Search Results

Search found 12211 results on 489 pages for 'industry standard'.

Page 390/489 | < Previous Page | 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397  | Next Page >

  • Formatting and pretty printing dates with jquery

    - by Tauren
    I need to display dates in a couple different ways in an app built with jquery. In some situations, I need the typical "yyyy-mm-dd hh:mma" type of formatting, with all of it's different permutations. In other cases, I need to show dates "pretty printed" similar to how StackOverflow does them: 5 seconds ago 12 minutes ago 3 hours ago yesterday 2 days ago My application already uses JQuery UI DatePicker which includes a formatDate() function, but as far as I can tell, there is no way to use it outside of the datepicker. I want to format dates that aren't associated with a datepicker. Is it possible to do this using DatePicker? The DateJS library can parse dates like "12 minutes ago", but as far as I can tell, it cannot take a Date object and format strings like this. It can format the typical "yyyy-mm-dd" types of formats. This library seems pretty heavy as well. John Resig's Pretty Dates looks like it can provide the pretty printing ("2 hours ago"), but it doesn't do the standard formatting. Is there not a single plugin that can do all of this? Is there a way to leverage the DatePicker code so I don't have to load multiple codebases that do the same things?

    Read the article

  • When is LINQ (to objects) Overused?

    - by Mystagogue
    My career started as a hard-core functional-paradigm developer (LISP), and now I'm a hard-care .net/C# developer. Of course I'm enamored with LINQ. However, I also believe in (1) using the right tool for the job and (2) preserving the KISS principle: of the 60+ engineers I work with, perhaps only 20% have hours of LINQ / functional paradigm experience, and 5% have 6 to 12 months of such experience. In short, I feel compelled to stay away from LINQ unless I'm hampered in achieving a goal without it (wherein replacing 3 lines of O-O code with one line of LINQ is not a "goal"). But now one of the engineers, having 12 months LINQ / functional-paradigm experience, is using LINQ to objects, or at least lambda expressions anyway, in every conceivable location in production code. My various appeals to the KISS principle have not yielded any results. Therefore... What published studies can I next appeal to? What "coding standard" guideline have others concocted with some success? Are there published LINQ performance issues I could point out? In short, I'm trying to achieve my first goal - KISS - by indirect persuasion. Of course this problem could be extended to countless other areas (such as overuse of extension methods). Perhaps there is an "uber" guide, highly regarded (e.g. published studies, etc), that takes a broader swing at this. Anything?

    Read the article

  • Installing SQLServer 2005 on Windows 7 64bit

    - by Mostafa
    Hi , It's 3 days I'm trying to install SqlServer 2005 under Windows 7 64 bit on my machine . First let me tell you what I've done and what I've got till now . 1-I Installed Windows 7 64 Bit on my computer 2-I tried to install SQl Server 2005 "Developer Edition" 2.1 But in "System Configuration Check" Page i recieved 2 warning , One for "IIS Feature Requirement" and another for "ASP.NET Version Registration Rquired" . 2.1.1 . I installed "Internet Information Services" from "Turn Windows features on or off" section in control panel 2.1.2 I Enabled reporting service 32 bit from "Inetpub= AdminScripts = adsutil.vbs 2.2 At this stage There was no waring in System Configuration Check 3- So I installed SQl Server 2005 Developer Edition By all default settings 4- I installed Sql Server 2005 Service Pack 3 64 bit Now when when i run "Management Studio" There is no name in "Server name" section . I typed my Computer name Or "." and i got this Error : A network -related instance-specific error occurred while establishinga connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (Provider: Named Pipes Provider , error :40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server ) ( Microsoft SQL Server , Error :2) . I googled some for this Error and some people said follow this instruction: Startsql server 2005Configuration toolsSql Server Surface Configuration AreaSurface Area Configuration for services and Connections But i got this Error : No SQl SErver 2005 Components were found on the specified computer . Either no components are installed , or you are not a administrator on this computer (SQLSAC) I'm really tired because of that , and i don't know what's wrong with this . Some more information : I have no additonal software on my computer , like Antivirus or Proxy I tried all step with "Standard Edition" either , but no difference My user is Administrator I tried more than 5 times all those steps including re-installing Windows 7 . Please help me , I'm losing all my hair

    Read the article

  • Help with SQL server stack dump

    - by edosoft
    Hi guru's We're running SQL 2005 standard SP2 on a 4cpu box. Suddenly it crashdumps, after which all pooled connections are invalid and it goes into admin-only mode (only sa can connect) The short stackdump is below. After the dump a number of errors show up like '2008-09-16 10:49:34.48 Server Resource Monitor (0xec4) Worker 0x03D1C0E8 appears to be non-yielding on Node 0. Memory freed: 232408 KB. Approx CPU Used: kernel 203 ms, user 140 ms, Interval: 250250.' Have Googled around but couldn't find a definate answer. Anyone? 2008-09-16 10:46:24.98 Server Using 'dbghelp.dll' version '4.0.5' 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server **Dump thread - spid = 0, PSS = 0x00000000, EC = 0x00000000 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server ***Stack Dump being sent to C:\Program Files\Microsoft SQL Server\MSSQL.1\MSSQL\LOG\SQLDump0009.txt 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * ******************************************************************************* 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * BEGIN STACK DUMP: 2008-09-16 10:46:25.40 Server * 09/16/08 10:46:25 spid 0 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * Non-yielding Resource Monitor 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * ******************************************************************************* 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 2008-09-16 10:46:25.42 Server * Short Stack Dump 2008-09-16 10:46:25.76 Server Stack Signature for the dump is 0x00000352 2008-09-16 10:46:32.70 Server External dump process return code 0x20000001.

    Read the article

  • Search SharePoint ULS Logs with Windows

    - by djeeg
    Hi, I have a standard/new Windows 2008 R2 install with SharePoint 2010 and am looking for a SharePoint expectation that occurred sometime during the last week. So I open windows explorer, then go to the logs directory (C:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Extensions\14\LOGS). In the toolbar I can enter some search text (exception) or i can Ctrl-F which puts my cursor in the same search box. First it searches the filenames, comes back with no results, and then i click File Contents. And it comes back with still no results. Now I think, maybe there are no errors, so i search for something that I know is in the log (w3wp), still no results. In previous versions of windows, i could usually fix this by making *.log files read as text. But apparently (http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc725753(WS.10).aspx) *.log files should already be read as text. Any idea how to make the search, really search log files. I would prefer a solution that did not involve installing any 3rd party software (eg like ULSViewer), but registry/powershell settings are okay.

    Read the article

  • Using Hibernate's ScrollableResults to slowly read 90 million records

    - by at
    I simply need to read each row in a table in my MySQL database using Hibernate and write a file based on it. But there are 90 million rows and they are pretty big. So it seemed like the following would be appropriate: ScrollableResults results = session.createQuery("SELECT person FROM Person person") .setReadOnly(true).setCacheable(false).scroll(ScrollMode.FORWARD_ONLY); while (results.next()) storeInFile(results.get()[0]); The problem is the above will try and load all 90 million rows into RAM before moving on to the while loop... and that will kill my memory with OutOfMemoryError: Java heap space exceptions :(. So I guess ScrollableResults isn't what I was looking for? What is the proper way to handle this? I don't mind if this while loop takes days (well I'd love it to not). I guess the only other way to handle this is to use setFirstResult and setMaxResults to iterate through the results and just use regular Hibernate results instead of ScrollableResults. That feels like it will be inefficient though and will start taking a ridiculously long time when I'm calling setFirstResult on the 89 millionth row... UPDATE: setFirstResult/setMaxResults doesn't work, it turns out to take an unusably long time to get to the offsets like I feared. There must be a solution here! Isn't this a pretty standard procedure?? I'm willing to forgo Hibernate and use JDBC or whatever it takes. UPDATE 2: the solution I've come up with which works ok, not great, is basically of the form: select * from person where id > <offset> and <other_conditions> limit 1 Since I have other conditions, even all in an index, it's still not as fast as I'd like it to be... so still open for other suggestions..

    Read the article

  • How to produce an HTTP 403-equivalent WCF Message from an IErrorHandler?

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I want to write an IErrorHandler implementation that will handle AuthenticationException instances (a proprietary type), and then in the implementation of ProvideFault provide a traditional Http Response with a status code of 403 as the fault message. So far I have my first best guess wired into a service, but WCF appears to be ignoring the output message completely, even though the error handler is being called. At the moment, the code looks like this: public class AuthWeb403ErrorHandler : IErrorHandler { #region IErrorHandler Members public bool HandleError(Exception error) { return error is AuthenticationException; } public void ProvideFault(Exception error, MessageVersion version, ref Message fault) { //first attempt - just a stab in the dark, really HttpResponseMessageProperty property = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); property.SuppressEntityBody = true; property.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.Forbidden; property.StatusDescription = "Forbidden"; var m = Message.CreateMessage(version, null); m.Properties[HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name] = property; fault = m; } #endregion } With this in place, I just get the standard WCF html 'The server encountered an error processing the request. See server logs for more details.' - which is what would happen if there was no IErrorHandler. Is this a feature of the behaviours added by WebServiceHost? Or is it because the message I'm building is simply wrong!? I can verify that the event log is indeed not receiving anything. My current test environment is a WebGet method (both XML and Json) hosted in a service that is created with the WebServiceHostFactory, and Asp.Net compatibility switched off. The service method simply throws the exception in question.

    Read the article

  • Navigating between pages in a Facebook Platform iframe application

    - by Jimmy Cuadra
    I'm working on a Facebook Platform application that runs in iframe mode, and I'm having trouble understanding how to navigate between pages within the app. Let's say the first page that is loaded within the iframe at my canvas URL is one.html. Within that page, there is a link to two.html that just changes the source of the iframe and doesn't reload the Facebook chrome. When I do this, all the Facebook fb_sig_* query string parameters that Facebook passes to the original page aren't included, and so two.html has no awareness of the connection to Facebook and no ability to make API calls to generate the content for the page. One possible solution would be to manually extract all the Facebook parameters from one.html and append it to the link to two.html myself. This seems really ugly and I figured there had to be a cleaner way. For reference, my application is written in Perl and uses the WWW::Facebook::API module as a client library. I didn't see anything in it that I can use to easily reconstruct the Facebook parameters for use with links in iframe apps. Another possible solution would be to store all the Facebook parameters in a session on my server on the first page load, and just use the values in that session on subsequent page views. But what happens if the data I've stored no longer matches what Facebook would have sent if it were a completely new request (i.e. something in the user's Facebook session changed)? Is there something obvious I'm missing? What is the standard approach to navigating between pages within an iframe app? Facebook's documentation is atrocious and I haven't been able to find anything that clearly explains how this works. I also realize this wouldn't be an issue with an app using FBML instead of an iframe, but my understanding is that iframe apps are now encouraged over FBML apps, though again this seems ambiguous since so much of Facebook's documentation is outdated and contradictory.

    Read the article

  • finding "line-breaks" in textarea that is word-wrapping ARABIC text

    - by Irfan jamal
    I have a string of text that I display in a textarea (right-to-left orientation). The user can resize the textarea dynamically (I use jquery for this) and the text will wrap as necessary. When the user hits submit, I will take that text and create an image using PHP, BUT before submitting I would like to know where the "line-breaks" or rather "word-wraps" occur. Everywhere I have looked so far only shows me how to process line-breaks on the php side. I want to make it clear that there ARE NO LINE-BREAKS. What I have is one LONG string that will be word-wrapped in different ways based on the width of the textarea set by the user. I can't use "columns" or any other standard width representation because I have a very complex arabic font that is actually composed of glyphs (characters) of numerous different widths. If anyone knows of a way of accessing where the word wraps occur (either in a textarea or a div if need-be), I'd really like to know. My only other solution is to actually store (in my DB) the width of every single character (somewhat tedious since there are over 200 characters in 600 different fonts, for a total of...some huge number). My hopes aren't high, but I thought I would ask. Thanks i. jamal

    Read the article

  • How to debug UrlRewriter.NET?

    - by vfilby
    I have looked at their help page it seems like I can register a debug logger that outputs information to the 'standard ASP.NET debug window'. My problem is I don't know what that means, if it means the debug output window in Visual Studio (where you see build output, debug output and more) I am not seeing any UrlRewriter debug output. The rules are working (mostly) I just want to get more debug output to fix issues. I added the register call to the rewriter section like this: <rewriter> <register logger="Intelligencia.UrlRewriter.Logging.DebugLogger, Intelligencia.UrlRewriter" /> .... </rewriter> I am hosting this website locally in IIS on Vista, to debug it I attach the debugger to the w3wp process. Other selected parts from the web.config" <compilation debug="true"> <assemblies> ... </assemblies> </compilation> <trace enabled="true"/> Where should I see the debug output from UrlRewriter.NET? If it is in the Visual Studio debug output window, any ideas why I am not seeing it there?

    Read the article

  • Why is TransactionScope operation is not valid?

    - by Cragly
    I have a routine which uses a recursive loop to insert items into a SQL Server 2005 database The first call which initiates the loop is enclosed within a transaction using TransactionScope. When I first call ProcessItem the myItem data gets inserted into the database as expected. However when ProcessItem is called from either ProcessItemLinks or ProcessItemComments I get the following error. “The operation is not valid for the state of the transaction” I am running this in debug with VS 2008 on Windows 7 and have the MSDTC running to enable distributed transactions. The code below isn’t my production code but is set out exactly the same. The AddItemToDatabase is a method on a class I cannot modify and uses a standard ExecuteNonQuery() which creates a connection then closes and disposes once completed. I have looked at other posting on here and the internet and still cannot resolve this issue. Any help would be much appreciated. using (TransactionScope processItem = new TransactionScope()) { foreach (Item myItem in itemsList) { ProcessItem(myItem); } processItem.Complete(); } private void ProcessItem(Item myItem) { AddItemToDatabase(myItem); ProcessItemLinks(myItem); ProcessItemComments(myItem); } private void ProcessItemLinks(Item myItem) { foreach (Item link in myItem.Links) { ProcessItem(link); } } private void ProcessItemComments(Item myItem) { foreach (Item comment in myItem.Comments) { ProcessItem(comment); } } Here is top part of the stack trace. Unfortunatly I cant show the build up to this point as its company sensative information which I can not disclose. Hope this is enough information. at System.Transactions.TransactionState.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(InternalTransaction tx, IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification, Transaction atomicTransaction) at System.Transactions.Transaction.EnlistPromotableSinglePhase(IPromotableSinglePhaseNotification promotableSinglePhaseNotification) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.EnlistNonNull(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.Enlist(Transaction tx) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.Activate(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionInternal.ActivateConnection(Transaction transaction) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open()

    Read the article

  • Android: ListActivity design - changing the content of the List Adapter

    - by Rob
    Hi, I would like to write a rather simple content application which displays a list of textual items (along with a small pic). I have a standard menu in which each menu item represents a different category of textual items (news, sports, leisure etc.). Pressing a menu item will display a list of textual items of this category. Now, having a separate ListActivity for each category seems like an overkill (or does it?..) Naturally, it makes much more sense to use one ListActivity and replace the data of its adapter when each category is loaded. My concern is when "back" is pressed. The adapter is loaded with items of the current category and now I need to display list of the previous category (and enable clicking on list items too...). Since I have only one activity - I thought of backup and load mechanism in onPause() and onResume() functions as well as making some distinction whether these function are invoked as a result of a "new" event (menu item selected) or by a "back" press. This seems very cumbersome for such a trivial usage... Am I missing something here? Thanks, Rob

    Read the article

  • Calculating Nearest Match to Mean/Stddev Pair With LibSVM

    - by Chris S
    I'm new to SVMs, and I'm trying to use the Python interface to libsvm to classify a sample containing a mean and stddev. However, I'm getting nonsensical results. Is this task inappropriate for SVMs or is there an error in my use of libsvm? Below is the simple Python script I'm using to test: #!/usr/bin/env python # Simple classifier test. # Adapted from the svm_test.py file included in the standard libsvm distribution. from collections import defaultdict from svm import * # Define our sparse data formatted training and testing sets. labels = [1,2,3,4] train = [ # key: 0=mean, 1=stddev {0:2.5,1:3.5}, {0:5,1:1.2}, {0:7,1:3.3}, {0:10.3,1:0.3}, ] problem = svm_problem(labels, train) test = [ ({0:3, 1:3.11},1), ({0:7.3,1:3.1},3), ({0:7,1:3.3},3), ({0:9.8,1:0.5},4), ] # Test classifiers. kernels = [LINEAR, POLY, RBF] kname = ['linear','polynomial','rbf'] correct = defaultdict(int) for kn,kt in zip(kname,kernels): print kt param = svm_parameter(kernel_type = kt, C=10, probability = 1) model = svm_model(problem, param) for test_sample,correct_label in test: pred_label, pred_probability = model.predict_probability(test_sample) correct[kn] += pred_label == correct_label # Show results. print '-'*80 print 'Accuracy:' for kn,correct_count in correct.iteritems(): print '\t',kn, '%.6f (%i of %i)' % (correct_count/float(len(test)), correct_count, len(test)) The domain seems fairly simple. I'd expect that if it's trained to know a mean of 2.5 means label 1, then when it sees a mean of 2.4, it should return label 1 as the most likely classification. However, each kernel has an accuracy of 0%. Why is this? On a side note, is there a way to hide all the verbose training output dumped by libsvm in the terminal? I've searched libsvm's docs and code, but I can't find any way to turn this off.

    Read the article

  • ASP MVC Ajax Controller pattern?

    - by Kevin Won
    My MVC app tends to have a lot of ajax calls (via JQuery.get()). It's sort of bugging me that my controller is littered with many tiny methods that get called via ajax. It seems to me to be sort of breaking the MVC pattern a bit--the controller is now being more of a data access component then a URI router. I refactored so that I have my 'true' controller for a page just performing standard routing responses (returing ActionResponse objects). So a call to /home/ will obviously kick up the HomeController class that will respond in the canonical controller fashion by returning a plain-jane View. I then moved my ajax stuff into a new controller class whose name I'm prefacing with 'Ajax'. So, for example, my page might have three different sections of functionality (say shopping cart or user account). I have an ajax controller for each of these (AjaxCartController, AjaxAccountController). There is really nothing different about moving the ajax call stuff into its own class--it's just to keep things cleaner. on client side obviously the JQuery would then use this new controller thusly: //jquery pseudocode call to specific controller that just handles ajax calls $.get('AjaxAccount/Details'.... (1) is there a better pattern in MVC for responding to ajax calls? (2) It seems to me that the MVC model is a bit leaky when it comes to ajax--it's not really 'controlling' stuff. It just happens to be the best and least painful way of handling ajax calls (or am I ignorant)? In other words, the 'Controller' abstraction doesn't seem to play nice with Ajax (at least from a patterns perspective). Is there something I'm missing?

    Read the article

  • WCF RIA Silverlight deployment issues

    - by Handleman
    It seems the world is awash with people having problems deploying RIA WCF services, and now I'm one too. I've already tried a bunch of things, but to no avail. I need WCF RIA to support a Silverlight 3 application I've built. The short story is, using the new WCF RIA services (Nov 09?) I open VS 2008, create new project (silverlight application), enabling ".NET RIA services". Add new item to web project - Linq2SQL dbml file (from SQL 2005 DB prepared earlier) and compile. I add a new item to the web project - domain service (link the tables I need) and compiled. Using the domain context I "Load" data with a standard RIA get query in the MainPage and add a TextBlock to display returned data. Build & run (cassini) - success. Using VS to publish to IIS on local PC - success. Using VS to publish to test server (IIS6) - browse to location and the Silverlight app loads but Fiddler tells me I've got a 404 on all the the WCF .svc requests. Use Fiddler to "launch IE" on the service request and it's true - 404. I have already run aspnet_regiis, ServiceModelReg and added mime types for .xap, .xaml, .xbap and .svc. I have included the System.Web.Ria and System.Web.DomainServices DLL with copy local true. I need help with either a) a solution b) an approach to find a solution

    Read the article

  • Bluetooth on 2.0+

    - by awiden
    I'm doing bluetooth development for connecting with a PC. I've basicly used the BTChatExample and changed the UUID to the standard PC SPP-profile. Trying to close a bluetooth application during a blocking read, by closing the BluetoothSocket will leave the Bluetooth stack in a unusable state. This can only be fixed by disabling and enabling bluetooth and restarting the application. Checking logcat, you can see that some of the internal methods are failing, leaving a open port. Any information on this? First of all there seams to be differences on how bluetooth is implemented on N1 and HTC Legend/Desire both running 2.1, do you know anything about this? Connecting isn't 100% reliable, sometimes I get a warning saying ~PortSystemContext init: FAILED. This leaves bluetooth unusable, and restarting is needed. Am I right in assuming that SPP is the only profile supported for use with the APIs? That's what the docs on the BluetoothAdapter says. I would love to discuss issues on bluetooth with a developer and iron out these bugs so that Android can have good proper BT support it deserves.

    Read the article

  • Jquery Form ajaxSubmit not submitting

    - by Gazler
    Hi, I am using the JQuery Form extension to submit a form with AJAX. I have the following code: var options = { beforeSubmit: showRequest, // pre-submit callback success: showResponse, // post-submit callback // other available options: //url: url // override for form's 'action' attribute //type: 'post', // 'get' or 'post', override for form's 'method' attribute //dataType: null // 'xml', 'script', or 'json' (expected server response type) clearForm: true, // clear all form fields after successful submit //resetForm: true // reset the form after successful submit // $.ajax options can be used here too, for example: timeout: 3000 }; $('#composeForm').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).find(':disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); The problem is that the form doesn't appear to be submitting, or atleast the success function is not being called. If I remove the return false, then the submission works, but the page navigates away. Is there a problem in my code that could be causing this? Cheers, Gazler.

    Read the article

  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS NSUrlConnection

    - by Lars
    Hi all, i got an EXC_BAD_ACCESS when i perform the last line of the function (webData). -(void)requestSoap{ NSString *requestUrl = @"http://www.website.com/webservice.php"; NSString *soapMessage = @"the soap message"; //website and soapmessage are valid in original code. NSError **error; NSURLResponse *response; //Convert parameter string to url NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:requestUrl]; NSMutableURLRequest *theRequest = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestReloadIgnoringCacheData timeoutInterval:10]; NSString *msgLength = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d", [soapMessage length]]; //Create an XML message for webservice [theRequest addValue: @"text/xml; charset=utf-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Type"]; [theRequest addValue: msgLength forHTTPHeaderField:@"Content-Length"]; [theRequest setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; [theRequest setHTTPBody: [soapMessage dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]]; NSData *webData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:theRequest returningResponse:&response error:error]; } I tried not to release a thing, because what i read on the net is it's almost always a memory thing. When i debug the code (NSZombieEnabled = YES) this is what i get: [Session started at 2010-05-31 15:56:13 +0200.] GNU gdb 6.3.50-20050815 (Apple version gdb-1461.2) (Fri Mar 5 04:43:10 UTC 2010) Copyright 2004 Free Software Foundation, Inc. GDB is free software, covered by the GNU General Public License, and you are welcome to change it and/or distribute copies of it under certain conditions. Type "show copying" to see the conditions. There is absolutely no warranty for GDB. Type "show warranty" for details. This GDB was configured as "x86_64-apple-darwin".sharedlibrary apply-load-rules all Attaching to process 19856. test(19856) malloc: recording malloc stacks to disk using standard recorder test(19856) malloc: enabling scribbling to detect mods to free blocks test(19856) malloc: process 19832 no longer exists, stack logs deleted from /tmp/stack-logs.19832.test.w9Ek4L.index test(19856) malloc: stack logs being written into /tmp/stack-logs.19856.test.URRpQF.index Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”. Does anybody have a clue?? Thanks a lot! Lars

    Read the article

  • HttpWebRequest does has empty response requesting a search from Bing

    - by Jarrod Maxwell
    I have the following code that sends a HttpWebRequest to Bing. When I request the url below though it returns what appears to be an empty response when it should be returning a list of results. var response = string.Empty; var httpWebRequest = WebRequest.Create("http://www.bing.com/search?q=stackoverflow&count=100") as HttpWebRequest; httpWebRequest.Method = WebRequestMethods.Http.Get; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add("Accept-Language", "en-US"); httpWebRequest.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; httpWebRequest.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.AcceptEncoding, "gzip,deflate"); using (var httpWebResponse = httpWebRequest.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) { Stream stream = null; using (stream = httpWebResponse.GetResponseStream()) { if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("gzip")) stream = new GZipStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); else if (httpWebResponse.ContentEncoding.ToLower().Contains("deflate")) stream = new DeflateStream(stream, CompressionMode.Decompress); var streamReader = new StreamReader(stream, Encoding.UTF8); response = streamReader.ReadToEnd(); } } Its pretty standard code for requesting and receiving a web page. Any ideas why the response is empty? Thanks in advance. EDIT I left off a query string parameter in the url. I also had &count=100 which I have now corrected. It seems to work for values of 50 and below but returns nothing when larger. This works ok when in the browser, but not for this web request. It makes me think the issue is that the response is large and HttpWebResponse is not handling that for me the way I have it set up. Just a guess though.

    Read the article

  • jQuery autopopulate select drop down from JSON issues

    - by Jonathon Joyce
    I have an issue regarding to auto populating a select dropdown from jQuery/JSON data which is return from a ColdFusion CFC, the code is below: $(function(){ $("#licences-add").dialog({autoOpen:false,modal:true,title:'Add Licences',height:250,width:380}); }); function openAddLicence(intInstanceID,szName,szDatasourceName){ $.getJSON('/ASPAdmin/billing/handler.cfc?method=ListLicenceTypes&queryformat=column',{szInstanceDatasource:szDatasourceName}, function(data){ $.each(data,function(){ $('<option></option>').val(data.DATA.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text(data.DATA.SZLICENCETYPE).appendTo('#uuidLicenceType'); }); }); $("#intInstanceID").attr('value', intInstanceID); $('span#szInstanceName').text(szName); $("#licences-add").dialog('open');}; The json returned is: {"ROWCOUNT":1,"COLUMNS":["UUIDLICENCETYPE","SZLICENCETYPE"],"DATA":{"UUIDLICENCETYPE":["480CE560-BCD3-C7AC-AF50B3C71BBCC473"],"SZLICENCETYPE":["Standard"]}} However i get the following error: $("").val(this.UUIDLICENCETYPE).text is not a function Any ideas? HTML: <tr> <td><label for="uuidLicenceType" title="Select the licence type (required).">Licence Type</label> <span class="req">*</span></td> <td> <select name="uuidLicenceType" id="uuidLicenceType" class="bmSelect"> <option value=""></option> </select> </td> </tr>

    Read the article

  • Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

    - by Loz
    Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C++ Exceptions and Inheritance from std::exception

    - by fbrereto
    Given this sample code: #include <iostream> #include <stdexcept> class my_exception_t : std::exception { public: explicit my_exception_t() { } virtual const char* what() const throw() { return "Hello, world!"; } }; int main() { try { throw my_exception_t(); } catch (const std::exception& error) { std::cerr << "Exception: " << error.what() << std::endl; } catch (...) { std::cerr << "Exception: unknown" << std::endl; } return 0; } I get the following output: Exception: unknown Yet simply making the inheritance of my_exception_t from std::exception public, I get the following output: Exception: Hello, world! Could someone please explain to me why the type of inheritance matters in this case? Bonus points for a reference in the standard.

    Read the article

  • Understanding Flash SWC's imported into Flex Builder 3 and key framed animation

    - by Hank Scorpio
    I am trying to understand what is going on in a SWC that I am importing from Flash CS4 into Flex Builder 3. Specifically I am using a SWC supplied by a Designer as the animation for a custom preloader (a subclassed DownloadProgressBar). The issue I am trying to understand is, once the FlexEvent.INIT_COMPLETE is fired, I cleanup by removing the swc by running this : removeChild(myPreloader); myPreloader = null; though even after I have removed this (which is successful, as I have checked by comparing this.numChildren before and after the call) the key framed animation still continues to run (not visibly). This has been detected by the Designer placing a trace in the time line of the animation (in Flash). Can anyone tell me why is it, that even after I have removed the animation from the subclassed DownloadProgressBar, it still keeps running ? Also, is it standard practice when importing SWCs to manage the cleanup of resources from the Flash side of things (much like releasing memory in obj-c). I find it counter intuitive that removing the child from the Flex side does not stop the animation. Any clues to this would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Workflow Foundation (WF) -- Why does Visual Studio's designer not use my custom ActivityDesignerThem

    - by stakx
    Problem: I am trying to customize a custom Workflow Foundation activity (called CustomActivity) so that it will display with a specific background color. What I've got so far: First, I'm defining a custom ActivityDesignerTheme as follows: public class CustomActivityTheme : ActivityDesignerTheme { public CustomActivityTheme(WorkflowTheme theme) : base(theme) { this.BackColorStart = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xf4, 0xf4, 0xf4); this.BackColorEnd = Color.FromArgb(0xff, 0xc0, 0xc0, 0xc0); this.BackgroundStyle = LinearGradientMode.Horizontal; } } Then, I am applying this theme to a custom ActivityDesigner (apparently the theme must be applied to a designer, and not to an activity): [ActivityDesignerTheme(typeof(CustomActivityTheme))] public class CustomActivityDesigner : SequentialActivityDesigner { ... } Ultimately, I am applying the custom designer to my custom Activity: [Designer(typeof(CustomActivityDesigner))] public partial class CustomActivity : SequenceActivity { ... } Now, according to some code examples that I've seen, this should do the trick. However, when I include an instance of my CustomActivity in a workflow, my custom theme is not applied and it is displayed in the Visual Studio Designer as any standard activity would (white background etc.). I tried re-compiling and even re-starting Visual Studio a couple of times, just to make sure the used assembly is up-to-date, but to no avail. My question: What am I missing? Why does Visual Studio's Workflow Designer not respect the CustomActivityTheme when it displays a CustomActivity?

    Read the article

  • Questions regarding ordering of catch statements in catch block - compiler specific or language stan

    - by Andy
    I am currently using Visual Studio Express C++ 2008, and have some questions about catch block ordering. Unfortunately, I could not find the answer on the internet so I am posing these questions to the experts. I notice that unless catch (...) is placed at the end of a catch block, the compilation will fail with error C2311. For example, the following would compile: catch (MyException) { } catch (...) { } while the following would not: catch (...) { } catch (MyException) { } a. Could I ask if this is defined in the C++ language standard, or if this is just the Microsoft compiler being strict? b. Do C# and Java have the same rules as well? c. As an aside, I have also tried making a base class and a derived class, and putting the catch statement for the base class before the catch statement for the derived class. This compiled without problems. Are there no language standards guarding against such practice please?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397  | Next Page >