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• Using GDataXMLDocument in iPad app

  - by INs

  I'm trying to use GDataXML library in my ipad application. I followed by instructions: Download the gdata-objective-c client library. Unzip the file, navigate to Source\XMLSupport, and drag the two files GDataXMLNode.h and GDataXMLNode.m into your project In XCode, click Project\Edit Project Settings and make sure “All Configurations” are checked. Find the Search Paths\Header Search Paths setting and add /usr/include/libxml2 to the list. Finally, find the Linking\Other Linker Flags section and add -lxml2 to the list. If in code i add #import "GDataXMLNode.h", all is fine. But when i try to use GDataXMLDocument class in my app GDataXMLDocument *doc = [[GDataXMLDocument alloc] initWithData:xmlData options:0 error:nil]; I received the following message: Ld build/Debug-iphonesimulator/DemoApp.app/DemoApp normal i386 cd /Users/svp/Projects/DemoApp setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 setenv PATH "/Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin:/Developer/usr/bin:/usr/bin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/sbin" /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/usr/bin/gcc-4.2 -arch i386 -isysroot /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator4.2.sdk -L/Users/svp/Projects/DemoApp/build/Debug-iphonesimulator -F/Users/svp/Projects/DemoApp/build/Debug-iphonesimulator -filelist /Users/svp/Projects/DemoApp/build/DemoApp.build/Debug-iphonesimulator/DemoApp.build/Objects-normal/i386/DemoApp.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -Xlinker -objc_abi_version -Xlinker 2 -framework Foundation -framework UIKit -framework CoreGraphics -framework MapKit -framework QuartzCore -lxml2.2 -o /Users/svp/Projects/DemoApp/build/Debug-iphonesimulator/DemoApp.app/DemoApp Undefined symbols: "_OBJC_CLASS_$_GDataXMLDocument", referenced from: objc-class-ref-to-GDataXMLDocument in TwitterService.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Any thoughts?

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• rails HABTM versus view (formtastic)

  - by VP

  I have two models: The model NetworkObject try to describe "hosts". I want to have a rule with source and destination, so i'm trying to use both objects from the same class since it dont makes sense to create two different classes. class NetworkObject < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :ip, :netmask, :name has_many :statements has_many :rules, :through =>:statements end class Rule < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :active, :destination_ids, :source_ids has_many :statements has_many :sources, :through=> :statements, :source=> :network_object has_many :destinations, :through => :statements, :source=> :network_object end To build the HABTM i did choose the Model JOIN. so in this case i created a model named Statement with: class Statement < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :source_id, :rule_id, :destination_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id belongs_to :network_object, :foreign_key => :destination_id belongs_to :rule end The problem is: is right to add two belongs_to to the same class using different foreign_keys? I tried all combinations like: belongs_to :sources, :class_name => :network_object, :foreign_key => :source_id but no success.. anything that i am doing wrong?

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• Response.Redirect in a COM+ Object Called from Classic ASP Page

  - by ajdams

  Basically we moved from IIS 5 to IIS 7 and I am trying to update some of our old COM objects to .NET by rewriting them in C#. What I am have so far is a Classic ASP page calling the COM+ object and then I am trying to do a simple redirect within the COM+ object (this is just for testing purposes, it's not what the object will do eventually). My problem/question is, why does the redirect call not work properly? Am I doing something wrong or can you not redirect within a COM+ object? All that happens is a blank white page comes up and if I check the IIS logs, I see no errors. Here is my code so far: In Classic ASP (the call to COM+) Set oBankReg = CreateObject("BVSRegistration.SignIn") oBankReg.GetBankId(bankid) Code in C# COM object: using System; using System.Web; using System.Text; using System.EnterpriseServices; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; [assembly: ApplicationName("BVSRegistration")] [assembly: Description("COM+ upgrade of the BVSRegistration VB6 SignIn.cls.")] [assembly: ApplicationActivation(ActivationOption.Server)] [assembly: ApplicationAccessControl(false, AccessChecksLevel = AccessChecksLevelOption.ApplicationComponent)] namespace BVSRegistration { public class SignIn : ServicedComponent { public void GetBankId(string bankid) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("http://www.google.com"); } } } Any ideas? Thanks

