Search Results

Search found 11734 results on 470 pages for 'refer to itself'.

Page 387/470 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • How do you unit test new code that uses a bunch of classes that cannot be instantiated in a test har

    - by trendl
    I'm writing a messaging layer that should handle communication with a third party API. The API has a bunch of classes that cannot be easily (if at all) instantiated in a test harness. I decided to wrap each class that I need in my unit tests with an adapter/wrapper and expose the members I need through this adapter class. Often I need to expose the wrapped type as well which I do by exposing it as an object. I have also provided an interface for for each or the adapter classes to be able to use them with a mocking framework. This way I can substitute the classes in test for whatever I need. The downside is that I have a bunch of adapter classes that so far server no other reason but testing. For me this is a good reason by itself but others may find this not enough. Possibly, when I write an implementation for another third party vendor's API, I may be able to reuse much of my code and only provide the adapters specific to the vendor's API. However, this is a bit of a long shot and I'm not actually sure it will work. What do you think? Is this approach viable or am I writing unnecessary code that serves no real purpose? Let me say that I do want to write unit tests for my messaging layer and I do now know how to do it otherwise.

    Read the article

  • SpringFramework3.0: How to create interceptors that only apply to requests that map to certain contr

    - by Fusion2004
    In it's simplest form, I want an interceptor that checks session data to see if a user is logged in, and if not redirects them to the login page. Obviously, I wouldn't want this interceptor to be used on say the welcome page or the login page itself. I've seen a design that uses a listing of every url to one of two interceptors, one doing nothing and the other being the actual interceptor you want implemented, but this design seems very clunky and limits the ease of extensibility of the application. It makes sense to me that there should be an annotation-based way of using interceptors, but this doesn't seem to exist. My friend has the idea of actually modifying the handler class so that during each request it checks the Controller it is mapping the request to for a new annotation we would create (ex @Interceptor("loginInterceptor") ). A major point of my thinking is the extensibility, because I'd like to later implement similar interceptors for role-based authentication and/or administration authentication. Does it sound like my friend's approach would work for this? Or what is a proper way of going about doing this?

    Read the article

  • Adding class constraints to typeclass instance

    - by BleuM937
    I'm trying to implement the Cantor Pairing Function, as an instance of a generic Pair typeclass, as so: module Pair (Pair, CantorPair) where -- Pair interface class Pair p where pi :: a -> a -> p a k :: p a -> a l :: p a -> a -- Wrapper for typing newtype CantorPair a = P { unP :: a } -- Assume two functions with signatures: cantorPair :: Integral a => a -> a -> CantorPair a cantorUnpair :: Integral a => CantorPair a -> (a, a) -- I need to somehow add an Integral a constraint to this instance, -- but I can't work out how to do it. instance Pair CantorPair where pi = cantorPair k = fst . cantorUnpair l = snd . cantorUnpair How can I add the appropriate Integral constraint to the instance? I have a vague feeling I might need to modify the Pair interface itself, but not sure how to go about this.

    Read the article

  • Use variables to decide which object in an array gets an attribute?

    - by DavidR
    I have a web app which has two text areas. When one text area receives a mousedown event, a variable "side" is set, either "left" or "right." When a user selects some text in a text area, three strings are made. One for the text before the beginning of the selection, the selection itself, and the text after the selection to the end. A function is set to return these like this: return { head: head_text, tail: tail_text, sel: sel_text, side: text_side } Now, I have created an array, and I want it to appear in such a way that we get, text.left({"head":"four score", "selection":"and seven", "tail":"years ago."}) I am assuming I would do this by text.side = getSelection(), but how do I get it to evaluate the variable "side" instead of thinking of it as an object within "text"? EDIT: Ok, just to clarify, I might be completely wrong in my ideas in how this works, but here it goes. I want to make it so that a function can look at "text" see within text two objects, "left" and "right," and then evaluate the head, sel, and tail of each object. Would it be easier for me to use two objects?

