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  • AndroMDA maven code generation and JPA Annotations

    - by ArsenioM
    I am using the AndroMDA plugin for maven to generate code from an uml diagram made in MagicDraw. When the code is generated, AndroMDA desings the JPA annotation for the persitence layer. I think that at the compilation process AndroMDA uses Naming Strategies to determine the Table and Column names for the DataBase. I want to determine how AndroMDA desings this JPA annotations, because I need to display this DataBase names based on the UML entity and atributtes names. I was regarding if there is an API of AndroMDA that I could use to do this by giving it the uml diagram. Or at least, to know the Naming Strategies used by AndroMDA to achive that. AndroMDA at the compilation process design the JPA annotations for the Entities, Attributes, etc that are written in my java classes under a series of rules that exist within the EJB3 cartridge of AndroMDA. (The further Database is created using those JPA annotations). I want to create a program that returns me the same Table and Attributes names wrote on the JPA annotations, by giving it the .xml file of the uml diagram of a project. I was hoping that I could take advantage of the EJB3 cartridge to generate those Tables and Attribute names with my program. One way could be using an API of AndroMDA that do this(if it exits), or at least, by implementing the same rules used by the EJB3 cartridge for that matter. To be more illustrative, For example: If in my uml model I have an Entity called “CompanyGroup”, AndroMDA would generate the following code for the class definition: @javax.persistence.Entity @javax.persistence.Table(name = "COMPANY_GR") Public class CompanyGroup implements java.io.Serializable, Comparable< CompanyGroup This is just an example (not a real case), but nevertheless, the way how AndroMDA do the translation from “CompanyGroup” to “COMPANY_GR” has to be specified somewhere. Hope this explanation is useful enough. Thanks.

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  • Self-reference entity in Hibernate

    - by Marco
    Hi guys, I have an Action entity, that can have other Action objects as child in a bidirectional one-to-many relationship. The problem is that Hibernate outputs the following exception: "Repeated column in mapping for collection: DbAction.childs column: actionId" Below the code of the mapping: <?xml version="1.0"?> <!DOCTYPE hibernate-mapping PUBLIC "-//Hibernate/Hibernate Mapping DTD 3.0//EN" "http://hibernate.sourceforge.net/hibernate-mapping-3.0.dtd"> <hibernate-mapping> <class name="DbAction" table="actions"> <id name="actionId" type="short" /> <property not-null="true" name="value" type="string" /> <set name="childs" table="action_action" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-many column="actionId" unique="true" class="DbAction" /> </set> <join table="action_action" inverse="true" optional="false"> <key column="actionId" /> <many-to-one name="parentAction" column="actionId" not-null="true" class="DbAction" /> </join> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • Linq to SQL and concurrency with Rob Conery repository pattern

    - by David Hall
    I have implemented a DAL using Rob Conery's spin on the repository pattern (from the MVC Storefront project) where I map database objects to domain objects using Linq and use Linq to SQL to actually get the data. This is all working wonderfully giving me the full control over the shape of my domain objects that I want, but I have hit a problem with concurrency that I thought I'd ask about here. I have concurrency working but the solution feels like it might be wrong (just one of those gitchy feelings). The basic pattern is: private MyDataContext _datacontext private Table _tasks; public Repository(MyDataContext datacontext) { _dataContext = datacontext; } public void GetTasks() { _tasks = from t in _dataContext.Tasks; return from t in _tasks select new Domain.Task { Name = t.Name, Id = t.TaskId, Description = t.Description }; } public void SaveTask(Domain.Task task) { Task dbTask = null; // Logic for new tasks omitted... dbTask = (from t in _tasks where t.TaskId == task.Id select t).SingleOrDefault(); dbTask.Description = task.Description, dbTask.Name = task.Name, _dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } So with that implementation I've lost concurrency tracking because of the mapping to the domain task. I get it back by storing the private Table which is my datacontext list of tasks at the time of getting the original task. I then update the tasks from this stored Table and save what I've updated This is working - I get change conflict exceptions raised when there are concurrency violations, just as I want. However, it just screams to me that I've missed a trick. Is there a better way of doing this? I've looked at the .Attach method on the datacontext but that appears to require storing the original version in a similar way to what I'm already doing. I also know that I could avoid all this by doing away with the domain objects and letting the Linq to SQL generated objects all the way up my stack - but I dislike that just as much as I dislike the way I'm handling concurrency.

