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  • Creation of model in core data on the fly

    - by user1740045
    How can we create a model in core data on the fly? I.e getting the schema of database from somewhere and then creating a Core Data Object graph? *QuesTion:* Yes thats fine, agreed with all the advantages. But, can anybody can tell practically, what is the benefit of integrating Core Data into project instead of using SQL directly. 1.No need to write SQL boiler plate code [but need to learn Core Data Model (steep curve)] 2.WE can undo and redo changes [but practically who needs it] 3.we can migrate to another schema [that can be done by SQLite as well jus need to add another field into table] 4.For say aggregation on some field in table,in Core Data we need to loop through Core Data Objects whereas in SQLite we need to first write SQLite Boiler Plate Code and then the basic aggregation SQL query,which is easy to write,only length of code will increase...But in case of Core Data (need to learn a lot). So apart from reducing the length of Code,does it actually adds value to project? or in terms of Memory Efficiency,Performance,etc.. PS: If anybody has actualy worked on Core Data(Model Creation On the Fly) , if possible share and gve pointers..thanks!

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  • javascript prototype problem

    - by Chris Tosswill
    So I have a rather basic javascript problem which I have been slamming my head into a wall over for awhile: <div class='alist'> <ul> <li class='group_1'> An Item </li> <li class='group_1'> An Item </li> <li class='group_2'> An Item </li> </ul> </div> <div class='alist'> <ul> <li class='group_1'> An Item </li> <li class='group_1'> An Item </li> <li class='group_2'> An Item </li> </ul> </div> <script> function toggle_item( num ){ $$( 'li.group_' + num ).invoke('toggle'); } </script> Basically, I need to create a sweeper that sets the div to display:none if all the li are display:none. I think it would start like: function sweep(){ $$('div.alist').each( function( s ) { ar = s.down().children }); } Any suggestions for good tutorials would be welcome as well

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  • Turn based synchronization between threads

    - by Amarus
    I'm trying to find a way to synchronize multiple threads having the following conditions: * There are two types of threads: 1. A single "cyclic" thread executing an infinite loop to do cyclic calculations 2. Multiple short-lived threads not started by the main thread * The cyclic thread has a sleep duration between each cycle/loop iteration * The other threads are allowed execute during the inter-cycle sleep of the cyclic thread: - Any other thread that attempts to execute during an active cycle should be blocked - The cyclic thread will wait until all other threads that are already executing to be finished Here's a basic example of what I was thinking of doing: // Somewhere in the code: ManualResetEvent manualResetEvent = new ManualResetEvent(true); // Allow Externally call CountdownEvent countdownEvent = new CountdownEvent(1); // Can't AddCount a CountdownEvent with CurrentCount = 0 void ExternallyCalled() { manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); // Wait until CyclicCalculations is having its beauty sleep countdownEvent.AddCount(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that it should wait for this method call to finish before starting the next cycle Thread.Sleep(1000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic countdownEvent.Signal(); // Notify CyclicCalculations that this call is finished } void CyclicCalculations() { while (!stopCyclicCalculations) { manualResetEvent.Reset(); // Block all incoming calls to ExternallyCalled from this point forward countdownEvent.Signal(); // Dirty workaround for the issue with AddCount and CurrentCount = 0 countdownEvent.Wait(); // Wait until all of the already executing calls to ExternallyCalled are finished countdownEvent.Reset(); // Reset the CountdownEvent for next cycle. Thread.Sleep(2000); // TODO: Replace with actual method logic manualResetEvent.Set(); // Unblock all threads executing ExternallyCalled Thread.Sleep(1000); // Inter-cycles delay } } Obviously, this doesn't work. There's no guarantee that there won't be any threads executing ExternallyCalled that are in between manualResetEvent.WaitOne(); and countdownEvent.AddCount(); at the time the main thread gets released by the CountdownEvent. I can't figure out a simple way of doing what I'm after, and almost everything that I've found after a lengthy search is related to producer/consumer synchronization which I can't apply here.