    Read the article

  • Recreating a workflow instance with the same instance id

    - by Miron Brezuleanu
    We have some objects that have an associated workflow instance. The objects are identified with a GUID, which is also the GUID of the workflow instance associated with the object. We need to restart (see NOTE 3 for the meaning of 'restart') the workflow instance if the workflow definition changed (there is no state in the workflow itself and it is written to support restarting in this manner). The restarting is performed by calling Terminate on the WorkflowInstance, then recreating the instance with the same GUID. The weird part is that this works every other attempt (odd attempts - the workflow is stopped, but for some reason doesn't restart, even attempt - the already terminated workflow is recreated and started successfully). While I admit that using 'second hand' GUIDs is a sign of extraordinary cheapness (and something we plan to change), I'm wondering why this isn't working. Any ideas? NOTES: The terminated workflow instance is passivated (waiting for a notification) at the time of the termination. The Terminate call successfully deletes the data persisted in the database for that instance. We're using 'restarting' with a meaning that's less common in the context of WF - not restarting a passivated instance, but force the workflow to start again from the beginning of its definition. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • C#: Populating a UI using separate threads.

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to make some sense out of an application Ive been handed in order to track down the source of an error. Theres a bit of code (simplified here) which creates four threads which in turn populate list views on the main form. Each method gets data from the database and retrieves graphics from a resource dll in order to directly populate an imagelist and listview. From what Ive read on here (link) updating UI elements from any thread other than the UI thread should not be done, and yet this appears to work? Thread t0 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PopulateListView1)); t0.IsBackground = true; t0.Start(); Thread t1 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PopulateListView2)); t1.Start(); Thread t2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PopulateListView3)); t2.Start(); Thread t3 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(PopulateListView4)); t3.Start(); The error itself is a System.InvalidOperationException "Image cannot be added to the ImageList." which has me wondering if the above code is linked in some way. Iis this method of populating the UI recommended and if not what are the possible complications resulting from it?

    Read the article

  • simple image animation with the keyboard

    - by conorhiggins
    Hi the app I am currently working on requires a simple animation to be performed, which I am able to do but timing is an issue. The app uses the slightly opaque keyboard and I have set up a black background to make it more visually pleasing . The app is a utility app and as the user clicks on a settings button the app will flip which looks great. However there is a problem at the moment in that while the app is flipping the keyboard also closes which itself looks great also, however the background remains. I was wondering if there was a way of animating the background image to follow the keyboard's animation pattern and speed? If I set up a discrete animation time the chances are there will be some sort of overlap and either the image will show too long or the keyboard will show too long. Any suggestions? Another option is to make the keyboard show constantly if anyone knows how to do that? i would rather animate it though as it is quite a simple app and so I would like to make it as aesthetically pleasing as possible. /Conor

    Read the article

  • Xcode Code Sense horribly broken?

    - by Philippe Leybaert
    Ever since I started using Xcode, I've experienced extremely annoying problems using Xcode and Code Sense. The problem is that when Code Sense kicks in for code completion, sometimes the source code text below the line I'm working on goes "crazy". If I continue typing, the problem gets worse, and after a while the source code is completely screwed up (funny colors, missing lines and characters, ...). Strange enough, the source code itself is unaffected, because when I select another source file and then go back to the one I was working on, everything looks fine again. The problem can be seen in this screencast: http://www.screencast.com/t/OGY3NWE5 Interesting facts: This problem has occurred on 3 different machines, so it's not related to a corrupt installation. Sometimes it's fine for a while (up to one hour) after launching Xcode, but once it starts happening, it's getting worse and worse, until Xcode is restarted. Then it's fine again (for a while) I've searched the web for similar experiences, and I can't find anything. I would think that it is a known problem, since it occurs on 3 different Macs here (both running 10.5 and 10.6). Anyone having the same problems? Or a suggestion for fixing this?

    Read the article

  • Can we solve the table row background image problem, in chrome, in multi celled tables??

