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  • Are TestContext.Properties usable ?

    - by DBJDBJ
    Using Visual Studio generate Test Unit class. Then comment in, the class initialization method. Inside it add your property, using the testContext argument. Upon test app startup this method is indeed called by the testing infrastructure. //Use ClassInitialize to run code before running the first test in the class [ClassInitialize()] public static void MyClassInitialize(TestContext testContext) { /* * Any user defined testContext.Properties * added here will be erased after this method exits */ testContext.Properties.Add("key", 1 ) ; // place the break point here } After leaving MyClassInitialize, any properties added by user are lost. Only the 10 "official" ones are left. Actually TestContext gets overwritten, with the inital offical one, each time before each test method is called. It it not overwritten only if user has test initialization method, the changes made over there are passed to the test. //Use TestInitialize to run code before running each test [TestInitialize()]public void MyTestInitialize(){ this.TestContext.Properties.Add("this is preserved",1) ; } This effectively means TestContext.Properties is "mostly" read only, for users. Which is not clearly documented in MSDN. It seems to me this is very messy design+implementation. Why having TestContext.Properties as an collection, at all ? Users can do many other solutions to have class wide initialization. Please discuss. --DBJ

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  • Javascript not reading value from hidden textBox - JQuery C#

    - by Paul van Valkenburgh
    I'm a non-specialist with JavaScript / JQuery and I'm having trouble figuring out why my script doesn't work. When my C# page loads, I have a hidden textBox txtHiddenKeywordArray which gets dynamically filled with comma separated values like... horse, buggy, track I'm trying to use the highlight functionality in jquery.highlight-3.js where I have a label text field that will contain and highlight the words in the keywords list. I'm using the script <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var myString = document.getElementById('<%=txtHiddenKeywordArray.ClientID%>').val() myArray = myString.split(" "); $(document).ready(function () { for (i = 0; i < myArray.length; i++) $("p").highlight(myArray[i]) }); </script> Here is the textBox declaration : <asp:TextBox ID="txtHiddenKeywordArray" ClientIDMode="Static" runat="server" Visible="false"></asp:TextBox> It worked great when I hard coded the values of var myString. I've tried researching it and keep seeing the same example of the way I have it done. The page does use a MasterPage. Could this affect it? Any idea how I can get the script to see the values from the textbox? Do I need a RegisterStartUpScript or something? Thanks for any help you can provide.

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • jQuery code works for console but not in-page.

    - by justSteve
    I have a form element defined as: <div class="field"> <div class="name"> <label for="User_LastName"> Last name: <span class="asterisk">*</span></label> </div> <div class="value"> <%= Html.TextBox("User.LastName", Model.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("User.LastName")%> </div> </div> and a jQuery selector that is supposed to detect when the input gets focus and highlight the parent: $("input").focus(function() { //watching for an event where an input form comes into focus $(this) .parent() .addClass("curFocus") .children("div") .toggle(); }); If i paste this code into firebug's console - things work as planned. However, i'm running this from a 'RenderPartial' .net mvc page. Other jQuery code sitting within the same $(document).ready(function() { block work correctly. The form uses html helpers to generate the inputs which might complicate the process somewhat - but even so... i'm seeing correct behavior when that code's in console but not in a 'real-time' page. How do i troubleshoot this?

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • JAR files, don't they just bloat and slow Java down?

    - by Josamoto
    Okay, the question might seem dumb, but I'm asking it anyways. After struggling for hours to get a Spring + BlazeDS project up and running, I discovered that I was having problems with my project as a result of not including the right dependencies for Spring etc. There were .jars missing from my WEB-INF/lib folder, yes, silly me. After a while, I managed to get all the .jar files where they belong, and it comes at a whopping 12.5MB at that, and there's more than 30 of them! Which concerns me, but it probably and hopefully shouldn't be concerned. How does Java operate in terms of these JAR files, they do take up quite a bit of hard drive space, taking into account that it's compressed and compiled source code. So that can really quickly populate a lot of RAM and in an instant. My questions are: Does Java load an entire .jar file into memory when say for instance a class in that .jar is instantiated? What about stuff that's in the .jar that never gets used. Do .jars get cached somehow, for optimized application performance? When a single .jar is loaded, I understand that the thing sits in memory and is available across multiple HTTP requests (i.e. for the lifetime of the server instance running), unlike PHP where objects are created on the fly with each request, is this assumption correct? When using Spring, I'm thinking, I had to include all those fiddly .jars, wouldn't I just be better off just using native Java, with say at least and ORM solution like Hibernate? So far, Spring just took extra time configuring, extra hard drive space, extra memory, cpu consumption, so I'm concerned that the framework is going to cost too much application performance just to get for example, IoC implemented with my BlazeDS server. There still has to come ORM, a unit testing framework and bits and pieces here and there. It's just so easy to bloat up a project quickly and irresponsibly easily. Where do I draw the line?

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  • C++ BigInt multiplication conceptual problem

    - by Kapo
    I'm building a small BigInt library in C++ for use in my programming language. The structure is like the following: short digits[ 1000 ]; int len; I have a function that converts a string into a bigint by splitting it up into single chars and putting them into digits. The numbers in digits are all reversed, so the number 123 would look like the following: digits[0]=3 digits[1]=3 digits[2]=1 I have already managed to code the adding function, which works perfectly. It works somewhat like this: overflow = 0 for i ++ until length of both numbers exceeded: add numberA[ i ] to numberB[ i ] add overflow to the result set overflow to 0 if the result is bigger than 10: substract 10 from the result overflow = 1 put the result into numberReturn[ i ] (Overflow is in this case what happens when I add 1 to 9: Substract 10 from 10, add 1 to overflow, overflow gets added to the next digit) So think of how two numbers are stored, like those: 0 | 1 | 2 --------- A 2 - - B 0 0 1 The above represents the digits of the bigints 2 (A) and 100 (B). - means uninitialized digits, they aren't accessed. So adding the above number works fine: start at 0, add 2 + 0, go to 1, add 0, go to 2, add 1 But: When I want to do multiplication with the above structure, my program ends up doing the following: Start at 0, multiply 2 with 0 (eek), go to 1, ... So it is obvious that, for multiplication, I have to get an order like this: 0 | 1 | 2 --------- A - - 2 B 0 0 1 Then, everything would be clear: Start at 0, multiply 0 with 0, go to 1, multiply 0 with 0, go to 2, multiply 1 with 2 How can I manage to get digits into the correct form for multiplication? I don't want to do any array moving/flipping - I need performance!

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  • In AS3/Flex, how can I get from flat data to hierarchical data?

    - by Dave S
    I have some data that gets pulled out of a database and mapped to an arraycollection. This data has a field called parentid, and I would like to map the data into a new arraycollection with hierarchical information to then feed to an advanced data grid. I think I'm basically trying to take the parent object, add a new property/field/variable of type ArrayCollection called children and then remove the child object from the original list and clone it into the children array? Any help would be greatly appreciated, and I apologize ahead of time for this code: private function PutChildrenWithParents(accountData : ArrayCollection) : ArrayCollection{ var pos_inner:int = 0; var pos_outer:int = 0; while(pos_outer < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_outer].ParentId != null){ pos_inner = 0; while(pos_inner < accountData.length){ if (accountData[pos_inner].Id == accountData[pos_outer].ParentId){ accountData.addItemAt( accountData[pos_inner] + {children:new ArrayCollection(accountData[pos_outer])}, pos_inner ); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_outer); accountData.removeItemAt(pos_inner+1); } pos_inner++; } } pos_outer++; } return accountData; }

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  • WCF data services - Limiting related objects returned based on critera

    - by Mike Morley
    I have an object graph consisting of a base employee object, and a set of related message objects. I am able to return the employee objects based on search criteria on the employee properties (eg team) etc. However, if I expand on the messages, I get the full collection of messages back. I would like to be able to either take the top n messages (i.e. restrict to 10 most recent) or ideally use a date range on the message objects to limit how many are brought back. So far I have not been able to figure out a way of doing this: I get an error if I attempt to filter on properties on the message (&$filter=employee/message/StartDate gives an error "No property 'StartDate' exists in type 'System.Data.Objects.DataClasses.EntityCollection`1). Attempting to use Top on the message related object doesn't work either. I have also tried using a WebGet extension that takes a string list of employee IDs. That works until the list gets too long, and then fails due to the URL getting too long (it might be possible to setup a paging mechanism on this approach)... Unfortunately the UI control I am using requires the data to be in a fairly specific hierarchical shape, so I can't easily come at this from starting on the message side and working backwards. Outside of making multiple calls does anyone know of a method to accomplish this with wcf data services? Thanks! M.

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  • Problem with making a simple JS XmlHttpRequest call

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I have to create a very simple client that makes GET and POST calls to our server and parses the returned XML. I am writing this in JavaScript, problem is I don't know how to program in JS (started to look into this just this morning)! As n initial test, I am trying to ping to the Twitter API, here's the function that gets called when user enters the URL http://api.twitter.com/1/users/lookup.xml and hits the submit button: function doRequest() { var req_url, req_type, body; req_url = document.getElementById('server_url').value; req_type = document.getElementById('request_type').value; alert("Connecting to url: " + req_url + " with HTTP method: " + req_type); req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.open(req_type, req_url, false, "username", "passwd");// synchronous conn req.onreadystatechange=function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { alert(req.status); } } req.send(null); } When I run this on FF, I get a Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012 error on Firebug. Stuff I googled suggested that this was a FF-specific problem so I switched to Chrome. Over there, the second alert comes up, but displays 0 as HTTP status code, which I found weird. Can anyone spot what the problem is? People say this stuff is easier to use with JQuery but learning that on top of JS syntax is a bit too much now.

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  • How do I save the edits for a checkbox that implements an email notification?

    - by Ralph The Mouf
    On my site, a user gets email notifications when someone comments on their profile, or comments on their blog etc...I have made a email settings page that has checkboxes to allow the user to decide to receive emails or not. This is what I am wrapping around the email notification code chunck for the pages that have the php mail: <?php if(isset($_POST['email_toggle']) && $_POST['email_toggle'] == 'true') { if(isset($_POST['commentProfileSubmit']) && $auth) { $query etc $to = etc } } My question is what do I put on the email settings script that has the actual check boxes to make them stay checked or unchecked once you submit your settings? Another words what do I put in the if(isset portion to implement the changes? if(isset($_POST['email_toggle']) && $_POST['email_toggle'] == 'true') { /* what do I put here? */ header("Location: Profile.php?id=" . $auth->id); mysql_query($query,$connection); /* input/check boxes and submit button */ <tr> <td class="email_check"> <input type="checkbox" name="email_toggle" value="true" checked="checked" /> Receive email Notifications When Someone Answers A Question You've Answered </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input style="margin:10px 0px 0px 10px;" class="submit" type="submit" name="email_toggle" value="Save Settings" /> </td> </tr> }

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  • Silverlight 4, Google Chrome, and HttpWebRequest problem

    - by synergetic
    My Silvrlight 4 application hosted in ASP.NET MVC 2 working fine when used through Internet Explorer 8, both in development server and remote web server (IIS 6.0). However when I try to browse through Google Chrome (version 5.0.375.70) it throws "remote server returned not found" error. The code causing the problem is the following: public class MyWebClient { private HttpWebRequest _request; private Uri _uri; private AsyncOperation _asyncOp; public MyWebClient(Uri uri) { _uri = uri; } public void Start(XElement data) { _asyncOp = AsyncOperationManager.CreateOperation(null); _data = data; _request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(_uri); _request.Method = "POST"; _request.BeginGetRequestStream(new AsyncCallback(BeginRequest), null); } private void BeginRequest(IAsyncResult result) { Stream stream = _request.EndGetRequestStream(result); using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(stream)) { writer.Write(((XElement)_data).ToString()); } stream.Close(); _request.BeginGetResponse(new AsyncCallback(BeginResponse), null); } private void BeginResponse(IAsyncResult result) { HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)_request.EndGetResponse(result); if (response != null) { //process returned data ... } } ... } In short, the above code sends some XML data to web server (to ASP.NET MVC controller) and gets back a processed data. It works when I use Internet Explorer 8. Can someone please explain what is the problem with Google Chrome?

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  • Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

    - by Polity
    I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$eq(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to teach myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

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  • EventAggregator, is it thread-safe?

    - by pfaz
    Is this thread-safe? The EventAggregator in Prism is a very simple class with only one method. I was surprised when I noticed that there was no lock around the null check and creation of a new type to add to the private _events collection. If two threads called GetEvent simultaneously for the same type (before it exists in _events) it looks like this would result in two entries in the collection. /// <summary> /// Gets the single instance of the event managed by this EventAggregator. Multiple calls to this method with the same <typeparamref name="TEventType"/> returns the same event instance. /// </summary> /// <typeparam name="TEventType">The type of event to get. This must inherit from <see cref="EventBase"/>.</typeparam> /// <returns>A singleton instance of an event object of type <typeparamref name="TEventType"/>.</returns> public TEventType GetEvent<TEventType>() where TEventType : EventBase { TEventType eventInstance = _events.FirstOrDefault(evt => evt.GetType() == typeof(TEventType)) as TEventType; if (eventInstance == null) { eventInstance = Activator.CreateInstance<TEventType>(); _events.Add(eventInstance); } return eventInstance; }