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  • Is inheritance bad nowadays?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

    - by Gilly
    Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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  • Hide div based on url

    - by Ghetto Styles
    Sorry if this is another repost. I have been attempting to find a solution but nothing works that I have tried. I am using a blog which I have full html control over. I can usually find my way around basic html but when it comes to Java or CSS I am a complete newb. Sorry, I know absolutely nothing. Now that that is out of the way. I have two sidebar div's that I am trying to hide on one specific url to utilize more space for a content iframe. This is one of the coded I have tried to use which doesn't seem to work or I am missing something. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script language="text/javascript" <?php &#36;(function(){ if (window.location.search === "mywebsite/Videos.html") { &#36;('#navleft').hide(); } else { &#36;('#navleft').show(); } }); ?> </script> Please remember I do not know anything when it comes to php or java. I want to do this for both #navright and #navleft. Also this is in the CSS section. Thanks for any help!! #navright{ width: 200px; } #navleft{ width: 200px; } #content{ margin:0px; }

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  • Remove in between folder structure from the url in a php website

    - by pabz
    I have a php website having following folder structure (basic structure). project_name app controller model view css js img index.php So when I view index.php in WAMP the url is http://localhost/project_name/ But when I go inside the site (eg. login.php which resides under view folder) url is like this. http://localhost/project_name/app/view/login.php I found that using .htaccess we can change the urls. So I tried this (in .htaccess). RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / Redirect 301 /project_name/app/view/login.php /project_name/login.php RewriteRule ^/project_name/login.php$ /project_name/app/view/login.php [L] Now url is http://localhost/project_name/login.php It is correct. But it seems php does not use the original link to grab the file (ie. from /project_name/app/view/login.php) but from here /project_name/login.php So it throws 404 error. What should I change? Please help me, i am just trying to hide /app/view/ part from the url so that user won't see my folder structure. I have read about various ways of doing that for about 9hrs today but still couldn't get anything working correctly. Hope my question is clear enough. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Suitable web framework for the following scenario

    - by Paralife
    I have the following scenario: I have a view in an Oracle server and all Iwant is to show that view in a web browser, along with an input field or two for basic filtering. No users, no authentication, just this view maybe with a column or two linking to a second page for master detail viewing. The children are just string descriptions of the columns of the master that contain IDs. No inserts or updates. The question is which is the JAVA based web framework of choice that can accomplish the above in the minimum amount of code lines code time(subjective but also kind of objective if someone has expirience with more than one or two frameworks) configuration effort deployment effort and requirements. dependencies and mem footprint Also: 6. Oracle APEX is not an option. 3,4 and 5 are maybe the same in the sense that they are everything except the functionality coding. I want something that I can compile, deploy by just FTPing to the database host, run and forget. (e.g. For the deployment aspect, Hudson way comes in mind (java -jar hudson.war and that's all)). Also: 3,4 have priority over 1 and 2. (Explanation with a rant: I dont mind coding a lot as long as it is application code and not "why the fuck do we still use javascript over http for everything" code) Thanks.

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  • When calling a static method on parent class, can the parent class deduce the type on the child (C#)

    - by Matt
    Suppose we have 2 classes, Child, and the class from which it inherits, Parent. class Parent { public static void MyFunction(){} } class Child : Parent { } Is it possible to determine in the parent class how the method was called? Because we can call it two ways: Parent.MyFunction(); Child.MyFunction(); My current approach was trying to use: MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().ReflectedType; // and MethodInfo.GetCurrentMethod().DeclaringType; But both appear to return the Parent type. If you are wondering what, exactly I am trying to accomplish (and why I am violating the basic OOP rule that the parent shouldn't have to know anything about the child), the short of it is this (let me know if you want the long version): I have a Model structure representing some of our data that persists to the database. All of these models inherit from an abstract Parent. This parent implements a couple of events, such as SaveEvent, DeleteEvent, etc. We want to be able to subscribe to events specific to the type. So, even though the event is in the parent, I want to be able to do: Child.SaveEvent += new EventHandler((sender, args) => {}); I have everything in place, where the event is actually backed by a dictionary of event handlers, hashed by type. The last thing I need to get working is correctly detecting the Child type, when doing Child.SaveEvent. I know I can implement the event in each child class (even forcing it through use of abstract), but it would be nice to keep it all in the parent, which is the class actually firing the events (since it implements the common save/delete/change functionality).

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  • What makes my code DDD (domain-driven design) qualified?

    - by oykuo
    Hi All, I'm new to DDD and am thinking about using this design technique in my project. However, what strikes me about DDD is that how basic the idea is. Unlike other design techniques such as MVC and TDD, it doesn't seems to contain any ground breaking ideas. For example, I'm sure some of you will have the same feeling that the idea of root aggregates and repositories are nothing new because when you are was writing MVC web applications you have to have one single master object (i.e. the root aggregate) that contain other minor objects (i.e. value objects and entities) in the model layer in order to send data to a strongly typed view. To me, the only new idea in DDD is probably the "Smart" entities (i.e. you are supposed to have business rules on root aggregates) Separation between value object, root aggregate and entities. Can anyone tell me if I have missed out anything here? If that's all there is to DDD, if I update one of my existing MVC application with the above 2 new ideas, can I claim it's an TDD, MVC and DDD applcation?

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  • Python & Pygame: Updating all elements in a list under a loop during iteration

    - by Unit978
    i am working on a program in Python and using Pygame. this is what the basic code looks like: while 1: screen.blit(background, (0,0)) for event in pygame.event.get(): if event.type == QUIT: pygame.quit() sys.exit() if event.type == KEYDOWN and event.key == K_c: circle_create = True circle_list.append(Circle()) if event.type == MOUSEBUTTONDOWN and circle_create == True: if clicks == 0: circle_list[i].center() clicks += 1 if event.type == MOUSEMOTION and clicks == 1 and circle_create == True: circle_list[i].stretch() these if statements are under the while loop not the for loop since they dont require input from the user if circle_create == True: circle_list[i].draw_circle() if clicks == 2: clicks = 0 i += 1 circle_create = False pygame.display.update() what i want to do is have the object's function of draw_circle() to be constantly updated by the loop so that the drawn circle is shown for all objects in the list, but since the list is iterated it updates the new object added and the objects already appended are not updated. The program, works, it draws the circles upon user input but the update problem is the only issue i need to solve. Is there any possible way to have all elements in the list of objects being updated by the while loop? i have tried for many days and i have not been able to find a good solution. any ideas are appreciated. Thanks

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  • Trying to move files with specific file names from root directory to a subfolder

    - by Justin Reagan
    Hi I'm still pretty new to powershell so I apologize if I ask something that extremely basic. I have a root directory on a tftp server that pulls down config files from routers and other equipment every night. The files are like this IPaddress_YYYYMMDD_TA5000. There is a limitation in the equipment where the files can't be set to move into the root directory on their own. What I want to do is make a powershell script that will only move the files with the TA5000 part in the filename to the sub directory and only keep the 5 most recent files. I looked but I couldn't seem to find what I would need to do to parse the file for that specific string. I already have the portion of the script to delete the files based on age that was simple. Any help on getting started would be appreciated. Edit: I forgot to post the code I was trying. Move-Item c:\tftptransferfiles c:\tftptransferfiles\sca | Where-Object {_.name -like "*TA5000*"} I keep getting a error saying that the item at C:\tftptransferfiles is in use.

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  • Overlay an image over video using OpenGL ES shaders

    - by BlueVoodoo
    I am trying to understand the basic concepts of OpenGL. A week into it, I am still far from there. Once I am in glsl, I know what to do but I find getting there is the tricky bit. I am currently able to pass in video pixels which I manipulate and present. I have then been trying to add still image as an overlay. This is where I get lost. My end goal is to end up in the same fragment shader with pixel data from both my video and my still image. I imagine this means I need two textures and pass on two pixel buffers. I am currently passing the video pixels like this: glGenTextures(1, &textures[0]); //target, texture glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, textures[0]); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MIN_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_MAG_FILTER, GL_LINEAR); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_S, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexParameteri(GL_TEXTURE_2D, GL_TEXTURE_WRAP_T, GL_CLAMP_TO_EDGE); glTexImage2D(GL_TEXTURE_2D, 0, GL_RGBA, width, height, 0, GL_BGRA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); Would I then repeat this process on textures[1] with the second buffer from the image? If so, do I then bind both GL_TEXTURE0 and GL_TEXTURE1? ...and would my shader look something like this? uniform sampler2D videoData; uniform sampler2D imageData; once I am in the shader? It seems no matter what combination I try, image and video always ends up being just video data in both these. Sorry for the many questions merged in here, just want to clear my many assumptions and move on. To clarify the question a bit, what do I need to do to add pixels from a still image in the process described? ("easy to understand" sample code or any types of hints would be appreciated).

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  • PHP Error Form - Leave Contents of Form on Redirect

    - by user1371500
    I have a simple login form in which if an error occurs such as wrong password, I need it to be able to remember the username which was entered. Would I Go about doing this PHP or Javascript as I am not allowed to use JQuery. My current PHP - (Not Including the HTML Form) <?php //MySQl Connection mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "") or die(mysql_error()); mysql_select_db("clubresults") or die(mysql_error()); //Initiates New Session - Cookie session_start(); // Start a new session // Get the data passed from the form $username = $_POST['username']; $password = md5($_POST['pass']); // Do some basic sanitizing $username = mysql_real_escape_string($username); $password = mysql_real_escape_string($password); //Performs SQL Query to retrieve Login Details from DB $sql = "select * from admin_passwords where username = '$username' and password = '$password'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die ( mysql_error() ); //Assigns a Variable Count to 0 $count = 0; //Exectues a loop to increment on Successful Login while ($line = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $count++; } //If count is equal to 1 Redirect user to the Members Page and Set Cookie if ($count == 1) { $_SESSION['loggedIn'] = "true"; header("Location: members.php"); // This is wherever you want to redirect the user to } else { //Else Echo that login was a failure. die('Login Failed. <a href=login.php>Click Here to Try Again</a>'); } ?> Any help would be appreciated. Cheers

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  • How can I define an irregular area of the screen and find the closest point to the mouse in that area?

    - by JonathonG
    I'm looking for a method to define an area of the screen that the mouse cannot leave. I have been directed by rob mayoff, the answerer of this question, that I can use a Quartz Event Tap to detect mouse events. This puts me part of the way to the solution to THIS question. I need to define an irregular area of the screen, not just a rectangle, that the mouse cannot leave. I have been researching this and the only idea I can come up with is using a bitmap to define the irregular area, as it will be very oddly shaped. However, I am open to solutions other than using a bitmap. Since this must be done on a Mac, I've determined that I will have to use objective C / Cocoa . I need to know how to define the area and, equally importantly, how to find the closest point in the area to the mouse (so that I can move the mouse to it if the mouse tries to move outside of the area). This is similar to what the restricted area will look like: [edit:] Okay, I've come up with part of the answer to this. If I can do a basic (light-weight) point collision detection on the image mask, I can use a simple algorithm to detect the closest point to the mouse on the black area of the image. I could do this by calculating distance between a pre-defined point (P) inside the black area of the image and the target mouse position (T), taking the midpoint (M), then checking if the midpoint is inside or outside of the shape (black or white, respectively). If M is inside the shape, then move the P to M, otherwise move T to the M, continuously recalculate this until the distance between T and P is 1 pixel or less, then move the mouse to the final calculated position. All of that being said, I still need some way to test the position of the mouse against that same position on the bitmap (assume the bitmap is the same resolution as the monitor), and check if that point is black or white. All of this needs to be done in the background, without this application actually having focus, or the bitmap being visible... is this possible?

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  • Java: How do I implement a method that takes 2 arrays and returns 2 arrays?

    - by HansDampf
    Okay, here is what I want to do: I want to implement a crossover method for arrays. It is supposed to take 2 arrays of same size and return two new arrays that are a kind of mix of the two input arrays. as in [a,a,a,a] [b,b,b,b] ------ [a,a,b,b] [b,b,a,a]. Now I wonder what would be the suggested way to do that in Java, since I cannot return more than one value. My ideas are: - returning a Collection(or array) containing both new arrays. I dont really like that one because it think would result in a harder to understand code. - avoiding the need to return two results by calling the method for each case but only getting one of the results each time. I dont like that one either, because there would be no natural order about which solution should be returned. This would need to be specified, though resulting in harder to understand code. Plus, this will work only for this basic case, but I will want to shuffle the array before the crossover and reverse that afterwards. I cannot do the shuffling isolated from the crossover since I wont want to actually do the operation, instead I want to use the information about the permutation while doing the crossover, which will be a more efficient way I think.

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  • Javascript get image height works in all browsers but firefox...please help?

    - by Calvin
    So I am fairly new to Javascript (a lot of experience in PHP), but I have this basic script that checks a link that redirects to a URL to see what the image height is. If it is a certain height then it adds one to a variable, otherwise nothing. I would easily do this in PHP but the images are on other servers and not my own so it doesn't work. Anyways, ehre is the script. Let me know if you have any tips. Works well and tested in Chrome, Safari, Opera, and IE. <script language='JavaScript'> window.onload = function() { var nstar = 0, urls = []; urls[0] = "http://optout.imiclk.com/cgi/nai_status.cgi?nocache="; urls[1] = "http://www.adbrite.com/mb/nai_optout_check.php?nocache="; urls[2] = "http://events.adchemy.com/visitor/auuid/nai-status?nocache="; function getImgSize(imgSrc){ var newImg = new Image(); newImg.src = imgSrc; return{height:newImg.height, width:newImg.width} } for(i=0,length=urls.length;i<length;i++){ if(getImgSize(urls[i]).height==43){nstar++;} } document.getElementById('tracknum').innerHTML = "<b>" + nstar + "</b>"; } </script>

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  • Trying to instantiate a class member in C++ with a variable name

    - by MarcZero
    Hello. I am writing a program for class that is asking us to create a class of "book". We are then supposed to create new instantiations of that class upon demand from the user. I am new to C++ so I am attempting to code this out but am running into a problem. The main problem is how do I instantiate a class with a variable if I don't know how many I will have to do ahead of time. The user could ask to add 1 book or 1000. I am looking at this basic code: This is the simple code I started with. I wanted to have an index int keep a number and have the book class I create be called by that int (0, 1, 2, etc...) So I attempted to convert the incoming index int into a string, but I'm kind of stuck from here. void addBook(int index){ string bookName; std::stringstream ss; ss << index; book bookName; cout << "Enter the Books Title: "; cin >> bookName.title; } But obviously this doesn't work as "bookName" is a string to the computer and not the class member I tried to create. All of the tutorials I have seen online and in my text show the classes being instantiated with names in the code, but I just don't know how to make it variable so I can create any amount of "books" that the user might want. Any insight on this would be appreciated. Thank you for your time.

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  • Writing own Unix shell in C - Problems with PATH and execv

    - by user1287523
    I'm writing my own shell in C. It needs to be able to display the users current directory, execute commands based on the full path (must use execv), and allow the user to change the directory with cd. This IS homework. The teacher only gave us a basic primer on C and a very brief skeleton on how the program should work. Since I'm not one to give up easily I've been researching how to do this for three days, but now I'm stumped. This is what I have so far: Displays the user's username, computername, and current directory (defaults to home directory). Prompts the user for input, and gets the input Splits the user's input by " " into an array of arguments Splits the environment variable PATH by ":" into an array of tokens I'm not sure how to proceed from here. I know I've got to use the execv command but in my research on google I haven't really found an example I understand. For instance, if the command is bin/ls, how does execv know the display all files/folders from the home directory? How do I tell the system I changed the directory? I've been using this site a lot which has been helpful: http://linuxgazette.net/111/ramankutty.html but again, I'm stumped. Thanks for your help. Let me know if I should post some of my existing code, I'm wasn't sure if it was necessary though.

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  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

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  • how to organize classes in ruby if they are literal subclasses

    - by RetroNoodle
    I know that title didn't make sense, Im sorry! Its hard to word what I am trying to ask. I had trouble googling it for the same reason. So this isn't even Ruby specific, but I am working in ruby and I am new to it, so bear with me. So you have a class that is a document. Inside each document, you have sentences, and each sentence has words. Words will have properties, like "noun" or a count of how many times they are used in the document, etc. I would like each of the elements, document, sentence, word be an object. Now, if you think literally - sentences are in documents, and words are in sentences. Should this be organized literally like this as well? Like inside the document class you will define and instantiate the sentence objects, and inside the sentence class you will define and instantiate the words? Or, should everything be separate and reference each other? Like the word class would sit outside the sentence class but the sentence class would be able to instantiate and work with words? This is a basic OOP question I guess, and I suppose you could argue to do it either way. What do you guys think? Each sentence in the document could be stored in a hash of sentence objects inside the document object, and each word in the sentence could be stored in a hash of word objects inside the sentence. I dont want to code myself into a corner here, thats why I am asking, plus I have wondered this before in other situations. Thank you!

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  • Testing variable types in Python

    - by Jasper
    Hello, I'm creating an initialising function for the class 'Room', and found that the program wouldn't accept the tests I was doing on the input variables. Why is this? def __init__(self, code, name, type, size, description, objects, exits): self.code = code self.name = name self.type = type self.size = size self.description = description self.objects = objects self.exits = exits #Check for input errors: if type(self.code) != type(str()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 110' elif type(self.name) != type(str()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 111' elif type(self.type) != type(str()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 112' elif type(self.size) != type(int()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 113' elif type(self.description) != type(str()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 114' elif type(self.objects) != type(list()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 115' elif type(self.exits) != type(tuple()): print 'Error found in module rooms.py!' print 'Error number: 116' When I run this I get this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "/Users/Jasper/Development/Programming/MyProjects/Game Making Challenge/Europa I/rooms.py", line 148, in <module> myRoom = Room(101, 'myRoom', 'Basic Room', 5, '<insert description>', myObjects, myExits) File "/Users/Jasper/Development/Programming/MyProjects/Game Making Challenge/Europa I/rooms.py", line 29, in __init__ if type(self.code) != type(str()): TypeError: 'str' object is not callable

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  • How do you send an extended-ascii AT-command (CCh) from Android bluetooth to a serial device?

    - by softex
    This one really has me banging my head. I'm sending alphanumeric data from an Android app, through the BluetoothChatService, to a serial bluetooth adaptor connected to the serial input of a radio transceiver. Everything works fine except when I try to configure the radio on-the-fly with its AT-commands. The AT+++ (enter command mode) is received OK, but the problem comes with the extended-ascii characters in the next two commands: Changing the radio destination address (which is what I'm trying to do) requires CCh 10h (plus 3 hex radio address bytes), and exiting the command mode requires CCh ATO. I know the radio can be configured OK because I've done it on an earlier prototype with the serial commands from PIC basic, and it also can be configured by entering the commands directly from hyperterm. Both these methods somehow convert that pesky CCh into a form the radio understands. I've have tried just about everything an Android noob could possibly come up with to finagle the encoding such as: private void command_address() { byte[] addrArray = {(byte) 0xCC, 16, 36, 65, 21, 13}; CharSequence addrvalues = EncodingUtils.getString(addrArray, "UTF-8"); sendMessage((String) addrvalues); } but no matter what, I can't seem to get that high-order byte (CCh/204/-52) to behave as it should. All other (< 127) bytes, command or data, transmit with no problem. Any help here would be greatly appreciated. -Dave

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  • jquery displaying table rows dynamically in dom belonging to one/more particular class

    - by whatf
    I have the basic html structure: <table> <tbody> <tr class="1"> <td> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> This is the first object </span> </p> </td> </tr> <tr class="2"> <td> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> This is second object </span> </p> </td> </tr> <tr class="3"> <p style="font-size:large"> <span class="muted"> this is the third object </span> </p> </td> </tr> </tbody> </table> and then I have check boxes, the functionality i want is, if checkbox 1 is checked, only the tr with class 1 be displayed. if checkbox 2 and 3 are clicked, the tr with class 1 gets hidden and 2, 3 show in the dom. again if checkbox 2,*3* are unchecked and 1 is checked tr with class 2, 3 do not show and 1 is showed. How can this be done in jQuery?

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  • when i set property(retain), one "self" = one "retain"?

    - by Walter
    although I'm about to finish my first app, I'm still confused about the very basic memory management..I've read through many posts here and apple document, but I'm still puzzled.. For example..I'm currently doing things like this to add a label programmatically: @property (retain, nonatomic) UILabel *showTime; @sythesize showTime; showTime = [[UILabel alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(45, 4, 200, 36)]; [self.showTime setText:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", time]]; [self.showTime setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"HelveticaRoundedLT-Bold" size:23]]; [self.showTime setTextColor:numColor]; self.showTime.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self addSubview:self.showTime]; [showTime release]; this is my current practice, for UILabel, UIButton, UIImageView, etc... [Alloc init] it without self., coz I know this will retain twice.. but after the allocation, I put back the "self." to set the attributes.. My gut feel tells me I am doing wrong, but it works superficially and I found no memory leak in analyze and instruments.. can anyone give my advice? when I use "self." to set text and set background color, does it retain one automatically? THX so much!

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