    - by Ya'el
    It is frequently asked – but I haven’t seen a good answer yet (and I looked). If you set a background image in CSS to a table row- the image will repeat itself in every cell. If you set the position: relative (for the row) and set the background-image: none (for the cells) it solves the problem on IE but not on chrome! I can't use background positioning since there are many calls and their size varies. (And the picture is not symmetrical- It's a fade out from one side. Anybody?? Example for the css code : tr { height: 30px; position:relative;} tr.green {background: url('green_30.png') no-repeat left top;} tr.orange {background: url('oranger_30.png') no-repeat left top;} tr.red {background: url('red_30.png') no-repeat left top;} td {background-image:none;} The HTML is basic - A multi cell table. The goal is to have different colors fade into every row, but it could be any non-pattern image.

    Read the article

  • How to handle too many files in Qt

    - by mree
    I'm not sure how to ask this, but here goes the question: I'm migrating from J2SE to Qt. After creating some small applications in Qt, I noticed that I've created way too many files compared to what I would've create if I was developing in Java (I use Netbeans). For an example, for a GUI to Orders, I'd have to create Main Order Search Window Edit Order Dialog Manage Order Dialog Maybe some other dialogs... For Java, I don't have to create a new file for every new Dialog, the Dialog will be created in the JFrame class itself. So, I will only be seeing 1 file for Orders which has other Dialogs in it. However, in Qt, I'd have to create 1 ui file, 1 header file, 1 cpp file for each of the Dialog (I know I can just put the cpp in the header, but it's easier to view codes in seperate files). So, in the end, I might end up with 3 (if there are 3 dialogs) x3 files = 9 files for the GUI in Qt, compared to Java which is only 1 file. I do know that I can create a GUI by coding it manually. But it seems easy on small GUIs but not some on complicated GUIs with lots of inputs, tabs and etc. So, is there any suggestion on how to minimize the file created in Qt?

    Read the article

  • How to copy a variable in JavaScript?

    - by Michael Stum
    I have this JavaScript code: for (var idx in data) { var row = $("<tr></tr>"); row.click(function() { alert(idx); }); table.append(row); } So I'm looking through an array, dynamically creating rows (the part where I create the cells is omitted as it's not important). Important is that I create a new function which encloses the idx variable. However, idx is only a reference, so at the end of the loop, all rows have the same function and all alert the same value. One way I solve this at the moment is by doing this: function GetRowClickFunction(idx){ return function() { alert(idx); } } and in the calling code I call row.click(GetRowClickFunction(idx)); This works, but is somewhat ugly. I wonder if there is a better way to just copy the current value of idx inside the loop? While the problem itself is not jQuery specific (it's related to JavaScript closures/scope), I use jQuery and hence a jQuery-only solution is okay if it works.

    Read the article

  • NSData in CoreData is not saving properly

    - by abisson
    I am currently trying to store images I download from the web into an NSManagedObject class so that I don't have to redownload it every single time the application is opened. I currently have these two classes. Plant.h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * name; @property (nonatomic, retain) PlantPicture *picture; PlantPicture.h @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * bucketName; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * creationDate; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData * pictureData; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * slug; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString * urlWithBucket; Now I do the following: - (UICollectionViewCell *)collectionView:(UICollectionView *)collectionView cellForItemAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { PlantCollectionCell *cell = [collectionView dequeueReusableCellWithReuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier forIndexPath:indexPath]; Plant *plant = [self.fetchedResultsController objectAtIndexPath:indexPath]; cell.plantLabel.text = plant.name; if(plant.picture.pictureData == nil) { NSLog(@"Downloading"); NSMutableString *pictureUrl = [[NSMutableString alloc]initWithString:amazonS3BaseURL]; [pictureUrl appendString:plant.picture.urlWithBucket]; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:pictureUrl]]; AFImageRequestOperation *imageOperation = [AFImageRequestOperation imageRequestOperationWithRequest:request success:^(UIImage *image) { cell.plantImageView.image = image; plant.picture.pictureData = [[NSData alloc]initWithData:UIImageJPEGRepresentation(image, 1.0)]; NSError *error = nil; if (![_managedObjectContext save:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); } }]; [imageOperation start]; } else { NSLog(@"Already"); cell.plantImageView.image = [UIImage imageWithData:plant.picture.pictureData]; } NSLog(@"%@", plant.name); return cell; } The plant information is present, as well as the picture object. However, the NSData itself is NEVER saved throughout the application opening and closing. I always have to REDOWNLOAD the image! Any ideas!? [Very new to CoreData... sorry if it is easy!] thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why does Perl's Devel::LeakTrace::Fast point to blank files and evals?

