form exactly as it needs to be on the page. The problem is this. the HREF "onclick" event needs to run multiple scripts one right after the other. The first script updates the "existing" data and inside the "update_existing" function is a call to refresh a section of the page with the updated HTML from the responseText. Then when that is done a "display_html" function is called which also updates a different section of the page with it's newly created HTML table. The event looks like this: Update This string gets built dynamically using php with parameters supplied, but for this example I simply took the parameters out so it didn't get confusing. The "update_existion() function actually calls the display_html() function which updates a section of the page as needed. I need to update a different section of the page on the same click of the mouse right after the update, which is why I'm calling the display_html() again, right after it. The problem is only the last call is being updated on my screen. In other words, the 2nd function call "display_html()" executes and displays the refreshed data just fine, but the previous call to update_existing() runs and updates the database properly, but doesn't display on the screen unless I press the browsers "refresh" button, which of course displays the new data exactly how I want it to, but I don't want the users to have to press the "refresh" button. I tried adding multiple "display_html() calls one right after the other, separating all of them with the semicolon and learned that only the very last function call actually refreshed the div element on the html page with the table information, although all the previous display_html() calls worked, they couldn't be seen on the page without a refresh of the browser. Is this a problem with javascript, or the ajax call, or is this a limitation in the DOM that only allows one element to be updated at a time. The ajax call is asynchroneous, but I've tried both, only async works period. This is the same in both Firefox and Internet Explorer Any ideas what's going on and how to get around it so I can run these multiple scripts?

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  • How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

    - by MatrixFrog
    I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

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  • How can I inject Javascript (including Prototype.js) in other sites without cluttering the global na

    - by Daniel Magliola
    I'm currently on a project that is a big site that uses the Prototype library, and there is already a humongous amount of Javascript code. We're now working on a piece of code that will get "injected" into other people's sites (picture people adding a <script> tag in their sites) which will then run our code and add a bunch of DOM elements and functionality to their site. This will have new pieces of code, and will also reuse a lot of the code that we use on our main site. The problem I have is that it's of course not cool to just add a <script> that will include Prototype in people's pages. If we do that in a page that's already using ANY framework, we're guaranteed to screw everything up. jQuery gives us the option to "rename" the $ object, so it could handle this situation decently, except obviously for the fact that we're not using jQuery, so we'd have to migrate everything. Right now i'm contemplating a number of ugly choices, and I'm not sure what's best... Rewrite everything to use jQuery, with a renamed $ object everywhere. Creating a "new" Prototype library with only the subset we'd be using in "injected" code, and renaming $ to something else. Then again I'd have to adapt the parts of my code that would be shared somehow. Not using a library at all in injected code, to keep it as clean as possible, and rewriting the shared code to use no library at all. This would obviously degenerate into us creating our own frankenstein of a library, which is probably the worst case scenario ever. I'm wondering what you guys think I could do, and also whether there's some magic option that would solve all my problems... For example, do you think I could use something like Caja / Cajita to sandbox my own code and isolate it from the rest of the site, and have Prototype inside of there? Or am I completely missing the point with that? I also read once about a technique for bookmarklets, were you add your code like this: (function() { /* your code */ })(); And then your code is all inside your anonymous function and you haven't touched the global namespace at all. Do you think I could make one file containing: (function() { /* Full Code of the Prototype file here */ /* All my code that will run in the "other" site */ InitializeStuff_CreateDOMElements_AttachEventHandlers(); })(); Would that work? Would it accomplish the objective of not cluttering the global namespace, and not killing the functionality on a site that uses jQuery, for example? Or is Prototype too complex somehow to isolate it like that? (NOTE: I think I know that that would create closures everywhere and that's slower, but I don't care too much about performance, my code is not doing anything that complex)

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  • Can I append to a preprocessor macro?

    - by JCSalomon
    Is there any way in standard C—or with GNU extensions—to append stuff to a macro definition? E.g., given a macro defined as #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) can I append X(bas) so that it now expands as if I’d defined it #define quux_list X(foo) X(bar) X(bas)? I’m playing with discriminated/tagged unions along these lines: struct quux_foo { int x; }; struct quux_bar { char *s; }; struct quux_bas { void *p; }; enum quux_type {quux_foo, quux_bar, quux_bas}; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union { struct quux_foo foo; struct quux_bar bar; struct quux_bas bas; } t; }; I figure this is a good place for the X-macro. If I define a macro #define quux_table X(foo) X(bar) X(bas) the enumeration & structure can be defined thus, and never get out of sync: #define X(t) quux_ ## t, enum quux_type {quux_table}; #undef X #define X(t) struct quux_ ## t t; struct quux { enum quux_type type; union {quux_table} t; }; #undef X Of course, the quux_* structures can get out of sync, so I’d like to do something like this, only legally: struct quux_foo { int x; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(foo) struct quux_bar { char *s; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bar) struct quux_bas { void *p; }; #define quux_table quux_table X(bas) (Well, what I really want to be able to do is something like member_struct(quux, foo) { int x; }; but I’m well aware that macros cannot be (re)defined from within macros.) Anyhow, that’s my motivating example. Is there a way to accomplish this? Boost.Preprocessor examples are fine, if you can show me how to make the X-macro technique work with that library.

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  • How do I get ELMAH to work with SQL Server (permission problems)

    - by Gary McGill
    I've got ELMAH working on my (Cassini) development server, and was quite happy with it, but now that I'm trying to move everything to my production server (IIS7), the honeymoon looks like being over. I've got past the "gotcha" with IIS7, which frankly could have been better highlighted in the documentation, and if I just use the in-memory log then it works. However, I'm trying to get it to use the SQL Server log (as I do on my development system), and I'm getting an error along the lines of: The EXECUTE permission was denied on the object ELMAH_GetErrorsXml Well, fine. I know how to grant database permissions, but I'm really struggling to understand which user and which stored procs/tables I need to grant access to. The thing that's really confusing me is that I didn't have to do anything like this to get it to work on my development server. The only difference I can see is that on my development server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\IUSR, whereas on my production server it seems to connect as NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE. (It's just using a trusted connection so I've not explicitly configured it to do that - I presume it's to do with the web server). UPDATE: I've since established that because I'm using Cassini, it was actually logging in as me (an admin) and not IUSR, which explains why I didn't get any permission problems. On my development server, the IUSR account is a member of the public database role, and has access to the required database (again as "public"). There's no explicit granting of object-level permissions. [See update above - this is irrelevant]. On my production server, I've added NETWORK SERVICE in exactly the same way (public database role, explicit access to the database as "public"). Yet, I get this permission error. Why?!! [See update above - the only reason I don't get a permission error is because I'm running as an admin]. And, of course, if the fact that it works locally is just "luck", I will need to know which SPs/tables to grant access to. My guess would be all 3 SPs and not the table, but it would be good (again) to see some documentation that makes this explicit.

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  • NHibernate - I have many, but I only want one!

    - by MartinF
    Hello, I have a User which can have many Emails. This is mapped through a List collection (exposed by IEnumerable Emails on the User). For each User one of the Emails will be the Primary one ("Boolean IsPrimary" property on Email). How can I get the primary Email from User without NHibernate loads every email for the User ? I have the following two entities, with a corresponding table for each public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual IEnumerable<Email> Emails { get; set; } // public virtual Email PrimaryEmail { get; set; } - Possible somehow ? } public class Email { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual String Address { get; set; } public virtual Boolean IsPrimary { get; set; } public virtual User User { get; set; } } Can I map a "Email PrimaryEmail" property etc. on the User to the Email which have "IsPrimary=1" set somehow ? Maybe using a Sql Formula ? a View ? a One-To-One relationship ? or another way ? It should be possible to change the primary email to be one of the other emails, so i would like to keep them all in 1 table and just change the IsPrimary property. Using a Sql Formula, is it be possible to keep the "PrimaryEmail" property on the User up-to-date, if I set the IsPrimary property on the current primary email to false, and then afterwards set the PrimaryEmail property to the email which should be the new primary email and set IsPrimary to true ? Will NHibernate track changes on the "old/current" primary Email loaded by the Sql Formula ? What about the 1 level cache and the 2 level cache when using SqlFormula ? I dont know if it could work by using a View ? Then i guess the Email could be mapped like a Component ? Will it work when updating the Email data when loaded from the View ? Is there a better way ? As I have a bi-directional relationship between User and Email I could in many cases of course query the primary Email and then use the "User" property on the Email to get the User (instead of the other way around - going from User to the primary Email) Hope someone can help ?

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  • xslt help - my transform is not rendering correctly

    - by Hcabnettek
    Hi All, I'm trying to apply an xlst transformation using the following file. This is very basic, but I wanted to build off of this when I get it working correctly. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl"> <xsl:template match="/"> <div> <h2>Station Inventory</h2> <hr/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </div> </xsl:template> Here is some xml I'm using for the source. <StationInventoryList xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns="http://www.dummy-tmdd-address"> <StationInventory> <station-id>9940</station-id> <station-name>Zone 9940-SEB</station-name> <station-travel-direction>SEB</station-travel-direction> <detector-list> <detector> <detector-id>2910</detector-id> <detector-name>1999 West Smith Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9205</detector-id> <detector-name>CR-155 Exit SEB</detector-name> </detector> <detector> <detector-id>9710</detector-id> <detector-name>Pt of View SEB</detector-name> </detector> </detector-list> </StationInventory> </StationInventoryList> Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? The simple intent here is to make a list of station, then make a list of detectors at a station. This is a small piece of the XML. It would have multiple StationInventory elements. I'm using the data as the source for an asp:xml control and the xslt file as the transformsource. var service = new InternalService(); var result = service.StationInventory(); invXml.DocumentContent = result; invXml.TransformSource = "StationInventory.xslt"; invXml.DataBind(); Any tips are of course appreciated. Have a terrific weekend. Cheers, ~ck

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  • What was "The Next Big Thing" when you were just starting out in programming?

    - by Andrew
    I'm at the beginning of my career and there are lots of things which are being touted as "The Next Big Thing". For example: Dependency Injection (Spring, etc) MVC (Struts, ASP.NET MVC) ORMs (Linq To SQL, Hibernate) Agile Software Development These things have probably been around for some time, but I've only just started out. And don't get me wrong, I think these things are great! So, what was "The Next Big Thing" when you were starting out? When was it? Were people sceptical of it at first? Why? Did you think it would catch on? Did it pan out and become widely accepted/used? If not, why not? EDIT It's been nearly a week since I first posted this question and I can safely say that I did not expect such explosive interest. I asked the question so that I could gain a perspective of what kinds of innovations in programming people thought were most important when they were starting out. At the time of writing this I have read ~95% of all answers. To answer a few questions, the "Next Big Things" I listed are ones that I am currently really excited about and that I had not really been exposed to until I started working. I'm hoping to implement some or all of these in the near future at my current workplace. To many people they are probably old news. In regards to the "is this a real question" debate, I can see that obviously hasn't been settled yet. I feel bad whenever I read a comment saying that these kinds of questions take away from the real meaning of SO. I'm not wholly convinced that it doesn't. On the other hand, I have seen a lot of comments saying what a great question it is. Anyway, I have chosen "The Internet!" as my answer to this question. I don't think (in my very humble opinion, and, it seems many SOers opinions) that many things related to programming can compare. Nowadays every business and their dog has a website which can do anything from simply supplying information to purchasing goods halfway around the world to updating your blog. And of course, all these businesses need people like us. Thanks to everyone for all the great answers!

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  • Using VCL for the web (intraweb) as a trick for adding web interface to a legacy non-tiered (2 tiers

    - by user193655
    My team is maintaining a huge Client Server win32 Delphi application. It is a client/server application (Thick client) that uses DevArt (SDAC) components to connect to SQL Server. The business logic is often "trapped" in Component's event handlers, anyway with some degree of refactoring it is doable to move the business logic in common units (a big part of this work has already been done during refactoring... Maintaing legacy applications someone else wrote is very frustrating, but this is a very common job). Now there is the request of a web interface, I have several options of course, in this question i want to focus on the VCL for the web (intraweb) option. The idea is to use the common code (the same pas files) for both the client/server application and the web application. I heard of many people that moved legacy apps from delphi to intraweb, but here I am trying to keep the Thick client too. The idea is to use common code, may be with some compiler directives to write specific code: {$IFDEF CLIENTSERVER} {here goes the thick client specific code} {$ELSE} {here goes the Intraweb specific code} {$ENDIF} Then another problem is the "migration plan", let's say I have 300 features and on the first release I will have only 50 of them available in the web application. How to keep track of it? I was thinking of (ab)using Delphi interfaces to handle this. For example for the User Authentication I could move all the related code in a procedure and declare an interface like: type IUserAuthentication= interface['{0D57624C-CDDE-458B-A36C-436AE465B477}'] procedure UserAuthentication; end; In this way as I implement the IUserAuthentication interface in both the applications (Thick Client and Intraweb) I know that That feature has been "ported" to the web. Anyway I don't know if this approach makes sense. I made a prototype to simulate the whole process. It works for a "Hello world" application, but I wonder if it makes sense on a large application or this Interface idea is only counter-productive and can backfire. My question is: does this approach make sense? (the Interface idea is just an extra idea, it is not so important as the common code part described above) Is it a viable option? I understand it depends a lot of the kind of application, anyway to be generic my one is in the CRM/Accounting domain, and the number of concurrent users on a single installation is typically less than 20 with peaks of 50. EXTRA COMMENT (UPDATE): I ask this question because since I don't have a n-tier application I see Intraweb as the unique option for having a web application that has common code with the thick client. Developing webservices from the Delphi code makes no sense in my specific case, so the alternative I have is to write the web interface using ASP.NET (duplicating the business logic), but in this case I cannot take advantage of the common code in an easy way. Yes I could use dlls maybe, but my code is not suitable for that.

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  • Error using `loess.smooth` but not `loess` or `lowess`

    - by Sandy
    I need to smooth some simulated data, but occasionally run into problems when the simulated ordinates to be smoothed are mostly the same value. Here is a small reproducible example of the simplest case. > x <- 0:50 > y <- rep(0,51) > loess.smooth(x,y) Error in simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, : NA/NaN/Inf in foreign function call (arg 1) loess(y~x), lowess(x,y), and their analogue in MATLAB produce the expected results without error on this example. I am using loess.smooth here because I need the estimates evaluated at a set number of points. According to the documentation, I believe loess.smooth and loess are using the same estimation functions, but the former is an "auxiliary function" to handle the evaluation points. The error seems to come from a C function: > traceback() 3: .C(R_loess_raw, as.double(pseudovalues), as.double(x), as.double(weights), as.double(weights), as.integer(D), as.integer(N), as.double(span), as.integer(degree), as.integer(nonparametric), as.integer(order.drop.sqr), as.integer(sum.drop.sqr), as.double(span * cell), as.character(surf.stat), temp = double(N), parameter = integer(7), a = integer(max.kd), xi = double(max.kd), vert = double(2 * D), vval = double((D + 1) * max.kd), diagonal = double(N), trL = double(1), delta1 = double(1), delta2 = double(1), as.integer(0L)) 2: simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, "none", "interpolate", control$cell, iterations, control$trace.hat) 1: loess.smooth(x, y) loess also calls simpleLoess, but with what appears to be different arguments. Of course, if you vary enough of the y values to be nonzero, loess.smooth runs without error, but I need the program to run in even the most extreme case. Hopefully, someone can help me with one and/or all of the following: Understand why only loess.smooth, and not the other functions, produces this error and find a solution for this problem. Find a work-around using loess but still evaluating the estimate at a specified number of points that can differ from the vector x. For example, I might want to use only x <- seq(0,50,10) in the smoothing, but evaluate the estimate at x <- 0:50. As far as I know, using predict with a new data frame will not properly handle this situation, but please let me know if I am missing something there. Handle the error in a way that doesn't stop the program from moving onto the next simulated data set. Thanks in advance for any help on this problem.

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