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  • Portable Eclipse

    - by Jeach
    I'm trying to port my entire 'workspace' to a USB key (including the Eclipse executable) so that I can carry my work anywhere with me and work off the key directly. My directory hierarchy is similar to this: /workspace/eclipse - Where my current eclipse binary is stored /workspace/codebase - Where I keep the root of all my eclipse projects /workspace/resources - Where I keep all project files (images, docs, libs, etc.) It all works perfectly fine on one system. But when I change over to another system, the USB key gets mounted on another drive. For example, on my laptop, I get 'E:\', on my PC, I get 'K:\' and at work I get 'F:\', etc, etc. This means that because Eclipse (for 'some' reason) seems to only use full path names (including driver letters) in every single one of its configuration files (such as .classpath), nothing ever works when I want to work on another system. I put a 'libs' directory in the base of every project and populate it with its dependent JAR files. Why doesn't it use relative names instead, so that I could specify something like "../../libs/log4j.jar"? Anyone know how to fix this problem? Does anyone know of a workaround for this? For some reason, I really doubt I'm the first developer to do this! Thanks for your help and any suggestions.

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  • ASP.Net MVC: Change Routes dynamically

    - by Frank
    Hi, usually, when I look at a ASP.Net MVC application, the Route table gets configured at startup and is not touched ever after. I have a couple of questions on that but they are closely related to each other: Is it possible to change the route table at runtime? How would/should I avoid threading issues? Is there maybe a better way to provide a dynamic URL? I know that IDs etc. can appear in the URL but can't see how this could be applicable in what I want to achieve. How can I avoid that, even though I have the default controller/action route defined, that default route doesn't work for a specific combination, e.g. the "Post" action on the "Comments" controller is not available through the default route? Background: Comment Spammers usually grab the posting URL from the website and then don't bother to go through the website anymore to do their automated spamming. If I regularly modify my post URL to some random one, spammers would have to go back to the site and find the correct post URL to try spamming. If that URL changes constantly I'd think that that could make the spammers' work more tedious, which should usually mean that they give up on the affected URL.

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  • Better way of coding this if statment?

    - by HadlowJ
    Hi. I have another question for you very helpful people. I use a lot of if statements many of which are just repeated and im sure could be shortened. This is my current bit of code if (Globals.TotalStands <= 1) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo2.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand2.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf2.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 2) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo3.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand3.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf3.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 3) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo4.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand4.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf4.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 4) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo5.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand5.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf5.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 5) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo6.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand6.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf6.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 6) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo7.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand7.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf7.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 7) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo8.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand8.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf8.Visible = false; } as you can see there is a huge amount of code to do something simple (which i do on a few other forms as well and im sure there must be a better way of coding this that gets the same result? Im a code noob so please be gentle, code is c# and software is visual studio 2008 pro. Thanks

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  • How do i find if an object is before or after a waypoint?

    - by BoMann Andersen
    Im working on a racing game for a school project. Using Visual studio 10 pro, and Irrlicht. Sorry for bad grammar ., and its my first question so not sure if its done right. How i want it to work is that i make waypoints at different points on the track, and then i run my waypoint check to see if a car is past its next waypoint (the next it "needs" to go past), if yes then it updates the next waypoint, else nothing. The way i hope this will work is, i make a vector from n to n+1, then find the vector that is perpendicular to the first vector at n. Then i see if the object is in front or behind that vector. I found a Gamedev.net forumpost that helped me make this function: void Engine::checkWaypoint(Vehicle* vehicle) { btVector3 vector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]; // n btVector3 nextVector = waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint + 1]; // n+1 vector = nextVector - vector; // First vector btVector3 pos = btVector3(vehicle->position.X,vehicle->position.Y,vehicle->position.Z); float product = vector.dot(pos - waypoints[vehicle->nextWaypoint]); // positiv = before, negative = behind if(product < 0) vehicle->nextWaypoint += 1; } Current bugs with this is: Updates the nextwaypoint more then ones without going past a new point. When it gets to the end and resets, it stops triggering on the first waypoints. So my questions: Is this an good way to do this? Did i do it right?

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  • How to post only a specific ASCX partial instead of the whole page

    - by Hallaghan
    I've got an ASPX page rendering a search ascx page which in turn will fill a grid on the main ASPX page. Aside that, I've also got an ascx page which uploads files, like this: <form method="post" action="<%= Url.Action("UploadFile") %>" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <fieldset> <input type="file" name="file" id="file" /> <%=Html.ButtonSubmit("Upload") %> </fieldset></form> Here's the problem: imagine I have searched for a single entry to be displayed on the grid. The grid displays this single entry and after wards, I upload a file and press the button "Upload". The whole page gets posted and the content in the grid is lost, now displaying all the results available. What could I do to prevent this from happening, maintaining the grid state (we're not using ViewState) or otherwise not posting back the whole page but only the ascx with the file upload? Note: I'm new to MVC.

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  • JQuery: Combine multiple pages into one

    - by k_wave
    I am developing an application by using phonegap and jQuery Mobile. Phonegap recommends a single document structure. As 5 divs or more in a document are pretty unclear, I'm trying to split up my pages (the div's) into multiple documents. As soon as phonegap loads the app, I want to insert these documents into the index.html. function loadPage(external_document) { var docname=external_document+".html"; $.get(docname, function(data) { console.log(docname+" loading"); $("body").append($(data).find("body")); $("head").append($(data).find("head")); console.log(docname+" loaded"); }); } document.addEventListener("deviceready", function(){ loadPage("DialogCredentials"); }, false); DialogCredentials.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/DialogCredentials.js"></script> </head> <body> <div data-role="page" id="dlg_credentials"> <div data-role="header"><h1>Login</h1></div> <div data-role="content"> ... </div> </div><!-- /page --> </body> </html> As soon as the loadPage gets executed there should be a <div id="dlg_credentials"… and the corresponding javascript tag in the dom of my main document. But it isn't. There are no errors shown in the web inspector. So what am I doing wrong here?

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  • Regularly update database without browser/user

    - by Chris M
    I currently have a MySQL database which I was hoping to use to store regularly updated data from a temperature sensor connected to the internet. I currently have a page that, when opened, will grab the current temperature and the current timestamp and add it as an entry to the database, but I was looking for a way to do that without me refreshing the page every 5 seconds. Detail: The data comes from an Arduino Ethernet, posted to an IP address. Currently, I'm using cURL to grab the data from the IP, add a timestamp and save it to the DB. Obviously only updates when the page is refreshed (it uses PHP). Here is a live feed of the data - http://wetdreams.org.uk/ChrisProject/UI/live_graph_two.html TL;DR - Basically I need a middle man to grab the data from the IP and post it to a MySQL Edit: Thanks for all the advice. There might be a little bit of confusion, I'm looking for a solution that (ideally) doesn't require a computer to be on at all (other than the Server containing Database). Since I'm looking to store data over long periods of time (weeks), I'd like to set it up and leave a script running on the server (or Arduino) that gets the temp and posts it to the Database. In my head I would like to have a page on the server that automatically (without any browser open, or any other prompting other than a timer) calls a PHP script. Hope that clears things up!

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  • Can a Snapshot transaction fail and only partially commit in a TransactionScope?

    - by Travis Brooks
    Greetings I stumbled onto a problem today that seems sort of impossible to me, but its happening...I'm calling some database code in c# that looks something like this: using(var tran = MyDataLayer.Transaction()) { MyDataLayer.ExecSproc(new SprocTheFirst(arg1, arg2)); MyDataLayer.CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql(arg1, argEtc); tran.Commit(); } I've simplified this a bit for posting, but whats going on is MyDataLayer.Transaction() makes a TransactionScope with the IsolationLevel set to Snapshot and TransactionScopeOption set to Required. This code gets called hundreds of times a day, and almost always works perfectly. However after reviewing some data I discovered there are a handful of records created by "SprocTheFirst" but no corresponding data from "CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql". The only way that records should exist in the tables I'm looking at is from SprocTheFirst, and its only ever called in this one function, so if its called and succeeded then I would expect CallSomethingThatEventuallyDoesLinqToSql would get called and succeed because its all in the same TransactionScope. Its theoretically possible that some other dev mucked around in the DB, but I don't think they have. We also log all exceptions, and I can find nothing unusual happening around the time that the records from SprocTheFirst were created. So, is it possible that a transaction, or more properly a declarative TransactionScope, with Snapshot isolation level can fail somehow and only partially commit?

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  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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