    - by kt
    I am using Devel::LeakTrace::Fast to debug a memory leak in a perl script designed as a daemon which runs an infinite loop with sleeps until interrupted. I am having some trouble both reading the output and finding documentation to help me understand the output. The perldoc doesn't contain much information on the output. Most of it makes sense, such as pointing to globals in DBI. Intermingled with the output, however, are several leaked SV(<LOCATION>) from (eval #) line # Where the numbers are numbers and <LOCATION> is a location in memory. The script itself is not using eval at any point - I have not investigated each used module to see if evals are present. Mostly what I want to know is how to find these evals (if possible). I also find the following entries repeated over and over again leaked SV(<LOCATION>) from line # Where line # is always the same #. Not very helpful in tracking down what file that line is in.

    Read the article

  • what can cause large discrepancy between minor GC time and total pause time?

    - by cxcg
    We have a latency-sensitive application, and are experiencing some GC-related pauses we don't fully understand. We occasionally have a minor GC that results in application pause times that are much longer than the reported GC time itself. Here is an example log snippet: 485377.257: [GC 485378.857: [ParNew: 105845K-621K(118016K), 0.0028070 secs] 136492K-31374K(1035520K), 0.0028720 secs] [Times: user=0.01 sys=0.00, real=1.61 secs] Total time for which application threads were stopped: 1.6032830 seconds The total pause time here is orders of magnitude longer than the reported GC time. These are isolated and occasional events: the immediately preceding and succeeding minor GC events do not show this large discrepancy. The process is running on a dedicated machine, with lots of free memory, 8 cores, running Red Hat Enterprise Linux ES Release 4 Update 8 with kernel 2.6.9-89.0.1EL-smp. We have observed this with (32 bit) JVM versions 1.6.0_13 and 1.6.0_18. We are running with these flags: -server -ea -Xms512m -Xmx512m -XX:+UseConcMarkSweepGC -XX:NewSize=128m -XX:MaxNewSize=128m -XX:+PrintGCDetails -XX:+PrintGCTimeStamps -XX:+PrintGCApplicationStoppedTime -XX:-TraceClassUnloading Can anybody offer some explanation as to what might be going on here, and/or some avenues for further investigation?

    Read the article

  • JavaScript doesn't parse when mod-rewrited through a PHP file?

    - by Newbtophp
    If I do the following (this is the actual/direct path to the JavaScript file): <script href="http://localhost/tpl/blue/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> It works fine, and the JavaScript parses - as its meant too. However I'm wanting to shorten the path to the JavaScript file (aswell as do some caching) which is why I'm rewriting all JavaScript files via .htaccess to cache.php (which handles the caching). The .htaccess contains the following: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteRule ^js/(.+?\.js)$ cache.php?file=$1 [NC] </IfModule> cache.php contains the following PHP code: <?php if (extension_loaded('zlib')) { ob_start('ob_gzhandler'); } $file = basename($_GET['file']); if (file_exists("tpl/blue/js/".$file)) { header("Content-Type: application/javascript"); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate'); header('Expires: ' . gmdate('D, d M Y H:i:s', time() + 3600) . ' GMT'); echo file_get_contents("tpl/blue/js/".$file); } ?> and I'm calling the JavaScript file like so: <script href="http://localhost/js/functions.js" type="text/javascript"></script> But doing that the JavaScript doesn't parse? (if I call the functions which are within functions.js later on in the page they don't work) - so theirs a problem either with cache.php or the rewrite rule? (because the file by itself works fine). If I access the rewrited file- http://localhost/js/functions.js directly it prints the JavaScript code, as any JavaScript file would - so I'm confused as to what I'm doing wrong... All help is appreciated! :)

    Read the article

  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • How to provide a temporary URL for custom domain in Wordpress multisite install?