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  • C# WPF XAML DataTable binding to relation

    - by LnDCobra
    I have 2 tables: COmpany {CompanyID, CompanyName} Deal {CompanyID, Value} And I have a listbox: <ListBox Name="Deals" Height="100" Width="420" Margin="0,20,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Visibility="Visible" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" SelectionChanged="Deals_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK.CompanyName}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text=" -> TGS -> " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding BuyFrom}" FontWeight="Bold" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> As you can see, I want to display the CompanyName rather then the ID which is a foreign Key. The relation "companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK" exists, as in Deals_SelectionChanged I can access companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK property of the Deals row, and I also can access the CompanyName propert of that row. Is the reason why this is not working because XAML binding uses the [] indexer? Rather than properties on the CompanyRows in my DataTable? At the moment im getting values such as - TGS - 3 - TGS - 4 Any ideas? Edit: I still can't get this to work, What would be the best way to accomplish this? Make a converter to convert foreign keys using Table being referenced as custom parameter. Create Table View for each table? This would be long winded as I have quite a large number of tables that have foreign keys.

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  • Ext.data.Store, Javascript Arrays and Ext.grid.ColumnModel

    - by Michael Wales
    I am using Ext.data.Store to call a PHP script which returns a JSON response with some metadata about fields that will be used in a query (unique name, table, field, and user-friendly title). I then loop through each of the Ext.data.Record objects, placing the data I need into an array (this_column), push that array onto the end of another array (columns), and eventually pass this to an Ext.grid.ColumnModel object. The problem I am having is - no matter which query I am testing against (I have a number of them, varying in size and complexity), the columns array always works as expected up to columns[15]. At columns[16], all indexes from that point and previous are filled with the value of columns[15]. This behavior continues until the loop reaches the end of the Ext.data.Store object, when the entire arrays consists of the same value. Here's some code: columns = []; this_column = []; var MetaData = Ext.data.Record.create([ {name: 'id'}, {name: 'table'}, {name: 'field'}, {name: 'title'} ]); // Query the server for metadata for the query we're about to run metaDataStore = new Ext.data.Store({ autoLoad: true, reader: new Ext.data.JsonReader({ totalProperty: 'results', root: 'fields', id: 'id' }, MetaData), proxy: new Ext.data.HttpProxy({ url: 'index.php/' + type + '/' + slug }), listeners: { 'load': function () { metaDataStore.each(function(r) { this_column['id'] = r.data['id']; this_column['header'] = r.data['title']; this_column['sortable'] = true; this_column['dataIndex'] = r.data['table'] + '.' + r.data['field']; // This display valid information, through the entire process console.info(this_column['id'] + ' : ' + this_column['header'] + ' : ' + this_column['sortable'] + ' : ' + this_column['dataIndex']); columns.push(this_column); }); // This goes nuts at columns[15] console.info(columns); gridColModel = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ columns: columns });

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  • Error Handling in T-SQL Scalar Function

    - by hydroparadise
    Ok.. this question could easily take multiple paths, so I will hit the more specific path first. While working with SQL Server 2005, I'm trying to create a scalar funtion that acts as a 'TryCast' from varchar to int. Where I encounter a problem is when I add a TRY block in the function; CREATE FUNCTION u_TryCastInt ( @Value as VARCHAR(MAX) ) RETURNS Int AS BEGIN DECLARE @Output AS Int BEGIN TRY SET @Output = CONVERT(Int, @Value) END TRY BEGIN CATCH SET @Output = 0 END CATCH RETURN @Output END Turns out theres all sorts of things wrong with this statement including "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'BEGIN TRY' within a function" and "Invalid use of side-effecting or time-dependent operator in 'END TRY' within a function". I can't seem to find any examples of using try statements within a scalar function, which got me thinking, is error handling in a function is possible? The goal here is to make a robust version of the Convert or Cast functions to allow a SELECT statement carry through depsite conversion errors. For example, take the following; CREATE TABLE tblTest ( f1 VARCHAR(50) ) GO INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('2') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('3') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('f') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('5') INSERT INTO tblTest(f1) VALUES('1.1') SELECT CONVERT(int,f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest DROP TABLE tblTest It never reaches point of dropping the table because the execution gets hung on trying to convert 'f' to an integer. I want to be able to do something like this; SELECT u_TryCastInt(f1) AS f1_num FROM tblTest fi_num __________ 1 2 3 0 5 0 Any thoughts on this? Is there anything that exists that handles this? Also, I would like to try and expand the conversation to support SQL Server 2000 since Try blocks are not an option in that scenario. Thanks in advance.

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  • jQuery Autocomplete - Multicolumn and Return Data rather than Value

    - by MarkRobinson
    I am currently using the DevBridge jQuery Autocomplete plugin - it works fine as is, however I would like to display the returned information in a multi-column view, but yet when clicked only return the first value. HTML <form class="form" action="index.php" onsubmit="alert('Submit Form Event'); return false;"> <div id="selection"></div> <input type="text" name="q" id="query" class="textbox" /> </form> Javascript jQuery(function() { var options = { serviceUrl: '/autocompleterequestcall.php', maxHeight:400, width:600, fnFormatResult: fnFormatResult, deferRequestBy: 0 //miliseconds }; a1 = $('#query').autocomplete(options); }); So I expect I would need to use the fnFormatResult to somehow display the multicolumn values, which are separated by |, ie. REFERENCEID | POSTCODE | ADDRESS_LINE_1 | SURNAME I would have liked to wrap the whole return up as a <table> but I can't figure out where to put the start <table> and end </table> tags, or do I just replace | with </div><div>. Then, when an item is selected, instead of returning REFERENCEID | POSTCODE | ADDRESS_LINE_1 | SURNAME I would just like to see REFERENCEID

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  • Guice and JSF 2

    - by digitaljoel
    I'm trying to use Guice to inject properties of a JSF managed bean. This is all running on Google App Engine (which may or may not be important) I've followed the instructions here: http://code.google.com/docreader/#p=google-guice&s=google-guice&t=GoogleAppEngine One problem is in the first step. I can't subclass the Servlet module and setup my servlet mappings there because Faces is handled by the javax.faces.webapp.FacesServlet which subclasses Servlet, not HttpServlet. So, I tried leaving my servlet configuration in the web.xml file and simply instantiating a new ServletModel() along with my business module when creating the injector in the context listener described in the second step. Having done all that, along with the web.xml configuration, my managed bean isn't getting any properties injected. The method is as follows @ManagedBean @ViewScoped public class ViewTables implements Serializable { private DataService<Table> service; @Inject public void setService( DataService<Table> service ) { this.service = service; } public List<Table> getTables() { return service.getAll(); } } So, I'm wondering if there is a trick to get Guice injecting into a JSF managed bean? I obviously can't use the constructor injection because JSF needs a no-arg constructor to create the bean.

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  • Webbrowser control: Get element value and store it into a variable.

    - by Khou
    Winform: Web browser Control The web browser has the following displayed content, within a html table. [Element] [Value] Name John Smith Email [email protected] For the example above, the html code, might look something like this <table> <tbody> <tr> <td><label class="label">Name</label></td> <td class="normaltext">John Smith</td> </tr> <tr> <td><label class="label">Email</label></td> <td><span class="normaltext">[email protected]</span></td> </tr> </tr> </tbody> </table> . I want to get the element value, the value to the right of the label. What is the best way to do this? .

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  • iPhone Device 3.1 SDK Breaks vertical alignment of UITableViewCellStyleValue1 textLabel

    - by user171089
    Can anyone provide an explanation for the following phenomenon? As of the iPhone Device 3.1 SDK, I've found that if a UITableViewCell is of style UITableViewCellStyleValue1 and its detailTextLabel.text is unassigned, then the textLabel does not display in the center of the cell as would be expected. One notable caveat is that this only happens for me when I'm testing on the Device – the iPhone Simulator 3.1 SDK displays the cells correctly. Also, this is not a problem when using the iPhone Device 3.0 SDK. Below is a simple UITableView subclass implementation that demonstrates the problem. @implementation BuggyTableViewController #pragma mark Table view methods // Customize the number of rows in the table view. - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { return 3; } // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleValue1 reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } switch (indexPath.row) { case 0: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text unassigned"; break; case 1: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @""; break; case 2: cell.textLabel.text = @"detailTextLabel.text = @\"A\""; cell.detailTextLabel.text = @"A"; break; default: break; } return cell; } @end

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  • what's wrong with sql statements sqlite3_column_text ??

    - by ahmet732
    if(sqlite3_open([databasePath UTF8String], & database) == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"DB OPENED"); // Setup the SQL Statement and compile it for faster access const char *sqlStatement ="select name from Medicine"; sqlite3_stmt *compiledStatement; int result = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sqlStatement, -1, &compiledStatement, nil); NSLog(@"RESULT %d", result); if(result == SQLITE_OK) { NSLog(@"RESULT IS OK..."); // Loop through the results and add them to the feeds array while(sqlite3_step(compiledStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { // Read the data from the result row NSLog(@"WHILE IS OK"); **araci = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(compiledStatement, 1)];** NSLog(@"Data read"); NSLog(@"wow: %",araci); }//while }//if sqlite_prepare v2 // Release the compiled statement from memory sqlite3_finalize(compiledStatement); NSLog(@"compiled stmnt finalized.."); } sqlite3_close(database); NSLog(@"MA_DB CLOSED"); Questions 1 ) Everything is alright until bold code. when i run the app, throws an exception below. I have one table and one row in my db relatively, id (integer), name (varchar), desc (varchar) (I created my table using SQLite Manager). 2-) What is text type in SQLite Manager? Is that NSString? Also how can I put the string values(in table) to an NSMutableArray ? (I am really having difficulty in conversion.) *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** +[NSString stringWithUTF8String:]: NULL cString'

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  • C# WPF XAML DataTable binding to relationship

    - by LnDCobra
    I have the following tables: Company {CompanyID, CompanyName} Deal {CompanyID, Value} And I have a listbox: <ListBox Name="Deals" Height="100" Width="420" Margin="0,20,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Visibility="Visible" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" SelectionChanged="Deals_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK.CompanyName}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text=" -> TGS -> " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding BuyFrom}" FontWeight="Bold" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> As you can see, I want to display the CompanyName rather then the ID which is a foreign Key. The relation "companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK" exists, as in Deals_SelectionChanged I can access companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK property of the Deals row, and I also can access the CompanyName propert of that row. Is the reason why this is not working because XAML binding uses the [] indexer? Rather than properties on the CompanyRows in my DataTable? At the moment im getting values such as - TGS - 3 - TGS - 4 What would be the best way to accomplish this? Make a converter to convert foreign keys using Table being referenced as custom parameter. Create Table View for each table? This would be long winded as I have quite a large number of tables that have foreign keys.

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  • How to handle ViewModel and Database in C#/WPF/MVVM App

    - by Mike B
    I have a task management program with a "Urgency" field. Valid values are Int16 currently mapped to 1 (High), 2 (Medium), 3 (Low), 4 (None) and 99 (Closed). The urgency field is used to rank tasks as well as alter the look of the items in the list and detail view. When a user is editing or adding a new task they select or view the urgency in a ComboBox. A Converter passes Strings to replace the Ints. The urgency collection is so simple I did not make it a table in the database, instead it is a, ObservableCollection(Int16) that is populated by a method. Since the same screen may be used to view a closed task the "Closed" urgency must be in the ItemsSource but I do not want the user to be able to select it. In order to prevent the user from being able to select that item in the ComboBox but still be able to see it if the item in the database has that value should I... Manually disable the item in the ComboBox in code or Xaml (I doubt it) Change the Urgency collection from an Int16 to an Object with a Selectable Property that the isEnabled property of the ComboBoxItem Binds to. Do as in 2 but also separate the urgency information into its own table in the database with a foreign key in the Tasks table None of the above (I suspect this is the correct answer) I ask this because this is a learning project (My first real WPF and first ever MVVM project). I know there is rarely one Right way to do something but I want to make sure I am learning in a reasonable manner since it if far harder to Unlearn bad habits Thanks Mike

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  • ASP.net access controls dynamically

    - by c11ada
    hey all, i have a table which looks similar to this <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell>Question 1</asp:TableCell><asp:TableCell ID ="Question1Text"></asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell ColumnSpan="2"> <asp:RadioButtonList ID="RadioButtonList1" runat="server"><asp:ListItem>Yes</asp:ListItem><asp:ListItem>No</asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> </asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server"></asp:TextBox></asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell>Question 2</asp:TableCell><asp:TableCell ID ="Question2Text"></asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell ColumnSpan="2"> <asp:RadioButtonList ID="RadioButtonList2" runat="server"><asp:ListItem>Yes</asp:ListItem><asp:ListItem>No</asp:ListItem> </asp:RadioButtonList> </asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> <asp:TableRow><asp:TableCell> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox2" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server"></asp:TextBox></asp:TableCell></asp:TableRow> i want to be able to systematically acces table cells with ID's for example for (int i = 1; i<3 ; i++) { // i want to be able to access the table cell with the ID Question1Text then Question2Text and so on } is this even possible ??

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  • Export to Excel from ASP.NET produces files unreadable with Excel Viewer

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I want to output some dynamic data from an ASP.NET website to Excel. I found that the easiest way which does not require to use Excel XML or to install Excel on server machine is to output data as a table and specify application/vnd.ms-excel type. The problem is when I do so and try to open the file in Excel Viewer, I receive the following error message: Microsoft Excel Viewer cannot open files of this type. Then nothing is opened. Even an easiest code such as: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Response.Clear(); Response.Buffer = true; HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=Example.xls"); Response.ContentType = "application/vnd.ms-excel"; StringWriter stringWriter = new System.IO.StringWriter(); HtmlTextWriter htmlTextWriter = new System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter(stringWriter); dataGrid.RenderControl(htmlTextWriter); Response.Write("<html><body><table><tr><td>A</td><td>B</td></tr><tr><td>C</td><td>D</td></tr></table></body></html>"); Response.End(); } produces the same error. What can cause such behavior? Is it because the Viewer cannot read such files, but full Excel version can?

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  • UIViewerTableViewController.m:15: error: expected identifier before '*' token

    - by Aaron Levin
    I am new to objective-c programming. I come from a C# background. I am having problems with the following code I am writing for a proof of concept for an iPhone App: I am getting a number of compile errors but I think they are all due to the first error (could be wrong) - error: expected identifier before '*' token (@synthesize *lists; in the .m file) I'm not sure why my code is showing up the way it is in the view below the editor..hmm any way, any help would be appreciated. .m file // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import "UIViewerTableViewController.h" @implementation UIViewerTableViewController @synthesize *lists; @synthesize *icon; (void)dealloc { [Lists release]; [super dealloc]; } pragma mark Table View Methods //Customize number of rows in table view (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *) tableView numberOfRowsInSection: (NSInteger) section{ return self.Lists.Count; } //Customize the appearence of table view cells (UITableViewCell *) tableView(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *) indexPath{ static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableView *Cell = [tablevView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if(cell == nil){ cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } cell.textLabel.text = [[self.Lists objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] retain]; cell.imageView = self.Icon; cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; } @end .h file // // UIMyCardsTableViewController.h // MCS ProtoType v0.1 // // Created by Aaron Levin on 4/19/10. // Copyright 2010 RonStan. All rights reserved. // import @interface UIViewerTableViewController : UITableViewController { NSArray *lists; UIImage *icon; } @property (nonatomic,retain) NSArray *lists; @property (nonatomic,retain) UIImage *icon; @end

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  • delphi Ado (mdb) update records

    - by ml
    I´m trying to copy data from one master table and 2 more child tables when i select one record in the master table i copy all the fields from that table for the other (table1 copy from ADOQuery the selected record) procedure TForm1.copyButton7Click(Sender: TObject); SQL.Clear; SQL.Add('SELECT * from ADOQuery'); SQL.Add('Where numeracao LIKE ''%'+NInterv.text);// locate record selected in Table1 NInterv.text) Open; // initiate copy of records begin while not tableADoquery.Eof do begin Table1.Last; Table1.Append;// how to append if necessary! Table1.Edit; Table1.FieldByName('C').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('C').Value; Table1.FieldByName('client').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('client').Value; Table1.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value := ADoquery.FieldByName('Cnpj_cpf').Value; table1.Post; table2.next;/// end; end; //How can i update the TableChield, TableChield1 field´s at the same time? do the same for the child tables TableChield <= TableChield_1 TableChield1 <= TableChield_2 thanks

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  • JPA Lookup Hierarchy Mapping

    - by Andy Trujillo
    Given a lookup table: | ID | TYPE | CODE | DESCRIPTION | | 1 | ORDER_STATUS | PENDING | PENDING DISPOSITION | | 2 | ORDER_STATUS | OPEN | AWAITING DISPOSITION | | 3 | OTHER_STATUS | OPEN | USED BY OTHER ENTITY | If I have an entity: @MappedSuperclass @Table(name="LOOKUP") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public abstract class Lookup { @Id @Column(name="ID") int id; @Column(name="TYPE") String type; @Column(name="CODE") String code; @Column(name="DESC") String description; ... } Then a subclass: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("ORDER_STATUS") public class OrderStatus extends Lookup { } The expectation is to map it: @Entity @Table(name="ORDERS") public class OrderVO { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="STATUS", referencedColumnName="CODE") OrderStatus status; ... } So that the CODE is stored in the database. I expected that if I wrote: OrderVO o = entityManager.find(OrderVO.class, 123); the SQL generated using OpenJPA would look something like: SELECT t0.id, ..., t1.CODE, t1.TYPE, t1.DESC FROM ORDERS t0 LEFT OUTER JOIN LOOKUP t1 ON t0.STATUS = t1.CODE AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' WHERE t0.ID = ? But the actual SQL that gets generated is missing the AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' This causes a problem when the CODE is not unique. Is there a way to have the discriminator included on joins or am I doing something wrong here?

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  • UITableViewCellSeparatorStyleNone does not hide blue separator line when selecting in UITableView

    - by clozach
    Before describing the problem, let me first point out that this is a distinct issue from this question. The Problem This screenshot was taken with a break set at tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath:, and as you can see in the simulator (far right of the image), there's a single-pixel blue line at the bottom of the selected cell. This is not the design asked for by the client, nor is it how this app used to behave: there should be no separator, even on selection. How I Got Here I'd initially designed this table view using custom UITableViewCell classes with corresponding nib (.xib) files and had no trouble with selections: the separator was hidden as desired. Predictably, scrolling was sluggish due to all the overhead from the view hierarchy, so I reworked the custom cells to use Loren Brichter's fast scrolling solution. Now scrolling is much faster, but I can't get rid of the separator for the life of me. What I've tried At the time of the screenshot above... the table view has "Separator [None]" in IB. the UIViewController that contains the table view has this line in viewDid Load: self.tableView.separatorStyle = UITableViewCellSeparatorStyleNone; As you can see in the screenshot, I inserted some unused lines to prove that separatorStyle is set as desired. Other testing confirms that tableView and self.tableView are equivalent pointers at that same breakpoint. I've also tried setting tableView.separatorColor to black and to clear, all with the same result: the cells look right until a selection is made.

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  • SQL Quey slow in .NET application but instantaneous in SQL Server Management Studio

    - by user203882
    Here is the SQL SELECT tal.TrustAccountValue FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = 70402 AND ta.TrustAccountID = 117249 AND tal.trustaccountlogid = ( SELECT MAX (tal.trustaccountlogid) FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = 70402 AND ta.TrustAccountID = 117249 AND tal.TrustAccountLogDate < '3/1/2010 12:00:00 AM' ) Basicaly there is a Users table a TrustAccount table and a TrustAccountLog table. Users: Contains users and their details TrustAccount: A User can have multiple TrustAccounts. TrustAccountLog: Contains an audit of all TrustAccount "movements". A TrustAccount is associated with multiple TrustAccountLog entries. Now this query executes in milliseconds inside SQL Server Management Studio, but for some strange reason it takes forever in my C# app and even timesout (120s) sometimes. Here is the code in a nutshell. It gets called multiple times in a loop and the statement gets prepared. cmd.CommandTimeout = Configuration.DBTimeout; cmd.CommandText = "SELECT tal.TrustAccountValue FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = @UserID1 AND ta.TrustAccountID = @TrustAccountID1 AND tal.trustaccountlogid = (SELECT MAX (tal.trustaccountlogid) FROM TrustAccountLog AS tal INNER JOIN TrustAccount ta ON ta.TrustAccountID = tal.TrustAccountID INNER JOIN Users usr ON usr.UserID = ta.UserID WHERE usr.UserID = @UserID2 AND ta.TrustAccountID = @TrustAccountID2 AND tal.TrustAccountLogDate < @TrustAccountLogDate2 ))"; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountID1", SqlDbType.Int).Value = trustAccountId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@UserID1", SqlDbType.Int).Value = userId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountID2", SqlDbType.Int).Value = trustAccountId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@UserID2", SqlDbType.Int).Value = userId; cmd.Parameters.Add("@TrustAccountLogDate2", SqlDbType.DateTime).Value =TrustAccountLogDate; // And then... reader = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (reader.Read()) { double value = (double)reader.GetValue(0); if (System.Double.IsNaN(value)) return 0; else return value; } else return 0;

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  • How to mass insert/update in linq to sql?

    - by chobo2
    Hi How can I do these 2 scenarios. Currently I am doing something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record // save record ( dbcontext.submitChanges() } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) // dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } So now I am trying to load an XML file what has tons of records. First I validate the records one at a time. I then want to insert them into the database but instead of doing submitChanges() after each record I want to do a mass submit at the end. So I have something like this public class Repository { private LinqtoSqlContext dbcontext = new LinqtoSqlContext(); public void Update() { // find record // update record } public void Insert() { // make a database table object ( ie ProductTable t = new ProductTable() { productname ="something"} // insert record ( dbcontext.ProductTable.insertOnSubmit()) } public void SaveToDb() { dbcontext.submitChanges(); } } Then in my service layer I would do like for(int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { validate(); if(valid == true) { update(); insert() } } SaveToDb(); So pretend my for loop is has a count for all the record found in the xml file. I first validate it. If valid then I have to update a table before I insert the record. I then insert the record. After that I want to save everything in one go. I am not sure if I can do a mass save when updating of if that has to be after every time or what. But I thought it would work for sure for the insert one. Nothing seems to crash and I am not sure how to check if the records are being added to the dbcontext.

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  • Mysql SELECT FOR UPDATE - strange issue

    - by Michal Fronczyk
    Hi, I have a strange issue (at least for me :)) with the MySQL's locking facility. I have a table: Create Table: CREATE TABLE test ( id int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) ENGINE=InnoDB AUTO_INCREMENT=13 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 With this data: +----+ | id | +----+ | 3 | | 4 | | 5 | | 6 | | 7 | | 8 | | 10 | | 11 | | 12 | +----+ Now I have 2 clients with these commands executed at the beginning: set autocommit=0; set session transaction isolation level serializable; begin; Now the most interesting part. The first client executes this query: (makes an intent to insert a row with id equal to 9) SELECT * from test where id = 9 FOR UPDATE; Empty set (0.00 sec) Then the second client does the same: SELECT * from test where id = 9 FOR UPDATE; Empty set (0.00 sec) My question is: Why the second client does not block ? An exclusive gap lock should have been set by the first query because FOR UPDATE have been used and the second client should block. If I am wrong, could somebody tell me how to do it correctly ? The MySql version I use is: 5.1.37-1ubuntu5.1 Thanks, Michal

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  • LINQ-to-SQL: Could not find key member 'x' of key 'x' on type 'y'

    - by Austin Hyde
    I am trying to connect my application to a SQLite database with LINQ-to-SQL, and so far everything has worked fine. The only hitch was that the SQLite provider I am using does not support code generation (unless I was doing something wrong), so I manually coded the 4 tables in the DB. The solution builds properly, but will not run, giving me the error message Could not find key member 'ItemType_Id' of key 'ItemType_Id' on type 'Item'. The key may be wrong or the field or property on 'Item' has changed names. I have checked and double checked spellings and field names on the database and in the attribute mappings, but could not find any problems. The SQL for the table looks like this: CREATE TABLE [Items] ( [Id] integer PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT NOT NULL, [Name] text NOT NULL, [ItemType_Id] integer NOT NULL ); And my mapping code: [Table(Name="Items")] class Item { // [snip] [Column(Name = "Id", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int Id { get; set; } // [snip] [Column(Name="ItemType_Id")] public int ItemTypeId { get; set; } [Association(Storage = "_itemType", ThisKey = "ItemType_Id")] public ItemType ItemType { get { return _itemType.Entity; } set { _itemType.Entity = value; } } private EntityRef<ItemType> _itemType; // [snip] } This is really my first excursion into LINQ-to-SQL, and am learning as I go, but I cannot seem to get past this seeming simple problem. Why cannot LINQ see my association?

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  • C# WPF XAML binding to DataTable

    - by LnDCobra
    I have the following tables: Company {CompanyID, CompanyName} Deal {CompanyID, Value} And I have a listbox: <ListBox Name="Deals" Height="100" Width="420" Margin="0,20,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Visibility="Visible" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" SelectionChanged="Deals_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK.CompanyName}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text=" -> TGS -> " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding BuyFrom}" FontWeight="Bold" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> As you can see, I want to display the CompanyName rather then the ID which is a foreign Key. The relation "companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK" exists, as in Deals_SelectionChanged I can access companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK property of the Deals row, and I also can access the CompanyName propert of that row. Is the reason why this is not working because XAML binding uses the [] indexer? Rather than properties on the CompanyRows in my DataTable? At the moment im getting values such as - TGS - 3 - TGS - 4 What would be the best way to accomplish this? Make a converter to convert foreign keys using Table being referenced as custom parameter. Create Table View for each table? This would be long winded as I have quite a large number of tables that have foreign keys.

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  • Database with "Open Schema" - Good or Bad Idea?

    - by Claudiu
    The co-founder of Reddit gave a presentation on issues they had while scaling to millions of users. A summary is available here. What surprised me is point 3: Instead, they keep a Thing Table and a Data Table. Everything in Reddit is a Thing: users, links, comments, subreddits, awards, etc. Things keep common attribute like up/down votes, a type, and creation date. The Data table has three columns: thing id, key, value. There’s a row for every attribute. There’s a row for title, url, author, spam votes, etc. When they add new features they didn’t have to worry about the database anymore. They didn’t have to add new tables for new things or worry about upgrades. This seems like a terrible idea to me, but it seems to have worked out for Reddit. Is it a good idea in general, though? Or is it a peculiarity of Reddit that happened to work out for them?

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