Search Results

Search found 11674 results on 467 pages for 'adding'.

Page 387/467 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • Fixing Chrome resizing behaviour

    - by bobo
    <div style="background-color:red;width: 300px;"> <div style="float:left;border:1px solid yellow;">AAA AAA AAA</div> <div style="float:left;border:1px solid green;">BBB BBB BBB</div> <div style="clear:both;"></div> </div> Pasting the above HTML here: http://htmledit.squarefree.com/ And then zoom out in Chrome, you will see that <div> B will eventually be forced down to the next row. If you do the same thing in Firefox and IE, both <div> A and B will stay on the same row. Adding a height attribute on the parent <div> may help, but if the height of the content is not known beforehand, this will not be feasible. I would like to know how this problem can be fixed in Chrome. Many thanks to you all. EDIT: uploaded a screenshot here: http://img52.imageshack.us/i/screenshot1xd.jpg/

    Read the article

  • Sub Query making Query slow.

    - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem
    Please copy and paste following script. DECLARE @MainTable TABLE(MainTablePkId int) INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @MainTable SELECT 2 DECLARE @SomeTable TABLE(SomeIdPk int, MainTablePkId int, ViewedTime1 datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -10, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 2, 1, DATEADD(dd, -9, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTable SELECT 3, 2, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) DECLARE @SomeTableDetail TABLE(DetailIdPk int, SomeIdPk int, Viewed INT, ViewedTimeDetail datetime) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 1, 1, 1, DATEADD(dd, -7, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 2, 2, NULL, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 3, 2, 2, DATEADD(dd, -8, getdate()) INSERT INTO @SomeTableDetail SELECT 4, 3, 1, DATEADD(dd, -6, getdate()) SELECT m.MainTablePkId, (SELECT COUNT(Viewed) FROM @SomeTableDetail), (SELECT TOP 1 s2.ViewedTimeDetail FROM @SomeTableDetail s2 INNER JOIN @SomeTable s1 ON s2.SomeIdPk = s1.SomeIdPk WHERE s1.MainTablePkId = m.MainTablePkId) FROM @MainTable m Above given script is just sample. I have long list of columns in SELECT and around 12+ columns in Sub Query. In my From clause there are around 8 tables. To fetch 2000 records full query take 21 seconds and if I remove Subquiries it just take 4 seconds. I have tried to optimize query using 'Database Engine Tuning Advisor' and on adding new advised indexes and statistics but these changes make query time even bad. Note: As I have mentioned that this is test data to explain my question the real data has lot of tables joins columns but without Sub-Query the results us fine. Any help thanks.

    Read the article

  • javascript not firing when asp.net user control loads

    - by Jawahar
    I am trying to fire a Javascript call when an ASP.net user control to an aspx page. The Web site allows users to add user controls to a page (similar to adding a widget etc to a page like google widgets). But when the control is added the javascript does not fire, only if the page is refreshed will it fire the javascript. IF the next time the website is accessd and the controlis still there the javascript fires too. Do I need to use the RegisterClientScript method to register the call (setAutoTimer()) on the control load or OnPreRender event. In the User control I have this at the start of the ascx file: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { if ($("#alarmList").length) { setAutoTimer(); getData(); } }); function setAutoTimer() { setInterval(getData, 10000); } function getData() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Service.asmx/getListData data: "{'inverterid': '" + "1'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { AjaxSucceeded(msg); }, error: AjaxFailed }); } function AjaxSucceeded(result) { $("#alarmList").empty(); $("#alarmsListTemplate").tmpl(result.d) .appendTo("#alarmList"); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert(result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); } </script>

    Read the article

  • Proper structure for dependency injection (using Guice)

    - by David B.
    I would like some suggestions and feedback on the best way to structure dependency injection for a system with the structure described below. I'm using Guice and thus would prefer solutions centered around it's annotation-based declarations, not XML-heavy Spring-style configuration. Consider a set of similar objects, Ball, Box, and Tube, each dependent on a Logger, supplied via the constructor. (This might not be important, but all four classes happen to be singletons --- of the application, not Gang-of-Four, variety.) A ToyChest class is responsible for creating and managing the three shape objects. ToyChest itself is not dependent on Logger, aside from creating the shape objects which are. The ToyChest class is instantiated as an application singleton in a Main class. I'm confused about the best way to construct the shapes in ToyChest. I either (1) need access to a Guice Injector instance already attached to a Module binding Logger to an implementation or (2) need to create a new Injector attached to the right Module. (1) is accomplished by adding an @Inject Injector injectorfield to ToyChest, but this feels weird because ToyChest doesn't actually have any direct dependencies --- only those of the children it instantiates. For (2), I'm not sure how to pass in the appropriate Module. Am I on the right track? Is there a better way to structure this? The answers to this question mention passing in a Provider instead of using the Injector directly, but I'm not sure how that is supposed to work. EDIT: Perhaps a more simple question is: when using Guice, where is the proper place to construct the shapes objects? ToyChest will do some configuration with them, but I suppose they could be constructed elsewhere. ToyChest (as the container managing them), and not Main, just seems to me like the appropriate place to construct them.

    Read the article

  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

    Read the article

  • Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

    - by davetron5000
    Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

    Read the article

  • UpdatePanel reloads the whole page

    - by Emil D
    Hi.I'm building an asp.net cutom control inside which I have two dropdownlists: companyIdSelection and productFamilySelection.I populate the companyIdSelection at Page_Load and in order to populate the productFamilySelection depending on the selected item in companyIdSelection.I'm using UpdatePanels to achieve this, but for some reason every time I update companyIdSelection Page_Load is being called ( which as far as I know should happen only when the entire page is reloaded ), the list is being reloaded again and the item the user selected is lost( the selected item is always the top one ).Here's the code <asp:UpdatePanel ID="updateFamilies" runat="server" UpdateMode="Always"> <ContentTemplate> Company ID:<br> <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="companyIdSelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" OnSelectedIndexChanged="companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br></br> Product Family: <br></br> <asp:DropDownList ID="productFamilySelection" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="productFamilySelection_SelectedIndexChanged"> </asp:DropDownList> <br> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { this.companyIdSelection.DataSource = companyIds(); //companyIds returns the object containing the initial data items this.companyIdSelection.DataBind(); } protected void companyIdSelection_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Page_Load is called again for some reason before this method is called, so it // resets the companyIdSelection EngDbService s = new EngDbService(); productFamilySelection.DataSource = s.getProductFamilies(companyIdSelection.Text); productFamilySelection.DataBind(); } Also, I tried setting the UpdateMode of the UpdatePanel to "Conditional" and adding an asyncpostback trigger but the result was the same. What am I doing wrong? PS: I fixed the updating problem, by using Page.IsPostBack in the Page_Load method, but I would still want to avoid a full postback if possible

    Read the article

  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

    Read the article

  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

    Read the article

  • Vector does reallocation on every push_back

    - by Amrish
    IDE - Visual Studio 2008, Visual C++ I have a custom class Class1 with a copy constructor to it. I also have a vector Data is inserted using the following code Class1* objClass1; vector<Class1> vClass1; for(int i=0;i<1000;i++) { objClass1 = new Class1(); vClass1.push_back(*objClass1); delete objClass1; } Now on every insert, the vector gets re-allocated and all the existing contents are copied to new locations. For example, if the vector has 5 elements and if I insert the 6th one, the previous 5 elements along with the new one gets copied to a new location (I figured it out by adding log statements in the copy constructors.) On using reserve(), this however does not happen as expected! I have the following questions Is it mandatory to always use the reserve statement? Does vector does a reallocation every time I do a push_back; or does it happen because I am debugging?

    Read the article

  • Using the standard OBJECT tag, how can I display a java applet with automatic prompts to install Java and with fallback content?

    - by CB
    This is the code i'm currently using: (note - %s is replaced on the server side) <!--[if !IE]>--> <object type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--<![endif]--> <!--[if IE]> <object classid="clsid:8AD9C840-044E-11D1-B3E9-00805F499D93" codebase="http://java.sun.com/update/1.6.0/jinstall-6u22-windows-i586.cab" type="application/x-java-applet" width="300" height="300" > <!--><!-- <![endif]--> <param name="codebase" value="/media/vnc/" > <param name="archive" value="TightVncViewer.jar" /> <param name="code" value="com.tightvnc.vncviewer.VncViewer" /> <param name="port" value="%s" /> <param name="Open New Window" value="yes" /> </object> When Java is installed, this works perfectly in both IE and Firefox. When Java is not installed, IE and Firefox both correctly prompt for an autodownload of Java 1.6 from the codebase line. (IE via the activex url given firefox via the Plugin Finder Service) Now, suppose I want fallback content to be shown if the plugin isn't installed, say a simple message like "Get Java". From reading the specs, i'd assume this should not change the plugin finding prompt - that is, rendering the fallback should be seen as a failure to render the object tag. Thus, I should still get the plugin finder service prompting me to install Java. Instead, simply adding a single character to the innerHTML of the object element causes Firefox to no longer prompt. Test this by visiting data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'>Java failed to load</object>. How can I keep firefox prompting to install Java while providing fallback content? URL to test Firefox's Java Plugin Finder Service: data:text/html,<object type='application/x-java-applet'/>

    Read the article

  • C++ File manipulation problem

    - by Carlucho
    I am trying to open a file which normally has content, for the purpose of testing i will like to initialize the program without the files being available/existing so then the program should create empty ones, but am having issues implementing it. This is my code originally void loadFiles() { fstream city; city.open("city.txt", ios::in); fstream latitude; latitude.open("lat.txt", ios::in); fstream longitude; longitude.open("lon.txt", ios::in); while(!city.eof()){ city >> cityName; latitude >> lat; longitude >> lon; t.add(cityName, lat, lon); } city.close(); latitude.close(); longitude.close(); } I have tried everything i can think of, ofstream, ifstream, adding ios::out all all its variations. Could anybody explain me what to do in order to fix the problem. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

    Read the article

  • iOS - is it possible to cache CGContextDrawImage?

    - by woot586
    I used the timing profile tool to identify that 95% of the time is spent calling the function CGContextDrawImage. In my app there are a lot of duplicate images repeatably being chopped from a sprite map and drawn to the screen. I was wondering if it was possible to cache the output of CGContextDrawImage in an NSMutableDictionay, then if the same sprite is requested again it can be just pull it from the cache rather than doing all the work of clipping and rendering it again. This is what i’ve got but I have not been to successful: Definitions if(cache == NULL) cache = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc]init]; //Identifier based on the name of the sprite and location within the sprite. NSString* identifier = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@-%d",filename,frame]; Adding to cache CGRect clippedRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, clipRect.size.width, clipRect.size.height); CGContextClipToRect( context, clippedRect); //create a rect equivalent to the full size of the image //offset the rect by the X and Y we want to start the crop //from in order to cut off anything before them CGRect drawRect = CGRectMake(clipRect.origin.x * -1, clipRect.origin.y * -1, atlas.size.width, atlas.size.height); //draw the image to our clipped context using our offset rect CGContextDrawImage(context, drawRect, atlas.CGImage); [cache setValue:UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext() forKey:identifier]; UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); Rendering a cached sprite There is probably a better way to render CGImage which is my ultimate caching goal but at the moment I’m just looking to successfully render the cached image out however this has not been successful. UIImage* cachedImage = [cache objectForKey:identifier]; if(cachedImage){ NSLog(@"Cached %@",identifier); CGRect imageRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, cachedImage.size.width, cachedImage.size.height); if (NULL != UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions) UIGraphicsBeginImageContextWithOptions(imageRect.size, NO, 0); else UIGraphicsBeginImageContext(imageRect.size); //Use draw for now just to see if the image renders out ok CGContextDrawImage(context, imageRect, cachedImage.CGImage); UIGraphicsEndImageContext(); }

    Read the article

  • Combining JavaScript for Google Analytics with yours. (Asynchronous tracking.)

    - by lorenzo 72
    I have a JavaScript file which is loaded up at the end of my HTML page. Rather than adding the script code for asynchronous tracking for Google in yet another script I would rather combine the two scripts together. So instead of this: <html> ... <script src="myScript.js"> <!-- google analytics --> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script> </html> I would have that bit of code in the second script tag at the end of my 'myScript.js'. I have not found one place in google documentation where it suggests to combine the script with yours.

    Read the article

  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

    Read the article

  • Getting a "for each" loop in Java to run in different order everytime

    - by R Stokes
    Hi, Basically my problem is that I'm trying to write a method that finds a random path in a graph of strings, which takes as it's parameters a start string, an integer length and a Vector of strings that will store the path. I'm attempting to do this by first adding the starting string to our blank vector, recursing through its neighbors until the vector's length (not including the start node) is the same as the integer length specified in the parameters. I've provided my code so far here: public Vector<String> findRandomPathFrom(String n, int len, Vector<String> randomPath){ randomPath.add(n); if (randomPath.size() == len + 1) return randomPath; for (String m : this.neighbours(n)){ if (!randomPath.contains(m) && findRandomPathFrom(m, len, randomPath) != null) return randomPath; } path.setSize(path.size() - 1); return null; } It seems to be working fine, returning a path with exactly the number of strings specified after the given start string. However, for any given starting string it generates the EXACT same path everytime, which kind of defeats the purpose of it being a random path generator. I'm guessing this problem is related to my "for each" loop, which loops through all the neighbouring strings of your current string. It seems to just be going with the first string in the neighbours vector every single time. Can anyone help me fix this problem so that it will choose a random neighbour instead of going in order? tl;dr - Any way of getting a "for each" loop in java to process a collection in a random order as oppoosed to start-to-finsih? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How can I add SOAP Headers to a WSDL generated Borland C++ Builder 6 application.

    - by MJG
    Using a WSDL that requires a SOAP HEADER for Authentication (fragment below) code that gets generated when creating a web service client via the "WSDL Importer" has no concept of the Authentication Headers and there are no examples in BCB6 C++ Examples/WebServices directories that show how, and nothing on Web that I can find. Anyone with BCB6 C++ (not Delphi) have an example of adding SOAP Headers to a TRemotable subclass? <s:element name="AuthenticationHeader" type="tns:AuthenticationHeader"/> <s:complexType name="AuthenticationHeader"> <s:complexContent mixed="false"> <s:extension base="tns:UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Function" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TimeOutMilliSec" type="s:int"/> </s:sequence> </s:extension> </s:complexContent> </s:complexType> <s:complexType name="UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Username" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Password" type="s:string"/> </s:sequence> <s:anyAttribute/> </s:complexType>

    Read the article

  • How much does an InnoDB table benefit from having fixed-length rows?

    - by Philip Eve
    I know that dependent on the database storage engine in use, a performance benefit can be found if all of the rows in the table can be guaranteed to be the same length (by avoiding nullable columns and not using any VARCHAR, TEXT or BLOB columns). I'm not clear on how far this applies to InnoDB, with its funny table arrangements. Let's give an example: I have the following table CREATE TABLE `PlayerGameRcd` ( `User` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Game` MEDIUMINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `GameResult` ENUM('Quit', 'Kicked by Vote', 'Kicked by Admin', 'Kicked by System', 'Finished 5th', 'Finished 4th', 'Finished 3rd', 'Finished 2nd', 'Finished 1st', 'Game Aborted', 'Playing', 'Hide' ) NOT NULL DEFAULT 'Playing', `Inherited` TINYINT NOT NULL, `GameCounts` TINYINT NOT NULL, `Colour` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Score` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `NumLongTurns` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `Notes` MEDIUMTEXT, `CurrentOccupant` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, PRIMARY KEY (`Game`, `User`), UNIQUE KEY `PGR_multi_uk` (`Game`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Colour`), INDEX `Stats_ind_PGR` (`GameCounts`, `GameResult`, `Score`, `User`), INDEX `GameList_ind_PGR` (`User`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Game`, `Colour`), CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_User_fk` FOREIGN KEY `User_fk` (`User`) REFERENCES `User` (`UserID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_Game_fk` FOREIGN KEY `Game_fk` (`Game`) REFERENCES `Game` (`GameID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ) ENGINE=INNODB CHARACTER SET utf8 COLLATE utf8_general_ci The only column that is nullable is Notes, which is MEDIUMTEXT. This table presently has 33097 rows (which I appreciate is small as yet). Of these rows, only 61 have values in Notes. How much of an improvement might I see from, say, adding a new table to store the Notes column in and performing LEFT JOINs when necessary?

    Read the article

  • How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

    Read the article

  • REST Rails 2 nested routes without resource names?