    - by Milan Babuškov
    I have a website with Wordpress 3.0.4 installation, set up as multisite install. Some users register their blogs as something.mydomain.com and that works automatically. However, some users prefer to use their own domain names like something.com. This also works fine once they set up the CNAME record to point to my server. However, it takes 24-48 hours for that change to take effect. I'd like to be able to offer the user a temporary URL that would work out-of-the-box until the DNS changes are propagated, but I have not idea how to do it? For example: something.com should also be accessible as: something.tempdomain.com I have control over "tempdomain" DNS setup. I thought about replacing $_SERVER variables in index.php or .htaccess file when temporary domain is accessed, and this works for the first page load. However, all the links in generated page point to original domain which is not yet ready. UPDATE: I managed to get it working for the site itself by manipulating $_SERVER variables so Wordpress thinks it's creating a page for different site. I did this in index.php, so before any WP code is run I'm using ob_start and ob_get_contents later to get the page generated by Wordpress and then str_replace the links back to temporary domain. The problem I still have is the admin page. Even though the link says: http://site1.tempdomain.com/wp-admin when opened in browser it redirects to maindomain.com/wp-signup.php?new=site1.tempdomain I don't understand how WP detects that I supplied "fake" domain when $_SERVER vars are changed?

    Read the article

  • Alter a function as a parameter before evaluating it in R?

    - by Shane
    Is there any way, given a function passed as a parameter, to alter its input parameter string before evaluating it? Here's pseudo-code for what I'm hoping to achieve: test.func <- function(a, b) { # here I want to alter the b expression before evaluating it: b(..., val1=a) } Given the function call passed to b, I want to add in a as another parameter without needing to always specify ... in the b call. So the output from this test.func call should be: test.func(a="a", b=paste(1, 2)) "1" "2" "a" Edit: Another way I could see doing something like this would be if I could assign the additional parameter within the scope of the parent function (again, as pseudo-code); in this case a would be within the scope of t1 and hence t2, but not globally assigned: t2 <- function(...) { paste(a=a, ...) } t1 <- function(a, b) { local( { a <<- a; b } ) } t1(a="a", b=t2(1, 2)) This is somewhat akin to currying in that I'm nesting the parameter within the function itself. Edit 2: Just to add one more comment to this: I realize that one related approach could be to use "prototype-based programming" such that things would be inherited (which could be achieved with the proto package). But I was hoping for a easier way to simply alter the input parameters before evaluating in R.

    Read the article

  • What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

    Read the article

  • Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

    - by Tiago Alves
    As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

    Read the article

  • Spinner original text

    - by user1696863
    I'm trying my Spinner to display "Select City" before the Spinner has itself been clicked by the user. How can I do this? My current XML code is: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:custom="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/com.olacabs.customer" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:background="@drawable/page_background" android:orientation="vertical" > <TextView android:id="@+id/textView1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:background="@android:color/darker_gray" android:gravity="center" android:paddingBottom="4dp" android:paddingTop="4dp" android:text="@string/rate_card" android:textColor="@color/white" android:textSize="20dp" custom:customFont="litera_bold.ttf" /> <Spinner android:id="@+id/select_city" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_marginTop="40dp" android:prompt="@string/selectCity" /> </LinearLayout> Also, what does android:spinnerMode exactly do. I tried changing its value to dropdown but nothing happened and the application still showed a popup dialogue. My activity that implements this XML file is: public class RateCardActivity extends OlaActivity { public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); setContentView(R.layout.rate_card); Spinner spinner = (Spinner) findViewById(R.id.select_city); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource(this, R.array.select_city, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinner.setAdapter(adapter); } }

    Read the article

  • Is there any way to make this JavaScript tab completion script more efficient?

    - by Saladin Akara
    This code is to be integrated into an AJAX Chat system to enable a tab auto-completion of user names: var usernames = new Array(); usernames[0] = "Saladin"; usernames[1] = "Jyllaby"; usernames[2] = "CadaverKindler"; usernames[3] = "qbsuperstar03"; var text = "Text and something else q"; // Start of the script to be imported var searchTerm = text.slice(text.lastIndexOf(" ") + 1); var i; for(i = 0; i < usernames.length && usernames[i].substr(0,searchTerm.length) != searchTerm; i++); // End of the script to be imported document.write(usernames[i]); A couple of notes to be made: The array of usernames and the text variable would both be loaded from the chat itself via AJAX (which, unfortunately, I don't know), and the final output will be handled by AJAX as well. Is there a more efficient way to do this? Also, any tips on how to handle multiple instances of the searchTerm being found?

    Read the article

  • some problem with iOS 4.2.1

    - by bicbac
    Hi, I've been developing an app with MacBook Pro (MBP) so far. Last week one of my friends gave me new macbook air 11"(MBA). so Now I can test my code with more than one machine with the same version of developing tools - Both machine has Xcode (3.2.5) and iOS SDK 4.2.1). After some point my app starts get terminated suddenly(iPhone sumulator), and I was using MBP. I got no error message whatsoever. it just stops. I reckon the crash comes from dealing with memory, like 'release'/ 'double-release'. (I'm not 100% sure though). Anyway I thought there must be some mistake within my code for sure. -Confusion starts from this part.- With my MBA, on the other hand, I don'y see any crash. It just works fine. There is nothing different between MBA & MBP except the h/w specifications. Same code, same versions of XCode and iOS SDK. Is the fact that no crash at MBA suggesting that I have to look somewhere else than the code itself? I red some article and Q&As on iOS4.2.1 and XCode 3.2.5 that the most recent version of XCode doesn't recognize the iOS 4.2.1 since the 4.2.1 came out later the 3.2.5. Is it the reason? I have no idea at this moment what should be the next move. thanks

    Read the article

  • WordPress website getting hung up for 10-15 seconds

    - by synergy989
    Problem I have a website (which loads fine): http://testupg.videve.com/ Go to the blog section (and it begins to load, gets hung up, then loads): http://testupg.videve.com/blog/ It's all one WordPress install. The only pages that are getting hung up are the blog page itself and any article page. The video pages load fine etc. What Have I done and noticed. If I disable all plugins, the blog page loads fine. I narrowed it down to DisplayBuddy plugins (Featured posts, Carousel, Slider)...as soon as I enable any single one of them, the site loads slow. The thing that doesn't make sense is, I disabled the sidebar (deleted it from the template) and the article page still loaded slow and it has ZERO instances of this plugin. I disable the plugin and the article page loads fine. How on earth can this be? I am hoping this case above can give just a little bit of insight! One other thing. The video pages use a custom taxonomy so I am wondering if its something to do with the default wordpress taxonomy. Any help is GREATLY appreciated, I have been at this thing for hours and it's time to call in some support. Cheers

    Read the article

  • Need help with height 100% layout

    - by serg
    I am trying to build the following layout (file browser type of thing, left block would contain a list of files, right panel would contain selected file content): <------------- MENU -------------------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> <--- LEFT ----><------- RIGHT ---------> The page itself shouldn't have any scrollbars. Menu has 100% width and fixed height Left block has fixed width and 100% height. If content is taller - scroll bar appears inside the left block only. Right block contains <pre> element and takes the remaining width and 100% height. If content is wider or taller - scrollbar appears inside the right block only. This is what I have so far: http://jsbin.com/uqegi4/3/edit The problem is fixed menu height messes up 100% height calculation and all scrollbars inside left and right blocks appear at wrong time. I don't care about cross browser compatibility, only Chrome matters. Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >