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Multi-client C# ODBC (Sybase/Oracle/MSSQL) table access question.

- by Hamish Grubijan

I am working on a feature that would allow clients pick a unique identifier (ci_name). The code below is a generic version that gets expanded to the right sql depending on the vendor. Hopefully it makes sense. #include "sql.h" create table client_identification ( ci_id TYPE_ID IDENTITY, ci_name varchar(64) not null, constraint ci_pk primary key (ci_name) ); go CREATE_SEQUENCE(ci_id) There will be simple stored procedures for adding, retrieving, and deleting these user records. This will be used by several admins. This will not happen very frequently, but there is still a possibility that something will be added or deleted since the list was initially retrieved. I have not yet decided if I need to detect the case of a double delete, but the user name cannot be created twice - primary key constraint will object. I want to be able to detect this particular case and display something like: "you snooze - you loose." :) I would like to leverage the pk constraint instead of doing some extra sql gymnastics. So, how can I detect this case cleanly, so that it works in MS SQL 2008, Sybase, and Oracle? I hope to do better than catch a general ODBC exception and parse out the text and look for what Sybase, Oracle, and MSSQL would give me back. Oracle is a little different. We actually prepend these variables to the Oracle version of stored procedures because they are not available otherwise: Vret_val out number, Vtran_count in out number, Vmessage_count in out number, Thanks. General helpful tips and comments are welcome, except for naming convention ones ( I do not have a choice here, plus I mangled the actual names a bit).

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Get parent attribute within new child form?

- by dannymcc

I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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Protecting routes with authentication in an AngularJS app

- by Chris White

Some of my AngularJS routes are to pages which require the user to be authenticated with my API. In those cases, I'd like the user to be redirected to the login page so they can authenticate. For example, if a guest accesses /account/settings, they should be redirected to the login form. From brainstorming I came up with listening for the $locationChangeStart event and if it's a location which requires authentication then redirect the user to the login form. I can do that simple enough in my applications run() event: .run(['$rootScope', function($rootScope) { $rootScope.$on('$locationChangeStart', function(event) { // Decide if this location required an authenticated user and redirect appropriately }); }]); The next step is keeping a list of all my applications routes that require authentication, so I tried adding them as parameters to my $routeProvider: $routeProvider.when('/account/settings', {templateUrl: '/partials/account/settings.html', controller: 'AccountSettingCtrl', requiresAuthentication: true}); But I don't see any way to get the requiresAuthentication key from within the $locationChangeStart event. Am I overthinking this? I tried to find a way for Angular to do this natively but couldn't find anything.

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Postgresql Output column from another table

- by muffin

i'm using Postgresql, my question is specifically about querying from a table that's in another table and i'm really having trouble with this one. In fact, i'm absolutely mentally blocked. I'll try to define the relations of the tables as much as I can. I have a table entry which is like this: Each of the entries has a group_id; when they are 'advanced' to the next stage, the old entries are marked is_active = false, and a new assignment is done, so C & D are advanced stages of A & B. I have another table (which acts as a record keeper) , in which the storage_log_id refers to, this is the storage_log table : But then I have another table, to really find out where the entries are actually stored - storage table : To define my problem properly. Each entry has a storage_log_id (but some doesn't have yet), and a storage_log has a storage_id to refer to the actual table and find the storage label. The sql query i'm trying to do should output this one: Where The actual storage label is shown instead of the log id. This is so far what i've done: select e.id, e.group_id, e.name, e.stage, s.label from operational.entry e, operational.storage_log sl, operational.storage s where e.storage_log_id = sl.id and sl.storage_id = s.id But this just returns 3 rows, showing only the ones that have the seed_storage_log_id set; I should be able to see even those without logs, and especially the active ones. adding e.is_active = true to the condition makes the results empty. So, yeah i'm stuck. Need help, Thanks guys!

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How to append html only if the div is empty in jQuery?

- by johnnyb3000

I have this code for displaying content for login and registration in my PHP file: <?php // LOGIN PART ?> <div class="login-part"></div> <?php // REGISTRATION PART ?> <div class="registration-part"></div> And this in my js file: $(document).ready( function() { // FOR REGISTRATION $('span.logreg.reg').click(function () { $('div.registration-part').append('<p>Registration</p>'); }); // FOR LOGIN $('span.logreg.log').click(function () { // insert html $('div.login-part').append('<p>Login</p>'); }); }); Now, everytime I click on a span it shows the text login or registration, according to which of the span was clicked. Thats OK, however I need to add it only once, so when the user click more times on the span it will be not adding more text. Remove() or empty() is not an option, as far as I know, because I need the information inside input boxes (there will be input boxes later for inserting user info) to stay there and not be deleted if the user click accidentally on the span again. It can however delete the html inside the div, if he clicks on another span. E.g. if span.log is active, after clicking on span.log nothing happens, but if he clicks on span.reg the html inside div.login-part will be removed and registration text will appear. How to do something like this?

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How do I write escape characters verbatim (without escaping) using StreamWriter?

- by Joel

I'm writing a utility that takes in a .resx file and creates a javascript object containing properties for all the name/value pairs in the .resx file. This is all well and good, until one of the values in the .resx is This dealer accepts electronic orders. /r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer. I'm adding the name/value pairs to the js object like this: streamWriter.Write(string.Format("\n{0} : \"{1}\"", kvp.Key, kvp.Value)); When kvp.Value = "This dealer accepts electronic orders./r/nClick to order {0} from this dealer." This causes StreamWriter.Write() to actually place a newline in between 'orders.' and 'Click', which naturally screws up my javascript output. I've tried different things with @ and without using string.Format, but I've had no luck. Any suggestions? Edit: This application is run during build to get some javascript files deployed later, so at no point is it accessible to / run by anyone but the app developers. So while I obviously need a way to escape characters here, XSS as such is not really a concern.

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Sub Query making Query slow.

- by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

Please copy and paste following script. DECLARE @MainTable TABLE(MainTablePkId int) INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 2 DECLARE @SomeTable TABLE(SomeIdPk int, MainTablePkId int, ViewedTime1 datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -10, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 2, 1, DATEADD(dd, -9, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 3, 2, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) DECLARE @SomeTableDetail TABLE(DetailIdPk int, SomeIdPk int, Viewed INT, ViewedTimeDetail datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 1, 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -7, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 2, 2, NULL, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 3, 2, 2, DATEADD(dd, -8, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 4, 3, 1, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) SELECT m.MainTablePkId, (SELECT COUNT(Viewed) FROM @SomeTableDetail), (SELECT TOP 1 s2.ViewedTimeDetail FROM @SomeTableDetail s2 INNER JOIN @SomeTable s1 ON s2.SomeIdPk = s1.SomeIdPk WHERE s1.MainTablePkId = m.MainTablePkId) FROM @MainTable m Above given script is just sample. I have long list of columns in SELECT and around 12+ columns in Sub Query. In my From clause there are around 8 tables. To fetch 2000 records full query take 21 seconds and if I remove Subquiries it just take 4 seconds. I have tried to optimize query using 'Database Engine Tuning Advisor' and on adding new advised indexes and statistics but these changes make query time even bad. Note: As I have mentioned that this is test data to explain my question the real data has lot of tables joins columns but without Sub-Query the results us fine. Any help thanks.

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Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

- by CB

This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side)  <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" >   <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

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LINQ to SQL - database relationships won't update after submit

- by Quantic Programming

I have a Database with the tables Users and Uploads. The important columns are: Users -> UserID Uploads -> UploadID, UserID The primary key in the relationship is Users -> UserID and the foreign key is Uploads -> UserID. In LINQ to SQL, I do the following operations: Retrieve files var upload = new Upload(); upload.UserID = user.UserID; upload.UploadID = XXX; db.Uploads.InsertOnSubmit(upload) db.SubmitChanges(); If I do that and rerun the application (and the db object is re-built, of course) - if do something like this: foreach(var upload in user.Uploads) I get all the uploads with that user's ID. (like added in the previous example) The problem is, that my application, after adding an upload an submitting changes, doesn't update the user.Uploads collection. i.e - I don't get the newly added uploads. The user object is stored in the Session object. At first, I though that the LINQ to SQL Framework doesn't update the reference of the object, therefore I should simply "reset" the user object from a new SQL request. I mean this: Session["user"] = db.Users.Where(u => u.UserID == user.UserID).SingleOrDefault(); (Where user is the previous user) But it didn't help. Please note: After rerunning the application, user.Uploads does have the new upload! Did anyone experience this type of problem, or is it normal behavior? I am a newbie to this framework. I would gladly take any advice. Thank you!

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i integer does not +1 the 1st time

- by Hwang

I have a gallery where it will load an image after a previous image is loaded, so every time 'i' will +1 so that it could move to the next image. This code works fine on my other files, but I dunno why it doesn't work for the current file. Normally if I trace 'i' the correct will be 0,1,2,3,4,5,6... etc adding on till the limit, but this files its 'i' repeat the 1st number twice, only it continues to add 0,0,1,2,3,4,5,6...etc The code is completely the same with the other file I'm using, but I don't know why it just doesn't work here. The code does not seems to have any problem. Anyway i can work around this situation? private var i:uint=0; private function loadItem():void { if (i<myXMLList.length()) { loadedPic=myXMLList[i].thumbnails; galleryLoader = new Loader(); galleryLoader.load(new URLRequest(loadedPic)); galleryLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,picLoaded); } else { adjustImage(); } } private function picLoaded(event:Event):void { var bmp=new Bitmap(event.target.content.bitmapData); bmp.smoothing=true; bmpArray.push(bmp); imagesArray[i].addChild(bmp); i++; loadItem(); }

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Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

- by David B.

I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

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How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

- by Scott Smith

I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

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Using Linq-To-SQL I'm getting some weird behavior doing text searches with the .Contains method. Loo

- by Nate Bross

I have a table, where I need to do a case insensitive search on a text field. If I run this query in LinqPad directly on my database, it works as expected Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase")) // also, adding in the same constraints I'm using in my repository works in LinqPad // Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase") && tbl.IsActive == true) In my application, I've got a repository which exposes IQueryable objects which does some initial filtering and it looks like this var dc = new MyDataContext(); public IQueryable<Table> GetAllTables() { var ret = dc.Tables.Where(t => t.IsActive == true); return ret; } In the controller (its an MVC app) I use code like this in an attempt to mimic the LinqPad query: var rpo = new RepositoryOfTable(); var tables = rpo.GetAllTables(); // for some reason, this does a CASE SENSITIVE search which is NOT what I want. tables = tables.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase"); return View(tables); The column is defiend as an nvarchar(50) in SQL Server 2008. Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated!

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How to configure an index.htm file in IIS?

- by salvationishere

I am running IIS 6.0 on an XP OS using VS 2008 and SQL Server 2008 (Full install). I developed two web apps. Both of these I can run from IIS by setting them to the default website. However, now I tried adding an index.htm file. Real simple; all it has is two hyperlinks to these web apps. But now only the first web app works. The first web app is pure VS. The second web app modifies an Adventureworks database table. But now when I click the hyperlink for the second web app, it gives me the error below. However this error doesn't make sense to me cause I have the two web apps configured as two virtual directories beneath C:\inetpub\ and the index.htm file is also beneath C:\inetpub. And the default website is set to home directory C:\inetpub\ with Document index.htm on top. Also, why does the first web app work and not the second now? Server Error in '/AddFileToSQL' Application. The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below.

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Two Objects created with the same Address in Flex

- by James

Hi, I have an issue in flex which is causing a bit of a headache! I am adding objects to an ArrayCollection but in doing so, another ArrayCollection is also picking up these changes even though there is no binding occurring. I can see from the debug that the two ACs have the same address but for the life of me can't figure out why. I have two Array Collections: model.index.rows //The main array collection model.index.holdRows //The array collection that imitates the above This phantom data binding occurs only for the first iteration in the loop and for all others it will just write it the once. The reason this is proving troublesome is that it creates duplicate entries in my datagrid. public override function handleMessage(message:IMessage):void { super.handleMessage(message); if (message is IndexResponse) { var response:IndexResponse = message as IndexResponse; model.index.rows.removeAll(); model.index.indexIsEmpty = response.nullIndex; if (model.index.indexIsEmpty !== true) { //Update the index model from the response. Note: each property of the row object will be shown in the UI as a column in the grid response.index.forEach(function(entry:EntryData, i:int, a:Array):void { var row:Object = { fileID: entry.fileID, dadName: entry.dadName }; entry.tags.forEach(function(tag:Tag, i:int, a:Array):void { row[tag.name] = tag.value; }); model.index.rows.addItem(row); }); if(model.index.indexForNetworkView == true){ model.index.holdRows.source = model.index.holdRows.source.concat(model.index.rows.source); model.index.indexCounter++; model.index.indexForNetworkView = false; controller.indexController.showNetwork(model.index.indexCounter); } model.index.rows.refresh(); controller.networkController.show(); } } Has anyone else who has encountered something simillar propose a solution?

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Obtaining command line arguments in a QT application

- by morpheous

The following snippet is from a little app I wrote using the QT framework. The idea is that the app can be run in batch mode (i.e. called by a script) or can be run interactively. It is important therefore, that I am able to parse command line arguments in order to know which mode in which to run etc. [Edit] I am debugging using QTCreator 1.3.1 on Ubuntu Karmic. The arguments are passed in the normal way (i.e. by adding them via the 'Project' settings in the QTCreator IDE). When I run the app, it appears that the arguments are not being passed to the application. The code below, is a snippet of my main() function. int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { //Q_INIT_RESOURCE(application); try { QApplication the_app(argc, argv); //trying to get the arguments into a list QStringList cmdline_args = QCoreApplication::arguments(); // Code continues ... } catch (const MyCustomException &e) { return 1; } return 0; } [Update] I have identified the problem - for some reason, although argc is correct, the elements of argv are empty strings. I put this little code snippet to print out the argv items - and was horrified to see that they were all empty. for (int i=0; i< argc; i++){ std::string s(argv[i]); //required so I can see the damn variable in the debugger std::cout << s << std::endl; } Does anyone know what on earth is going on (or a hammer)?

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SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

- by Philipp Schmid

Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

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C++ File manipulation problem

- by Carlucho

I am trying to open a file which normally has content, for the purpose of testing i will like to initialize the program without the files being available/existing so then the program should create empty ones, but am having issues implementing it. This is my code originally void loadFiles() { fstream city; city.open("city.txt", ios::in); fstream latitude; latitude.open("lat.txt", ios::in); fstream longitude; longitude.open("lon.txt", ios::in); while(!city.eof()){ city >> cityName; latitude >> lat; longitude >> lon; t.add(cityName, lat, lon); } city.close(); latitude.close(); longitude.close(); } I have tried everything i can think of, ofstream, ifstream, adding ios::out all all its variations. Could anybody explain me what to do in order to fix the problem. Thanks!

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Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

- by fuzzygoat

I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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REST Rails 2 nested routes without resource names?

- by mrbrdo

I'm using Rails 2. I have resources nested like this: - university_categories - universities - studies - professors - comments I wish to use RESTful routes, but I don't want all that clutter in my URL. For example instead of: /universities/:university_id/studies/:study_id/professors/:professor_id I want: /professors/:university_id/:study_id/:professor_id (I don't map professors seperately so there shouldn't be a confusion between this and /professors/:professor_id since that route shouldn't exist). Again, I want to use RESTful resources/routes... Also note, I am using slugs instead of IDs. Slugs for studies are NOT unique, while other are. Also, there are no many-to-many relationships (so if I know the slug of a professor, which is unique, I also know which study and university and category it belongs to, however I still wish this information to be in the URI if possible for SEO, and also it is necessary when adding a new professor). I do however want to use shallow nesting for "administrator" URIs like edit, destroy (note the problem here with Study since it's slug is not unique, though)... I would also like some tips on how to use the url helpers so that I don't have too much to fix if I change the routes in the future... Thank you.

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Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

- by Robert Rossney

Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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C# Timer -- measuring time slower

- by Fassenkugel

I'm writing a code where: I.) The user adds "events" during run-time. (To a flowlayoutpanel) These events are turning some LEDs on/off, after "x" time has elapsed and the LED-turning functions are written in a Led-function.cs class. i.e: 1) Turn left led on After 3500ms 2) Turn right led on After 4000ms II.) When the user hits start a timer starts. // Create timer. System.Timers.Timer _timer; _timer = new System.Timers.Timer(); _timer.Interval = (1); _timer.Elapsed += (sender, e) => { HandleTimerElapsed(LedObject, device, _timer); }; _timer.Start(); III.) The timer's tick event is raised every millisecond and checks if the user definied time has ellapsed. Im measuring the elapsed time with adding +1 to an integer at every tick event. (NumberOfTicks++;) //Timer Handle private void HandleTimerElapsed(Led_Functions LedObject, string device, System.Timers.Timer _timer) { NumberOfTicks++; if (NumberOfTicks >= Start_time[0]) { LedObject.LeftLED_ONnobutton(device); } } IV.) What I noticed was that when the tick was set to 1. (So the tick event is raised every millisecond) Even if I set 3000ms to the evet the LED actually flashed around 6 seconds. When the tick was set to 100. (So every 0,1s) then the flash was more accurate (3,5sec or so). Any Ideas why im having this delay in time? Or do you have any ideas how could I implement it better? Thank you!

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How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

- by Jordan S

I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

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How do I change or add data to a data repeater and get it to display in ASP.NET

- by CowKingDeluxe

Here is my code-behind, this adds the "OakTreeName" to the datarepeater. There's about 200 of them. Dim cmd As New SqlClient.SqlCommand("OakTree_Load", New SqlClient.SqlConnection(ConnStr)) cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure cmd.Connection.Open() Dim datareader As SqlClient.SqlDataReader = cmd.ExecuteReader() OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataSource = datareader OakTree_Thumb_Repeater.DataBind() cmd.Connection.Close() Here is essentially what I'd like to do with my markup: <ContentTemplate> <asp:Repeater ID="OakTree_Thumb_Repeater" runat="server"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeName") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" />  <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="<%# Container.DataItem("OakTreeThumbURL") %>" AlternateText="" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> </ContentTemplate> I would like to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable before it gets placed into the item template. Basically I need to manipulate the "OakTreeName" variable and then input it as the ImageURL for the imagebutton within the item template. How do I do this? Am I approaching this wrong? Is there a way to manipulate the item template from code-behind before it gets displayed for each round of variables in the data repeater?

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Vector does reallocation on every push_back

- by Amrish

IDE - Visual Studio 2008, Visual C++ I have a custom class Class1 with a copy constructor to it. I also have a vector Data is inserted using the following code Class1* objClass1; vector<Class1> vClass1; for(int i=0;i<1000;i++) { objClass1 = new Class1(); vClass1.push_back(*objClass1); delete objClass1; } Now on every insert, the vector gets re-allocated and all the existing contents are copied to new locations. For example, if the vector has 5 elements and if I insert the 6th one, the previous 5 elements along with the new one gets copied to a new location (I figured it out by adding log statements in the copy constructors.) On using reserve(), this however does not happen as expected! I have the following questions Is it mandatory to always use the reserve statement? Does vector does a reallocation every time I do a push_back; or does it happen because I am debugging?

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