    - by mrbrdo
    I'm using Rails 2. I have resources nested like this: - university_categories - universities - studies - professors - comments I wish to use RESTful routes, but I don't want all that clutter in my URL. For example instead of: /universities/:university_id/studies/:study_id/professors/:professor_id I want: /professors/:university_id/:study_id/:professor_id (I don't map professors seperately so there shouldn't be a confusion between this and /professors/:professor_id since that route shouldn't exist). Again, I want to use RESTful resources/routes... Also note, I am using slugs instead of IDs. Slugs for studies are NOT unique, while other are. Also, there are no many-to-many relationships (so if I know the slug of a professor, which is unique, I also know which study and university and category it belongs to, however I still wish this information to be in the URI if possible for SEO, and also it is necessary when adding a new professor). I do however want to use shallow nesting for "administrator" URIs like edit, destroy (note the problem here with Study since it's slug is not unique, though)... I would also like some tips on how to use the url helpers so that I don't have too much to fix if I change the routes in the future... Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Using Linq-To-SQL I'm getting some weird behavior doing text searches with the .Contains method. Loo

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a table, where I need to do a case insensitive search on a text field. If I run this query in LinqPad directly on my database, it works as expected Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase")) // also, adding in the same constraints I'm using in my repository works in LinqPad // Table.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase") && tbl.IsActive == true) In my application, I've got a repository which exposes IQueryable objects which does some initial filtering and it looks like this var dc = new MyDataContext(); public IQueryable<Table> GetAllTables() { var ret = dc.Tables.Where(t => t.IsActive == true); return ret; } In the controller (its an MVC app) I use code like this in an attempt to mimic the LinqPad query: var rpo = new RepositoryOfTable(); var tables = rpo.GetAllTables(); // for some reason, this does a CASE SENSITIVE search which is NOT what I want. tables = tables.Where(tbl => tbl.Title.Contains("StringWithAnyCase"); return View(tables); The column is defiend as an nvarchar(50) in SQL Server 2008. Any help or guidance is greatly appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Memory usage does not drop -- no leaks though

    - by climbon
    I have UINavigationController controlling several views. One of the views is composed of 20 scrollable pages. Each page is a constructed on the fly from UIViews by adding buttons, labels, UIImageViews etc. When this UIView is popped off the stack, the memory usage remains the same. Hence it keeps rising if I keep pushing/popping that view. In my dealloc, I am traversing through all 20 pages and finding each type of object which got added via addSubview and then do a release on it but instruments says my memory usage never goes down! I am trying to use 'retainCount' to see what is up with objects I am releasing but I am perhaps not getting true picture via retainCount. For some elements retainCount shows 2 so I try to release that object twice but then app crashes. If I release it once it works but memory usage never go down :( Q1: Do I need to traverse find each element and then do a release on that element ? Why can't I release a parent object and all objects contained by it would get released automatically ? Q2: Is retainCount a reliable indicator ?

    Read the article

  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

    Read the article

  • Detect whether or not a specific attribute was valid on the model

    - by Sir Code-A-Lot
    Having created my own validation attribute deriving from System.ComponentModel.DataAnnotations.ValidationAttribute, I wish to be able to detect from my controller, whether or not that specific attribute was valid on the model. My setup: public class MyModel { [Required] [CustomValidation] [SomeOtherValidation] public string SomeProperty { get; set; } } public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // Custom validation logic here } } Now, how do I detect from the controller whether validation of CustomValidationAttribute succeeded or not? I have been looking at the Exception property of ModelError in the ModelState, but I have no way of adding a custom exception to it from my CustomValidationAttribute. Right now I have resorted to checking for a specific error message in the ModelState: public ActionResult PostModel(MyModel model) { if(ModelState.Where(i => i.Value.Errors.Where((e => e.ErrorMessage == CustomValidationAttribute.SharedMessage)).Any()).Any()) DoSomeCustomStuff(); // The rest of the action here } And changed my CustomValidationAttribute to: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public static string SharedMessage = "CustomValidationAttribute error"; public override bool IsValid(object value) { ErrorMessage = SharedMessage; // Custom validation logic here } } I don't like relying on string matching, and this way the ErrorMessage property is kind of misused. What are my options?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >