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  • Combining JavaScript for Google Analytics with yours. (Asynchronous tracking.)

    - by lorenzo 72
    I have a JavaScript file which is loaded up at the end of my HTML page. Rather than adding the script code for asynchronous tracking for Google in yet another script I would rather combine the two scripts together. So instead of this: <html> ... <script src="myScript.js"> <!-- google analytics --> <script type="text/javascript"> var _gaq = _gaq || []; _gaq.push(['_setAccount', 'UA-XXXXX-X']); _gaq.push(['_trackPageview']); (function() { var ga = document.createElement('script'); ga.type = 'text/javascript'; ga.async = true; ga.src = ('https:' == document.location.protocol ? 'https://ssl' : 'http://www') + '.google-analytics.com/ga.js'; (document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0] || document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0]).appendChild(ga); })(); </script> </html> I would have that bit of code in the second script tag at the end of my 'myScript.js'. I have not found one place in google documentation where it suggests to combine the script with yours.

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  • How much does an InnoDB table benefit from having fixed-length rows?

    - by Philip Eve
    I know that dependent on the database storage engine in use, a performance benefit can be found if all of the rows in the table can be guaranteed to be the same length (by avoiding nullable columns and not using any VARCHAR, TEXT or BLOB columns). I'm not clear on how far this applies to InnoDB, with its funny table arrangements. Let's give an example: I have the following table CREATE TABLE `PlayerGameRcd` ( `User` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Game` MEDIUMINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `GameResult` ENUM('Quit', 'Kicked by Vote', 'Kicked by Admin', 'Kicked by System', 'Finished 5th', 'Finished 4th', 'Finished 3rd', 'Finished 2nd', 'Finished 1st', 'Game Aborted', 'Playing', 'Hide' ) NOT NULL DEFAULT 'Playing', `Inherited` TINYINT NOT NULL, `GameCounts` TINYINT NOT NULL, `Colour` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, `Score` SMALLINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `NumLongTurns` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, `Notes` MEDIUMTEXT, `CurrentOccupant` TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL DEFAULT 0, PRIMARY KEY (`Game`, `User`), UNIQUE KEY `PGR_multi_uk` (`Game`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Colour`), INDEX `Stats_ind_PGR` (`GameCounts`, `GameResult`, `Score`, `User`), INDEX `GameList_ind_PGR` (`User`, `CurrentOccupant`, `Game`, `Colour`), CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_User_fk` FOREIGN KEY `User_fk` (`User`) REFERENCES `User` (`UserID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, CONSTRAINT `Constr_PlayerGameRcd_Game_fk` FOREIGN KEY `Game_fk` (`Game`) REFERENCES `Game` (`GameID`) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ) ENGINE=INNODB CHARACTER SET utf8 COLLATE utf8_general_ci The only column that is nullable is Notes, which is MEDIUMTEXT. This table presently has 33097 rows (which I appreciate is small as yet). Of these rows, only 61 have values in Notes. How much of an improvement might I see from, say, adding a new table to store the Notes column in and performing LEFT JOINs when necessary?

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  • Doxygen including methods twice doc files

    - by Maarek
    I'm having this issue where doxygen is adding the method twice in the documentation file. Is there a setting that stops auto-generation of documentation for methods within the .m file. For example in the documentation I'll see something like whats below where the first definition of + (Status *)registerUser is from the header XXXXXX.h file where the second is from XXXXXX.m. Header documentation : /** @brief Test Yada Yada @return <#(description)#> */ + (Status *)registerUser; Output: + (Status *) registerUser Test Yada Yada. Returns: <#(description)#> + (Status *) registerUser <#(brief description)#> <#(comprehensive description)#> registerUser Returns: <#(description)#> Definition at line 24 of file XXXXXX.m. Here are the build related configuration options. I've tried playing with them. EXTRACT_ALL with YES and NO... Hiding uncodumented Members and Classes. #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- # Build related configuration options #--------------------------------------------------------------------------- EXTRACT_ALL = NO EXTRACT_PRIVATE = NO EXTRACT_STATIC = NO EXTRACT_LOCAL_CLASSES = YES EXTRACT_LOCAL_METHODS = NO EXTRACT_ANON_NSPACES = NO HIDE_UNDOC_MEMBERS = YES HIDE_UNDOC_CLASSES = YES HIDE_FRIEND_COMPOUNDS = NO HIDE_IN_BODY_DOCS = NO INTERNAL_DOCS = NO CASE_SENSE_NAMES = NO HIDE_SCOPE_NAMES = NO SHOW_INCLUDE_FILES = YES FORCE_LOCAL_INCLUDES = NO INLINE_INFO = YES SORT_MEMBER_DOCS = YES SORT_BRIEF_DOCS = NO SORT_MEMBERS_CTORS_1ST = NO SORT_GROUP_NAMES = NO SORT_BY_SCOPE_NAME = NO

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  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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  • Java convert time format to integer or long

    - by behrk2
    Hello, I'm wondering what the best method is to convert a time string in the format of 00:00:00 to an integer or a long? My ultimate goal is to be able to convert a bunch of string times to integers/longs, add them to an array, and find the most recent time in the array... I'd appreciate any help, thanks! Ok, based on the answers, I have decided to go ahead and compare the strings directly. However, I am having some trouble. It is possible to have more than one "most recent" time, that is, if two times are equal. If that is the case, I want to add the index of both of those times to an ArrayList. Here is my current code: days[0] = "15:00:00"; days[1] = "17:00:00"; days[2] = "18:00:00"; days[3] = "19:00:00"; days[4] = "19:00:00"; days[5] = "15:00:00"; days[6] = "13:00:00"; ArrayList<Integer> indexes = new ArrayList<Integer>(); String curMax = days[0]; for (int x = 1; x < days.length1; x++) { if (days[x].compareTo(curMax) > 0) { curMax = days[x]; indexes.add(x); System.out.println("INDEX OF THE LARGEST VALUE: " + x); } } However, this is adding index 1, 2, and 3 to the ArrayList... Can anyone help me?

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  • Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

    - by davetron5000
    Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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  • How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

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  • Is it getting to be time for C# to support compile-time macros?

    - by Robert Rossney
    Thus far, Microsoft's C# team has resisted adding formal compile-time macro capabilities to the language. There are aspects of programming with WPF that seem (to me, at least) to be creating some compelling use cases for macros. Dependency properties, for instance. It would be so nice to just be able to do something like this: [DependencyProperty] public string Foo { get; set; } and have the body of the Foo property and the static FooProperty property be generated automatically at compile time. Or, for another example an attribute like this: [NotifyPropertyChanged] public string Foo { get; set; } that would make the currently-nonexistent preprocessor produce this: private string _Foo; public string Foo { get { return _Foo; } set { _Foo = value; OnPropertyChanged("Foo"); } } You can implement change notification with PostSharp, and really, maybe PostSharp is a better answer to the question. I really don't know. Assuming that you've thought about this more than I have, which if you've thought about it at all you probably have, what do you think? (This is clearly a community wiki question and I've marked it accordingly.)

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  • Can I split a single SQL 2008 DB Table into multiple filegroups, based on a discriminator column?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, I've got a SQL Server 2008 R2 database which has a number of tables. Two of these tables contains a lot of large data .. mainly because one of them is VARBINARY(MAX) and the sister table is GEOGRAPHY. (Why two tables? Read Below if you're interested***) The data in these tables are geospatial shapes, such as zipcode boundaries. Now, the first 70K odd rows are for DataType = 1 the rest 5mil rows are for DataType = 2 Now, is it possible to split the table data into two files? so all rows that are for DataType != 2 goes into File_A and DataType = 2 goes into File_B? This way, when I backup the DB, I can skip adding File_B so my download is waaaaay smaller? Is this possible? I guessing you might be thinking - why not keep them as TWO extra tables? Mainly because in the code, the data is conceptually the same .. it's just happens that I want to split the storage of this model data. It really messes up my model if I now how two aggregates in my model, instead of one. ***Entity Framework doesn't like Tables with GEOGRAPHY, so i have to create a new table which transforms the GEOGRAPHY to VARBINARY, and then drop that into EF.

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  • Custom ASP.net UserControl List<T> Property, having trouble setting declaratively

    - by Chris McCall
    I'm developing a custom UserControl to inject JQuery hotkeys into a page declaratively on the server side. Here's the control (the important parts anyway): [AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.Demand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), DefaultProperty("HotKeys"), ParseChildren(true, "HotKeys"), ToolboxData("<{0}:HotKeysControl runat=\"server\"> </{0}:HotKeysControl>")] public partial class HotKeysControl : System.Web.UI.WebControls.WebControl { private string crlf = Environment.NewLine; public List<HotKey> _HotKeys; public HotKeysControl() { if (_HotKeys == null) { _HotKeys = new List<HotKey>(); } // if I uncomment this line, script is injected into the page // _HotKeys.Add(new HotKey("ctrl+r","thisControl")); } [ Category("Behavior"), Description("The hotkeys collection"), DesignerSerializationVisibility( DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), Editor(typeof(HotKeyCollectionEditor), typeof(UITypeEditor)), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty) ] public List<HotKey> HotKeys { set { _HotKeys = value; } get { return _HotKeys; } } Here's the .aspx code: <%@ Register Assembly="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" Namespace="MyCompany.ProductName.WebControls" TagPrefix="uc" %> ... <uc:HotKeysControl ID="theHotkeys" runat="server" Visible="false"> <uc:HotKey ControlName="firstControl" KeyCode="ctrl+1" /> <uc:HotKey ControlName="thirdControl" KeyCode="ctrl+2" /> </uc:HotKeysControl> Nothing happens, as if no HotKeys objects are being added to the property collection. What Am I doing wrong? If I uncomment out the line above and "manually" add items, it works. It's something about how I'm declaratively adding hotkeys to the page. Any ideas?

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  • lapply slower than for-loop when used for a BiomaRt query. Is that expected?

    - by ptocquin
    I would like to query a database using BiomaRt package. I have loci and want to retrieve some related information, let say description. I first try to use lapply but was surprise by the time needed for the task to be performed. I thus tried a more basic for-loop and get a faster result. Is that expected or is something wrong with my code or with my understanding of apply ? I read other posts dealing with *apply vs for-loop performance (Here, for example) and I was aware that improved performance should not be expected but I don't understand why performance here is actually lower. Here is a reproducible example. 1) Loading the library and selecting the database : library("biomaRt") athaliana <- useMart("plants_mart_14") athaliana <- useDataset("athaliana_eg_gene",mart=athaliana) 2) Querying the database : loci <- c("at1g01300", "at1g01800", "at1g01900", "at1g02335", "at1g02790", "at1g03220", "at1g03230", "at1g04040", "at1g04110", "at1g05240" ) I create a function for the use in lapply : foo <- function(loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci,athaliana) } When I use this function on the first element : > system.time(foo(cwp_loci[1])) utilisateur système écoulé 0.020 0.004 1.599 When I use lapply to retrieve the data for all values : > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.220 0.000 16.376 I then created a new function, adding a for-loop : foo2 <- function(loci) { for (i in loci) { getBM("description","tair_locus",loci[i],athaliana) } } Here is the result : > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.204 0.004 10.919 Of course, this will be applied to a big list of loci, so the best performing option is needed. I thank you for assistance. EDIT Following recommendation of @MartinMorgan Simply passing the vector loci to getBM greatly improves the query efficiency. Simpler is better. > system.time(lapply(loci, foo)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.236 0.024 110.512 > system.time(foo2(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.208 0.040 116.099 > system.time(foo(loci)) utilisateur système écoulé 0.028 0.000 6.193

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is Subversion's 'Lazy Copy' still lazy when overwriting a previously deleted file?

    - by JW
    Is Subversion's 'Lazy Copy' still lazy when overwriting a previously deleted file? I store my externals in a separate folder for each version: i.e say for dojo I'd have: webroot\ scripts\ dojo-v-1.0.0\ dojo-v-1.1.0\ etc. By doing this, for me at least, I feel it makes it easier to switch over to a new version. By only adding each new version i am not really giving svn the history it needs to do lazy copies. So one tactic I have used is to svn copy over the old version over to where the new one will be then svn delete that whole folder then unpack my newer version into that place then svn add them The idea is to avoid having a massive amount of duplicated data in my repo. I hope svn is looking at the new files and saying, "hey, i already had this once, copied, then deleted...so i am only going to be lazy store the changes". That was my theory - but does that happen in practice? p.s. Yes I know an alternative is to set the 'externals properties on the folder' - but that's another question.

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  • Tools for managing code deployment/versioning for IIS / Windows enviroments

    - by RizwanK
    I've got a strong background in Linux and OSX, and just left a job where I was architecting systems based on those platforms. Now I've got a Windows Server running IIS that has a number of different websites that it hosts. Most of them are just a bunch of HTML, JS and Images, with some ASP for some customer tools. (Each website has a different set of customer tools, or they are the same tools, but with minor code changes between them.) I'm also adding a develop web server with the same code, but the 'bleeding edge' stuff. I need an effective way of managing changes and updates to the overall codebase (henceforth referring to both the images and the html and the asp, for all the sites). When a dev (or webmaster) checks in changes, I want it to show up automatically on the developer server, but should be manually pushed out to the live server. I'd be tempted to just make the websites SVN repositories, but I'd be concerned about the overhead of having the webdeveloper having to log into the server and trigger an SVN update via commandline/tortise (and heaven forbid, manage tags). Ideally I'd also manage IIS profile settings between the systems, but the major need is to be able to manage the process, and expose it to our ASP developer, and our webmaster, both of which are used to just FTPing up the files to the live site. So, any recommendations on tools (beyond some SVN hacking with BAT files + teaching the webmaster how to log into the server and do updates) or workflows that would help this out? I even considered an RPM type package (or some Windows equivalent, of course) to manage the live server, but that seems like a bit too much overhead. Thanks.