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• c# scope/typing/assignment question

  - by Shannow

  Hi there another quick question. I would like to create a variable object so that depending on the value of something, it gets cast as needed. e.g. var rule; switch (seqRuleObj.RuleType) { case SeqRuleObj.type.Pre : rule = new preConditionRuleType(); rule = (preConditionRuleType)seqRuleObj.Rule; break; case SeqRuleObj.type.Post : rule = new postConditionRuleType(); rule = (postConditionRuleType)seqRuleObj.Rule; break; case SeqRuleObj.type.Exit : rule = new exitConditionRuleType(); rule = (exitConditionRuleType)seqRuleObj.Rule; break; default : break; } String result; foreach (sequencingRuleTypeRuleConditionsRuleCondition cond in rule.ruleConditions.ruleCondition) { ....../ blah } so basically this will not work. c# will not allow me to create an new object in every case as the name is aleady defined. i can just paste the foreach loop into each case but that to me is such a waste, as the objects are exactly the same in all but name.

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• C# WinForms. Multiple Forms in separate threads

  - by Calum Murray

  I'm trying to run an ATM Simulation in C# with Windows Forms that can have more than one instance of an ATM machine transacting with a bank account simultaneously. The idea is to use semaphores/locking to block critical code that may lead to race conditions. My question is this: How can I run two Forms simultaneously on separate threads? In particular, how does all of this fit in with the Application.Run() that's already there? Here's my main class: public class Bank { private Account[] ac = new Account[3]; private ATM atm; public Bank() { ac[0] = new Account(300, 1111, 111111); ac[1] = new Account(750, 2222, 222222); ac[2] = new Account(3000, 3333, 333333); Application.Run(new ATM(ac)); } static void Main(string[] args) { new Bank(); } } ...that I want to run two of these forms on separate threads... public partial class ATM : Form { //local reference to the array of accounts private Account[] ac; //this is a reference to the account that is being used private Account activeAccount = null; private static int stepCount = 0; private string buffer = ""; // the ATM constructor takes an array of account objects as a reference public ATM(Account[] ac) { InitializeComponent(); //Sets up Form ATM GUI in ATM.Designer.cs this.ac = ac; } ... I've tried using Thread ATM2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(/*What goes in here?*/)); But what method do I put in the ThreadStart constructor, since the ATM form is event-driven and there's no one method controlling it? Thanks, Calum

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• How do I change the CellErrorStyle for an Xceed Datagrid?

  - by Bob

  So in the Xceed documentation there is a code example that does not work for me. It may be because my grid is bound to a DataGridCollectionView. The objects in the collection used by the datagridcollection are what implement IDataErrorInfo. The errors are showing up just fine. The problem is that they are using the default orange background for errors...I need a red border. Below is the XAML instantiation of my grid. I set the DataCell background property to red just so I could be sure I had access to the grid's properties... I do. I just can't find the way to identify the cell's w/ errors so I can style them. Thanks! <XceedDG:DataGridControl Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="5" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = ABGDataGridCollectionView, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Background="{x:Static Views:DataGridControlBackgroundBrushes.ElementalBlue}" IsDeleteCommandEnabled="True" FontSize="16" AutoCreateColumns="False" x:Name="EncounterDataGrid" AllowDrop="True"> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <Views:TableView ColumnStretchMode="All" ShowRowSelectorPane="True" ColumnStretchMinWidth="100"> <Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> <DataTemplate> <XceedDG:InsertionRow Height="40"/> </DataTemplate> </Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> </Views:TableView> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <!--Group Header formatting--> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:GroupByControl}"> <Setter Property="Visibility" Value="Collapsed"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:DataCell}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Style> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> ...

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• Database access through collections

  - by Mike

  Hi All, I have an 3 tiered application where I need to get database results and populated the UI. I have a MessagesCollection class that deals with messages. I load my user from the database. On the instantiation of a user (ie. new User()), a MessageCollection Messages = new MessageCollection(this) is performed. Message collection accepts a user as a parameter. User user = user.LoadUser("bob"); I want to get the messages for Bob. user.Messages.GetUnreadMessages(); GetUnreadMessages calls my Business Data provider which in turn calls the data access layer. The Business data provider returns List. My question is - I am not sure what the best practice is here - If I have a collection of messages in an array inside the MessagesCollection class, I could implement ICollection to provide GetEnumerator() and ability to traverse the messages. But what happens if the messages change and the the user has old messages loaded? What about big message collections? What if my user had 10,000 unread messages? I don't think accessing the database and returning 10,000 Message objects would be efficient.

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• GWT serialization issue

  - by Eddy

  I am having a heck of a time returning an ArrayList of objects that implement IsSerializable via RPC. The IsSerializable pojo contains one variable, a String, and has a 0 parameter constructor. I have removed the .gwt.rpc file from my war and still I get: com.google.gwt.user.client.rpc.SerializationException: Type 'com.test.myApp.client.model.Test' was not included in the set of types which can be serialized by this SerializationPolicy or its Class object could not be loaded. For security purposes, this type will not be serialized.: instance = com.test.myApp.client.model.Test@17a9692 at com.google.gwt.user.server.rpc.impl.ServerSerializationStreamWriter.serialize(ServerSerializationStreamWriter.java:610) I am using GWT 2.0.2 with jdk 1.6.0_18. Any ideas on what might be going on or what I am doing wrong? Here is the code for the Test class and the remote method is returning ArrayList. I even modified the code for it to just return one instance of Test with the same result: the exception above. package com.test.myApp.client.model; import com.google.gwt.user.client.rpc.IsSerializable; public class Test implements IsSerializable{ private String s; public Test() {} public Test(String s) { this.s = s; } public String getS() { return s; } public void setS(String s) { this.s = s; } } Greatly appreciate the help! Eddy

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• Code Own Socket Server or Use Red5/ElectroServer on Amazon EC2?

  - by Travis

  I've been thinking for a long time about working on a multiplayer game in Flash. I need updates frequently enough that ajax requests won't work so I need to use a socket server. The system will eventually have enough objects/players that I would consider it an MMO. I would like to set up a scalable system on Amazon's EC2. (Which probably effects my choice of server) This architecture would hopefully allow the game to grow without many changes over time. (Using a domain decomposition technique or something similar) Heres my internal debate: Should I a. Code my own socket server in C++ or Java? b. Use the free and open source Red5 socket server for Flash? or c. Pay the licensing fees and go for Electroserver? I consider myself a decent developer, but am at an impasse as to what road to go down. I'm not sure if I, could develop/would need, the features of one of the prepackaged socket servers. I'm also not sure if the prepackaged servers would work well in an Amazon EC2 environment and take full advantage of its features. Any help or guidance would be greatly appreciated.

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• EAGLContext, EAGLSharegroups, RenderBuffers, FrameBuffers, oh my!

  - by quixoto

  Hi all, I'm trying to wrap my head around the OpenGL object model on iPhone OS. I'm currently rendering into a few different UIViews (build on CAEAGLayers) on the screen. I currently have each of these as using separate EAGLContext, each of which has a color renderbuffer and a framebuffer. I'm rendering similar things in them, and I'd like to share textures between these instances to save memory overhead. My current understanding is that I could use the same setup (some number of contexts, each with a FBO/RBO) but if I spawn the later ones using the EAGLShareGroup of the first one, then I can simply use the texture names (GLuints) from the first one in the later ones. Is this accurate? If this is the case, I guess the followup question is: what's the benefit to having it be a "sharegroup"? Could I just reuse the same context, and attach multiple FBOs/RBOs to that context? I think I'm struggling with the abstraction layer of a sharegroup, which seems to share "objects" (textures and other named things) but not "state" (matrices, enabled/disabled states) which are owned by the context. What's the best way to think of this? Thanks for any enlightenment!

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• NHibernate: Mapping multiple classes from a single table row

  - by Michael Kurtz

  I couldn't find an answer to this specific question. I am trying to keep my domain model object-oriented and re-use objects where possible. I am having an issue determining how to provide a mapping to multiple classes from a single row. Let me explain with an example: I have a single table, call it Customer. A customer has several attributes; but, for brevity, assume it has Id, Name, Address, City, State, ZipCode. I would like to create a Customer and Address class that look like this: public class Customer { public virtual long Id {get;set;} public virtual string Name {get;set;} public virtual Address Address {get;set;} } public class Address { public virtual string Address {get;set;} public virtual string City {get;set;} public virtual string State {get;set;} public virtual string ZipCode {get;set;} } What I am having trouble with is determining what the mapping would be for the Address class within the Customer class. There is no Address table and there isn't a "set" of addresses associated with a Customer. I just want a more object-oriented view of the Customer table in code. There are several other tables that have address information in them and it would be nice to have a reusable Address class to deal with them. Addresses are not shared so breaking all addresses into a separate table with foreign keys seems to be overkill and, actually, more painful since I would need foreign keys to multiple tables. Can someone enlighten me on this type of mapping? Please provide an example if you can. Thanks for any insights! -Mike

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• What's better practice: objc_msgSendv or NSInvocation?

  - by Jared P

  So I'm working on something in obj-c (I'd rather not say what) where I need to be able to call arbitrary methods on arbitrary objects with arbitrary variables. The first two are easy enough to do, but I am unsure how to do the variable arguments. To be clear, this is not about a function/method receiving variable arguments, but about sending them. I have found two ways to do this: objc_msgSendv (and its variants) in the objective-c runtime, and NSInvocation. NSInvocation seems easier and more like it's the 'best practice', but objc_msgSendv sounds like it should be faster, and I need to do this many, many times over, with completely different messages each time. Which one should I choose? Is objc_msgSendv taboo for a good reason? (the docs say not to call the objc_msgsend functions.) P.S. I know the types of all the arguments, and not all of them are id-s Also, (not part of the main question,) there doesn't appear to be a way to message super from objc_msgSendv, but there doesn't seem to be a way to do that in NSInvocation either, so any help on that would be great too.

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• Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

  - by LOSnively

  I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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• How to have a policy class implement a virtual function?

  - by dehmann

  I'm trying to design a policy-based class, where a certain interface is implemented by the policy itself, so the class derives from the policy, which itself is a template (I got this kind of thinking from Alexandrescu's book): #include <iostream> #include <vector> class TestInterface { public: virtual void test() = 0; }; class TestImpl1 { public: void test() {std::cerr << "Impl1" << std::endl;} }; template<class TestPolicy> class Foo : public TestInterface, TestPolicy { }; Then, in the main() function, I call test() on (potentially) various different objects that all implement the same interface: int main() { std::vector<TestInterface*> foos; foos.push_back(new Foo<TestImpl1>()); foos[0]->test(); delete foos[0]; return 0; } It doesn't compile, though, because the following virtual functions are pure within ‘Foo<TestImpl1>’: virtual void TestInterface::test() I thought TestInterface::test() is implemented because we derive from TestImpl1?

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• How to prevent Hibernate from nullifying relationship column during entity removal

  - by Grzegorz

  I have two entities, A and B. I need to easily retrieve entities A, joined with entities B on the condition of equal values of some column (some column from A equal to some column in B). Those columns are not primary or foreign keys, they contain same business data. I just need to have access from each instance of A to the collection of B's with the same value of this column. So I model it like this: class A { @OneToMany @JoinColumn(name="column_in_B", referencedColumnName="column_in_A") Collection<B> bs; This way, I can run queries like "select A join fetch a.bs b where b...." (Actually, the real relationship here is many-to-many. But when I use @ManyToMany, Hibernate forces me to use join table, which doesnt exist here. So I have to use @OneToMany as workaround). So far so good. The main problem is: whenever I delete an instance of A, hibernate calls "Update B set column_in_B = null", becuase it thinks the column_in_B is foreign key pointing at primary key in A (and because row in A is deleted, it tries to clean the foreign key in B). BUT the column_in_B IS NOT a foreign key, and can't be modified, because it causes data lost (and this column is NOT NULL anyway in my case, causing data integerity exception to be thrown). Plese help me with this. How to model such relationships with Hibernate? (I would call it "virtual relationships", or "secondary relationships" or so: as they are not based on foreign keys, they are just some shortcuts which allows for retrieving related objects and quering for them with HQL)

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• Problem catching OnClick event using HTMLDocumentEvents2 in a BHO

  - by Yonatan

  I am running a BHO and i am trying to catch OnClick events using HTMLDocumentEvents2 however, the events never seem to reach the handler this is what i am doing: class ATL_NO_VTABLE CBlastBhoBHO : public CComObjectRootEx<CComSingleThreadModel>, public CComCoClass<CBlastBhoBHO, &CLSID_BlastBhoBHO>, public IObjectWithSiteImpl<CBlastBhoBHO>, public IDispatchImpl<IBlastBhoBHO, &IID_IBlastBhoBHO, &LIBID_BlastBhoLib, /*wMajor =*/ 1, /*wMinor =*/ 0>, public IDispEventImpl<0, CBlastBhoBHO, &DIID_HTMLDocumentEvents2, &LIBID_MSHTML, 1, 0>, public IDispEventImpl<1, CBlastBhoBHO, &DIID_DWebBrowserEvents2, &LIBID_SHDocVw, 1, 1> BEGIN_SINK_MAP(CBlastBhoBHO) SINK_ENTRY_EX(0, DIID_HTMLDocumentEvents2, DISPID_HTMLDOCUMENTEVENTS2_ONCLICK, OnClickTrigger) SINK_ENTRY_EX(1, DIID_DWebBrowserEvents2, DISPID_DOCUMENTCOMPLETE, OnDocumentComplete) END_SINK_MAP() // Handlers void STDMETHODCALLTYPE CBlastBhoBHO::OnDocumentComplete( IDispatch *pDisp, VARIANT *url) { // works fine } void STDMETHODCALLTYPE CBlastBhoBHO::OnClickTrigger(IHTMLEventObj *pEvtObj) { // Never called } // From SetSite() ATL::IDispEventSimpleImpl<1,CBlastBhoBHO,&DIID_DWebBrowserEvents2>::DispEventAdvise(m_spWebBrowser); // From OnDocumentComplete CComQIPtr<IHTMLDocument3> doc_; m_spWebBrowser->get_Document((IDispatch**) &doc_); ATL::IDispEventSimpleImpl<0,CBlastBhoBHO,&DIID_HTMLDocumentEvents2>::DispEventAdvise(doc_); I have tried several variations(using HTMLElementEvents2 etc) or Advising on different objects or Advising on the document from SetSite. my handler is never called. Any help would be much appreciated. all i need is the onClick event.

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• Approach for replacing forms authentication in .NET application

  - by Ash Machine

  My question is about an approach, and I am looking for tips or links to help me develop a solution. I have an .NET 4.0 web forms application that works with Forms authentication using the aspnetdb SQL database of users and passwords. A new feature for the application is a new authentication mechanism using single sign on to allow access for thousands of new users. Essentially, when the user logs in through the new single-sign-on method, I will be able to identify them as legitimate users with a role. So I will have something like HttpContext.Current.Session["email_of_authenticated_user"] (their identity) and HttpContext.Current.Session["role_of_authenticated_user"] (their role). Importantly, I don't necessarily want to maintain these users and roles redundantly in the aspnetdb database which will be retired, but I do want to use the session objects above to allow the user to pass through the application as if they were in passing through with forms authentication. I don't think CustomRoleProviders or CustomMemberProviders are helpful since they do not allow for creating session-level users. So my question is how to use the session level user and role that I do have to "mimic" all the forms authentication goodness like enforcing: [System.Security.Permissions.PrincipalPermission(System.Security.Permissions.SecurityAction.Demand, Role = "Student")] or <authorization> <allow users="wilma, barney" /> </authorization> Thanks for any pointers.

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• Writing fortran robust and "modern" code

  - by Blklight

  In some scientific environments, you often cannot go without FORTRAN as most of the developers only know that idiom, and there is lot of legacy code and related experience. And frankly, there are not many other cross-platform options for high performance programming ( C++ would do the task, but the syntax, zero-starting arrays, and pointers are too much for most engineers ;-) ). I'm a C++ guy but I'm stuck with some F90 projects. So, let's assume a new project must use FORTRAN (F90), but I want to build the most modern software architecture out of it. while being compatible with most "recent" compilers (intel ifort, but also including sun/HP/IBM own compilers) So I'm thinking of imposing: global variable forbidden, no gotos, no jump labels, "implicit none", etc. "object-oriented programming" (modules with datatypes + related subroutines) modular/reusable functions, well documented, reusable libraries assertions/preconditions/invariants (implemented using preprocessor statements) unit tests for all (most) subroutines and "objects" an intense "debug mode" (#ifdef DEBUG) with more checks and all possible Intel compiler checks possible (array bounds, subroutine interfaces, etc.) uniform and enforced legible coding style, using code processing tools C stubs/wrappers for libpthread, libDL (and eventually GPU kernels, etc.) C/C++ implementation of utility functions (strings, file operations, sockets, memory alloc/dealloc reference counting for debug mode, etc.) ( This may all seem "evident" modern programming assumptions, but in a legacy fortran world, most of these are big changes in the typical programmer workflow ) The goal with all that is to have trustworthy, maintainable and modular code. Whereas, in typical fortran, modularity is often not a primary goal, and code is trustworthy only if the original developer was very clever, and the code was not changed since then ! (i'm a bit joking here, but not much) I searched around for references about object-oriented fortran, programming-by-contract (assertions/preconditions/etc.), and found only ugly and outdated documents, syntaxes and papers done by people with no large-scale project involvement, and dead projects. Any good URL, advice, reference paper/books on the subject?

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• Rails preventing duplicates in polymorphic has_many :through associations

  - by seaneshbaugh

  Is there an easy or at least elegant way to prevent duplicate entries in polymorphic has_many through associations? I've got two models, stories and links that can be tagged. I'm making a conscious decision to not use a plugin here. I want to actually understand everything that's going on and not be dependent on someone else's code that I don't fully grasp. To see what my question is getting at, if I run the following in the console (assuming the story and tag objects exist in the database already) s = Story.find_by_id(1) t = Tag.find_by_id(1) s.tags << t s.tags << t My taggings join table will have two entries added to it, each with the same exact data (tag_id = 1, taggable_id = 1, taggable_type = "Story"). That just doesn't seem very proper to me. So in an attempt to prevent this from happening I added the following to my Tagging model: before_validation :validate_uniqueness def validate_uniqueness taggings = Tagging.find(:all, :conditions => { :tag_id => self.tag_id, :taggable_id => self.taggable_id, :taggable_type => self.taggable_type }) if !taggings.empty? return false end return true end And it works almost as intended, but if I attempt to add a duplicate tag to a story or link I get an ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed exception. It seems that when you add an association to a list it calls the save! (rather than save sans !) method which raises exceptions if something goes wrong rather than just returning false. That isn't quite what I want to happen. I suppose I can surround any attempts to add new tags with a try/catch but that goes against the idea that you shouldn't expect your exceptions and this is something I fully expect to happen. Is there a better way of doing this that won't raise exceptions when all I want to do is just silently not save the object to the database because a duplicate exists?

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• Creating and using a static lib in xcode

  - by Alasdair Morrison

  I am trying to create a static library in xcode and link to that static library from another program. So as a test i have created a BSD static C library project and just added the following code: //Test.h int testFunction(); //Test.cpp #include "Test.h" int testFunction() { return 12; } This compiles fine and create a .a file (libTest.a). Now i want to use it in another program so I create a new xcode project (cocoa application) Have the following code: //main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "Testlib.h" int main (int argc, char * const argv[]) { // insert code here... std::cout << "Result:\n" <<testFunction(); return 0; } //Testlib.h extern int testFunction(); I right clicked on the project - add - existing framework - add other Selected the .a file and it added it into the project view. I always get this linker error: Build TestUselibrary of project TestUselibrary with configuration Debug Ld build/Debug/TestUselibrary normal x86_64 cd /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary setenv MACOSX_DEPLOYMENT_TARGET 10.6 /Developer/usr/bin/g++-4.2 -arch x86_64 -isysroot /Developer/SDKs/MacOSX10.6.sdk -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -L/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/../Test/build/Debug -F/Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug -filelist /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/TestUselibrary.build/Debug/TestUselibrary.build/Objects-normal/x86_64/TestUselibrary.LinkFileList -mmacosx-version-min=10.6 -lTest -o /Users/myname/location/TestUselibrary/build/Debug/TestUselibrary Undefined symbols: "testFunction()", referenced from: _main in main.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status I am new to macosx development and fairly new to c++. I am probably missing something fairly obvious, all my experience comes from creating dlls on the windows platform. I really appreciate any help.

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• Syncing data between devel/live databases in Django

  - by T. Stone

  With Django's new multi-db functionality in the development version, I've been trying to work on creating a management command that let's me synchronize the data from the live site down to a developer machine for extended testing. (Having actual data, particularly user-entered data, allows me to test a broader range of inputs.) Right now I've got a "mostly" working command. It can sync "simple" model data but the problem I'm having is that it ignores ManyToMany fields which I don't see any reason for it do so. Anyone have any ideas of either how to fix that or a better want to handle this? Should I be exporting that first query to a fixture first and then re-importing it? from django.core.management.base import LabelCommand from django.db.utils import IntegrityError from django.db import models from django.conf import settings LIVE_DATABASE_KEY = 'live' class Command(LabelCommand): help = ("Synchronizes the data between the local machine and the live server") args = "APP_NAME" label = 'application name' requires_model_validation = False can_import_settings = True def handle_label(self, label, **options): # Make sure we're running the command on a developer machine and that we've got the right settings db_settings = getattr(settings, 'DATABASES', {}) if not LIVE_DATABASE_KEY in db_settings: print 'Could not find "%s" in database settings.' % LIVE_DATABASE_KEY return if db_settings.get('default') == db_settings.get(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY): print 'Data cannot synchronize with self. This command must be run on a non-production server.' return # Fetch all models for the given app try: app = models.get_app(label) app_models = models.get_models(app) except: print "The app '%s' could not be found or models could not be loaded for it." % label for model in app_models: print 'Syncing %s.%s ...' % (model._meta.app_label, model._meta.object_name) # Query each model from the live site qs = model.objects.all().using(LIVE_DATABASE_KEY) # ...and save it to the local database for record in qs: try: record.save(using='default') except IntegrityError: # Skip as the record probably already exists pass

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• c# regex split and extract multiple parts from a string

  - by nLL

  Hi, I am trying to extract some parts of the "Video:" line from below text. Seems stream 0 codec frame rate differs from container frame rate: 30000.00 (300 00/1) - 14.93 (1000/67) Input #0, mov,mp4,m4a,3gp,3g2,mj2, from 'C:\a.3gp': Metadata: major_brand : 3gp5 minor_version : 0 compatible_brands: 3gp5isom Duration: 00:00:45.82, start: 0.000000, bitrate: 357 kb/s Stream #0.0(und): Video: mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb /s, 14.93 fps, 14.93 tbr, 90k tbn, 30k tbc Stream #0.1(und): Audio: aac, 16000 Hz, mono, s16, 11 kb/s Stream #0.2(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s Stream #0.3(und): Data: mp4s / 0x7334706D, 0 kb/s* This is an output from ffmpeg command line where i can get Video: part with private string ExtractVideoFormat(string rawInfo) { string v = string.Empty; Regex re = new Regex("[V|v]ideo:.*", RegexOptions.Compiled); Match m = re.Match(rawInfo); if (m.Success) { v = m.Value; } return v; } and result is mpeg4, yuv420p, 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69], 344 kb What i am trying to do is to somehow split that line and get mpeg4 yuv420p 352x276 [PAR 1:1 DAR 88:69] 344 kb assigned to diffrent string objects instead of single

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• Getting value of "i" from GEvent

  - by Cosizzle

  Hello, I'm trying to add an event listener to each icon on the map when it's pressed. I'm storing the information in the database and the value that I'm wanting to retrive is "i" however when I output "i", I get it's last value which is 5 (there are 6 objects being drawn onto the map) Below is the code, what would be the best way to get the value of i, and not the object itself. var drawLotLoc = function(id) { var lotLoc = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); // create icon object lotLoc.image = url+"images/markers/lotLocation.gif"; // set the icon image lotLoc.shadow = ""; // no shadow lotLoc.iconSize = new GSize(24, 24); // set the size var markerOptions = { icon: lotLoc }; $.post(opts.postScript, {action: 'drawlotLoc', id: id}, function(data) { var markers = new Array(); // lotLoc[x].description // lotLoc[x].lat // lotLoc[x].lng // lotLoc[x].nighbourhood // lotLoc[x].lot var lotLoc = $.evalJSON(data); for(var i=0; i<lotLoc.length; i++) { var spLat = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lat); var spLng = parseFloat(lotLoc[i].lng); var latlng = new GLatLng(spLat, spLng) markers[i] = new GMarker(latlng, markerOptions); myMap.addOverlay(markers[i]); GEvent.addListener(markers[i], "click", function() { console.log(i); // returning 5 in all cases. // I _need_ this to be unique to the object being clicked. console.log(this); }); } });

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• Dependency Injection and decoupling of software layers

  - by cs31415

  I am trying to implement Dependency Injection to make my app tester friendly. I have a rather basic doubt. Data layer uses SqlConnection object to connect to a SQL server database. SqlConnection object is a dependency for data access layer. In accordance with the laws of dependency injection, we must not new() dependent objects, but rather accept them through constructor arguments. Not wanting to upset the DI gods, I dutifully create a constructor in my DAL that takes in SqlConnection. Business layer calls DAL. Business layer must therefore, pass in SqlConnection. Presentation layer calls Business layer. Hence it too, must pass in SqlConnection to business layer. This is great for class isolation and testability. But didn't we just couple the UI and Business layers to a specific implementation of the data layer which happens to use a relational database? Why do the Presentation and Business layers need to know that the underlying data store is SQL? What if the app needs to support multiple data sources other than SQL server (such as XML files, Comma delimited files etc.) Furthermore, what if I add another object upon which my data layer is dependent on (say, a second database). Now, I have to modify the upper layers to pass in this new object. How can I avoid this merry-go-round and reap all the benefits of DI without the pain?

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• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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