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  • SharePoint Lists.asmx's UpdateListItems() returns too much data

    - by Philipp Schmid
    Is there a way to prevent the UpdateListItems() web service call in SharePoint's Lists.asmx endpoint from returning all of the fields of the newly created or updated list item? In our case an event handler attached to our custom list is adding some rather large field values which are turned to the client unnecessarily. Is there a way to tell it to only return the ID of the newly created (or updated) list item? For example, currently the web service returns something like this: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" ows_Title="Title" ows_Modified="2003-06-19 20:31:21" ows_Created="2003-06-18 10:15:58" ows_Author="3;#User1_Display_Name" ows_Editor="7;#User2_Display_Name" ows_owshiddenversion="3" ows_Attachments="-1" ows__ModerationStatus="0" ows_LinkTitleNoMenu="Title" ows_LinkTitle="Title" ows_SelectTitle="4" ows_Order="400.000000000000" ows_GUID="{4962F024-BBA5-4A0B-9EC1-641B731ABFED}" ows_DateColumn="2003-09-04 00:00:00" ows_NumberColumn="791.00000000000000" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" /> </Result> ... </Results> where as I am looking for a trimmed response only containing for example the ows_ID attribute: <Results xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Result ID="1,Update"> <ErrorCode>0x00000000</ErrorCode> <z:row ows_ID="4" /> </Result> ... </Results> I have unsuccessfully looked for a resource that documents all of the valid attributes for both the <Batch> and <Method> tags in he updates XmlNode parameter of UpdateListItems() in the hope that I will find a way to specify the fields to return. A solution for WSS 3.0 would be preferable over an SP 2010-only solution.

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  • How to configure an index.htm file in IIS?

    - by salvationishere
    I am running IIS 6.0 on an XP OS using VS 2008 and SQL Server 2008 (Full install). I developed two web apps. Both of these I can run from IIS by setting them to the default website. However, now I tried adding an index.htm file. Real simple; all it has is two hyperlinks to these web apps. But now only the first web app works. The first web app is pure VS. The second web app modifies an Adventureworks database table. But now when I click the hyperlink for the second web app, it gives me the error below. However this error doesn't make sense to me cause I have the two web apps configured as two virtual directories beneath C:\inetpub\ and the index.htm file is also beneath C:\inetpub. And the default website is set to home directory C:\inetpub\ with Document index.htm on top. Also, why does the first web app work and not the second now? Server Error in '/AddFileToSQL' Application. The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The path '/AddFileToSQL/App_GlobalResources/' maps to a directory outside this application, which is not supported. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below.

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  • Memory usage does not drop -- no leaks though

    - by climbon
    I have UINavigationController controlling several views. One of the views is composed of 20 scrollable pages. Each page is a constructed on the fly from UIViews by adding buttons, labels, UIImageViews etc. When this UIView is popped off the stack, the memory usage remains the same. Hence it keeps rising if I keep pushing/popping that view. In my dealloc, I am traversing through all 20 pages and finding each type of object which got added via addSubview and then do a release on it but instruments says my memory usage never goes down! I am trying to use 'retainCount' to see what is up with objects I am releasing but I am perhaps not getting true picture via retainCount. For some elements retainCount shows 2 so I try to release that object twice but then app crashes. If I release it once it works but memory usage never go down :( Q1: Do I need to traverse find each element and then do a release on that element ? Why can't I release a parent object and all objects contained by it would get released automatically ? Q2: Is retainCount a reliable indicator ?

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  • [jQuery] What would be the best way to perform a basic CRUD using AJAX

    - by rasouza
    I'm having trouble to make a simple CRUD in my site. I have a table of registries <table> <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a **href="<?php echo $this->baseUrl(); ?>/history/delete/id/<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>"** class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> </table> which I would like to perform a simple delete in these rows using AJAX (preferenciably with jQuery). The question is: do I have to create a function in JS and add onmouseclick event in the HTML? is there a more consistent way for doing this, like adding $('.delete').click() directly in the js file? If so, how do I pass the row ID for the ajax function? What I really want is to know how to pass the row ID to $.ajax() jQuery function through a clean! way

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  • How To Include Transitive Dependencies

    - by Brad Rhoads
    I have 2 gradle projects: an Android app and a RoboSpock test. My build.gradle for the Android app has . . . dependencies { compile fileTree(dir: 'libs', include: '*.jar') compile ('com.actionbarsherlock:actionbarsherlock:4.4.0@aar') { exclude module: 'support-v4' } } . . . and builds correctly by itself, e.g assembleRelease works. I'm stuck getting the test to work. I gets lots of errors such as: package com.google.zxing does not exist Those seem to indicate that the .jar files aren't being picked up. Here's my build.gradle for the test project: buildscript { repositories { mavenLocal() mavenCentral() } dependencies { classpath 'com.android.tools.build:gradle:0.9.+' classpath 'org.robospock:robospock-plugin:0.4.0' } } repositories { mavenLocal() mavenCentral() } apply plugin: 'groovy' dependencies { compile "org.codehaus.groovy:groovy-all:1.8.6" compile 'org.robospock:robospock:0.4.4' } dependencies { compile fileTree(dir: ':android:libs', include: '*.jar') compile (project(':estanteApp')) { transitive = true } } sourceSets.test.java.srcDirs = ['../android/src/', '../android/build/source/r/debug'] test { testLogging { lifecycle { exceptionFormat "full" } } } project.ext { robospock = ":estanteApp" // project to test } apply plugin: 'robospock' As that shows, I've tried adding transitive = true and including the .jar files explicitly. But no matter what I try, I end up with the package does not exist error.

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  • CDN for Images in ASP.NET

    - by Chris
    I am in the process of moving all of the images in my web application over to a CDN but I want to easily be able to switch the CDN on or off without having to hard code the path to the images. My first thought was to add an HttpHandler for image extensions that depending whether a variable in the web.config (something like ) will serve the image from the server or from the CDN. But after giving this a little though I think I've essentially ruled this out as it will cause ASP.NET to handle the request for every single image, thus adding overhead, and it might actually completely mitigate the benefits of using a CDN. An alternative approach is, since all of my pages inherit from a base page class, I could create a function in the base class that determines what path to serve the files from based off the web.config variable. I would then do something like this in the markup: <img src='<%= GetImagePath()/image.png' /> I think this is probably what I'll have to end up doing, but it seems a little clunky to me. I also envision problems with the old .NET error of not being able to modify the control collection because of the "<%=" though the "<%#" solution will probably work. Any thoughts or ideas on how to implement this?

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  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • local vs core contoller

    - by latvian
    Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

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  • Is it okay for multiple objects to retain the same object in Objective-C/Cocoa?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have a tableview class that lists 100 Foo objects. It has: @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray* fooList; and I fill it up with Foos like: self.fooList = [NSMutableArray array]; while (something) { Foo* foo = [[Foo alloc] init]; [fooList addObject:foo]; [foo release]; } First question: because the NSMutableArray is marked as retain, that means all the objects inside it are retained too? Am I correctly adding the foo and releasing the local copy after it's been added to the array? Or am I missing a retain call? Then if the user selects one specific row in the table and I want to display a detail Foo view I call: FooView* localView = [[FooView alloc] initWithFoo:[self.fooList objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:localView animated:YES]; [localView release]; Now the FooView class has: @property (nonatomic, retain) Foo* theFoo; so now BOTH the array is holding on to that Foo as well as the FooView. But that seems okay right? When the user hits the back button dealloc will be called on FooView and [theFoo release] will be called. Then another back button is hit and dealloc is called on the tableview class and [fooList release] is called. You might argue that the FooView class should have: @property (nonatomic, assign) Foo* theFoo; vs. retain. But sometimes the FooView class is called with a Foo that's not also in an array. So I wanted to make sure it was okay to have two objects holding on to the same other object.

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  • Table cellspacing with CSS

    - by antpaw
    hey, is it possible to add spacing between the cells? <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <meta charset="utf-8" /> <title>test</title> <style> #wrap { display: table-row; /* there is no also cellspacing in CSS afaik :( */ } #wrap div { display: table-cell; /* margin: 40px; doesn't work for table-cell :( */ /* border: 30px solid transparent; works but it's as good as adding padding */ /* border: 30px solid white; works but the page background is invisible */ /* decoration: */ background-color: green; padding: 20px; } </style> </head> <body> <!-- don't touch the markup --> <div id="wrap"> <div>text1</div> <div>text2</div> </div> </body> </html>

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