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  • How can I tell if a byte array has already been compressed?

    - by MikeG
    Hi, Can I rely on the first few bytes of data compressed using the System.IO.Compression.DeflateStream in .NET always being the same? These bytes seem to always be the 1st bytes: 237, 189, 7, 96, 28, 73, 150, 37, 38, 47 , ... I'm assuming this is some kind of header, I'd like to assume that this header is fixed and isn't going to change. Has anyone got any extra info about this? Background info (The reason I want to know this info is...) I have a load of data in a database table that could do with being made smaller. I've decided I'm going to start compressing the data and not going to bother compressing the existing data. When the data gets into my .NET code the data is a String. I'd like to be able to look at the 1st few bytes of the string and see if it has been compressed, if it has then I need to de-compress it. I was originally thinking I could convert the string to bytes and just try de-compressing the data. Then if an exception happens, I could just assume it wasn't compressed. But I think checking the header bytes would give me much better performance. Many thanks, Mike G

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  • managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

    - by Schotime
    Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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  • Why doesn't my UIViewController class keep track of an NSArray instance variable.

    - by TaoStoner
    Hey, I am new to Objective-C 2.0 and Xcode, so forgive me if I am missing something elementary here. Anyways, I am trying to make my own UIViewController class called GameView to display a new view. To work the game I need to keep track of an NSArray that I want to load from a plist file. I have made a method 'loadGame' which I want to load the correct NSArray into an instance variable. However it appears that after the method executes the instance variable loses track of the array. Its easier if I just show you the code.... @interface GameView : UIViewController { IBOutlet UIView *view IBOutlet UILabel *label; NSArray *currentGame; } -(IBOutlet)next; -(void)loadDefault; ... @implementation GameView - (IBOutlet)next{ int numElements = [currentGame count]; int r = rand() % numElements; NSString *myString = [currentGame objectAtIndex:(NSUInteger)r]; [label setText: myString]; } - (void)loadDefault { NSDictionary *games; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] bundlePath]; NSString *finalPath = [path stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Games.plist"]; games = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithContentsOfFile:finalPath]; currentGame = [games objectForKey:@"Default"]; } when loadDefault gets called, everything runs perfectly, but when I try to use the currentGame NSArray later in the method call to next, currentGame appears to be nil. I am also aware of the memory management issues with this code. Any help would be appreciated with this problem.

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  • Update Options on Existing jQuery Object

    - by Vince Kronlein
    I'm using Bootstrap and DataTables in my app and I have a default initializer for tables based on class. I can just add the class data-table to the table and it gets instantiated with the default values I want. I'd like to know how to change or update specific options based on a specific table. if ($.fn.dataTable) { $('.data-table').dataTable( { sDom: "R<'row'<'span6'l><'span6'f>r>t<'row'<'span6'i><'span6'p>>", sPaginationType: "bootstrap", oLanguage: { "sLengthMenu": "_MENU_ &nbsp; records per page" }, aoColumnDefs: [ { "bSortable": false, "aTargets": [ 0 ] } ] }); } All my data tables have a checkbox in the first column so the above removal of sorting works for all of them. But I'd like to be able to update the aoColumnDefs on a table by table basis so I can add other columns that I don't want sorted. So let's say I have a table: $('#member-list'), how do I access this object and update it's datatables options in jQuery? I can't find any reference or help anywhere. Thanks a lot! -V

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  • Better way of coding this if statment?

    - by HadlowJ
    Hi. I have another question for you very helpful people. I use a lot of if statements many of which are just repeated and im sure could be shortened. This is my current bit of code if (Globals.TotalStands <= 1) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo2.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand2.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf2.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 2) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo3.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand3.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf3.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 3) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo4.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand4.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf4.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 4) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo5.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand5.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf5.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 5) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo6.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand6.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf6.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 6) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo7.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand7.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf7.Visible = false; } if (Globals.TotalStands <= 7) { ScoreUpdate.StandNo8.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreStand8.Visible = false; ScoreUpdate.ScoreOutOf8.Visible = false; } as you can see there is a huge amount of code to do something simple (which i do on a few other forms as well and im sure there must be a better way of coding this that gets the same result? Im a code noob so please be gentle, code is c# and software is visual studio 2008 pro. Thanks

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  • Commited memory goes to physical RAM or reserves space in the paging file?

    - by Sil
    When I do VirtualAlloc with MEM_COMMIT this "Allocates physical storage in memory or in the paging file on disk for the specified reserved memory pages" (quote from MSDN article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa366887%28VS.85%29.aspx). All is fine up until now BUT: the description of Commited Bytes Counter says that "Committed memory is the physical memory which has space reserved on the disk paging file(s)." I also read "Windows via C/C++ 5th edition" and this book says that commiting memory means reserving space in the page file.... The last two cases don't make sense to me... If you commit memory, doesn't that mean that you commit to physical storage (RAM)? The page file being there for swaping out currently unused pages of memory in case memory gets low. The book says that when you commit memory you actually reserve space in the paging file. If this were true than that would mean that for a committed page there is space reserved in the paging file and a page frame in physical in memory... So twice as much space is needed ?! Isn't the page file's purpose to make the total physical memory larger than it actually is? If I have a 1G of RAM with a 1G page file = 2G of usable "physical memory"(the book also states this but right after that it says what I discribed at point 2). What am I missing? Thanks.

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  • C# Finding 2 positions 1-dimArray

    - by Chris
    Hello, In a method i am calculating the longest row of elements. The 1-dim array is filled up with random values (0 or 1). The method looks up the longest row (being 0 or 1, whatever is the longest). Meaning in for example: 1110100 --> the longest row would be 3 (3 * 1) 0110000 --> the longest row would be 4 (4 * 0) My problem is i am trying to perform some type of linear search to show the position of the row in the array. The first example has the longest row of 3 elements (3 times 1). For 1110100 the position in the array would be 0 - 2 (index) For 0110000 the position in the array would be 3 - 6 (index) I have been trying with foreaches, for loops etc..but i cannot seem to get the proper indexes of both. Cannot seem to display both positions properly. For the first example the correct output wouldbe: The largest row of same elements of the array consists of 3 elements on the position 0 - 2. The longest row of elements gets of same elements get calculated as the following: public int BerekenDeelrij (int [] table) ( int count = 0; final int value = 0; int largest = 0; foreach (int value in table) ( if (value == last value) counter + +; else ( largest = Math.Max largest (largest, counter); final value = value count = 1; ) ) Math.Max return (largest, counter); ) Best Regards.

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  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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  • Handle BACK key event in child view

    - by Mick Byrne
    In my app, users can tap on image thumbnails to see a full size version. When the thumbnail is tapped a bunch of new views are created in code (i.e. no XML), appended at the end of the view hierarchy and some scaling and rotating transitions happen, then the full size, high res version of the image is displayed. Tapping on the full size image reverses the transitions and removes the new views from the view hierarchy. I want users to also be able to press the BACK key to reverse the image transitions. However, I can't seem to catch the KeyEvent. This is what I'm trying at the moment: // Set a click listener on the image to reverse everything frameView.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View arg0) { zoomOut(); // This works fine } }); // Set the focus onto the frame and then set a key listener to catch the back buttons frameView.setFocusable(true); frameView.setFocusableInTouchMode(true); frameView.requestFocus(); frameView.setOnKeyListener(new OnKeyListener() { @Override public boolean onKey(View v, int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { // The code never even gets here !!! if(keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK && event.getRepeatCount() == 0) { zoomOut(); return true; } return false; } });

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  • XMLHttpRequest leak

    - by Raja
    Hi everyone, Below is my javascript code snippet. Its not running as expected, please help me with this. <script type="text/javascript"> function getCurrentLocation() { console.log("inside location"); navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { insert_coord(new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude)); }); } function insert_coord(loc) { var request = new XMLHttpRequest(); request.open("POST","start.php",true); request.onreadystatechange = function() { callback(request); }; request.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); request.send("lat=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lat()) + "&lng=" + encodeURIComponent(loc.lng())); return request; } function callback(req) { console.log("inside callback"); if(req.readyState == 4) if(req.status == 200) { document.getElementById("scratch").innerHTML = "callback success"; //window.setTimeout("getCurrentLocation()",5000); setTimeout(getCurrentLocation,5000); } } getCurrentLocation(); //called on body load </script> What i'm trying to achieve is to send my current location to the php page every 5 seconds or so. i can see few of the coordinates in my database but after sometime it gets weird. Firebug show very weird logs like simultaneous POST's at irregular intervals. Here's the firebug screenshot: IS there a leak in the program. please help. EDIT: The expected outcome in the firebug console should be like this :- inside location POST .... inside callback /* 5 secs later */ inside location POST ... inside callback /* keep repeating */

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  • How do I alias the scala setter method 'myvar_$eq(myval)' to something more pleasing when in java?

    - by feydr
    I've been converting some code from java to scala lately trying to teach myself the language. Suppose we have this scala class: class Person() { var name:String = "joebob" } Now I want to access it from java so I can't use dot-notation like I would if I was in scala. So I can get my var's contents by issuing: person = Person.new(); System.out.println(person.name()); and set it via: person = Person.new(); person.name_$eq("sallysue"); System.out.println(person.name()); This holds true cause our Person Class looks like this in javap: Compiled from "Person.scala" public class Person extends java.lang.Object implements scala.ScalaObject{ public Person(); public void name_$eq(java.lang.String); public java.lang.String name(); public int $tag() throws java.rmi.RemoteException; } Yes, I could write my own getters/setters but I hate filling classes up with that and it doesn't make a ton of sense considering I already have them -- I just want to alias the _$eq method better. (This actually gets worse when you are dealing with stuff like antlr because then you have to escape it and it ends up looking like person.name_\$eq("newname"); Note: I'd much rather have to put up with this rather than fill my classes with more setter methods. So what would you do in this situation?

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  • NullReferenceExeption when reading from a file

    - by Whitey
    I need to read a file structured like this: 01000 00030 00500 03000 00020 And put it in an array like this: int[,] iMap = new int[iMapHeight, iMapWidth] { {0, 1, 0, 0, 0}, {0, 0, 0, 3, 0}, {0, 0, 5, 0, 0}, {0, 3, 0, 0, 0}, {0, 0, 0, 2, 0}, }; Hopefully you see what I'm trying to do here. I was confused how to do this so I asked here on SO, but the code I got from it gets this error: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. I'm pretty new to this so I have no idea how to fix it... I only barely know the code: protected void ReadMap(string mapPath) { using (var reader = new StreamReader(mapPath)) { for (int i = 0; i < iMapHeight; i++) { string line = reader.ReadLine(); for (int j = 0; j < iMapWidth; j++) { iMap[i, j] = (int)(line[j] - '0'); } } } } The line I get the error on is this: iMap[i, j] = (int)(line[j] - '0'); Can anyone provide a solution? Thank you. :)

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  • Issue with MOUSE_MOVE and MOUSE_OUT applied to stage

    - by poepje
    I'm having an issue with MOUSE_OUT being called while it shouldn't. What I'm doing is quite simple: two images are shown when I move the mouse across the stage, and when the mouse leaves the stage they are hidden. The problem is, that whenever the mouse hits the border of any movieclip on the stage, the MOUSE_OUT function gets called, hiding the two images. This means that whenever I move the mouse My code (only the relevant parts are shown): public class Slider extends MovieClip { var img1:Img1 = new Img1; var img2:Img2 = new Img2; var img1_hover:Img1_hover = new Img1_hover; var img2_hover:Img2_hover = new Img2_hover; public function Slider() { img1.alpha = 0; img2.alpha = 0; stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_MOVE, showArrows); } function showArrows(e:MouseEvent) { img1.alpha = 1; img2.alpha = 1; stage.addEventListener(MouseEvent.MOUSE_OUT, hideArrows); } function hideArrows(e:MouseEvent) { img1.alpha = 0; img2.alpha = 0; } } Flash throws no errors. I am using a separate .as file (just one) and have no code inside of the action panel in the .fla. Where there's stage.addEventListener, I also tried this., root. and nothing instead of stage.

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  • Practical non-image based CAPTCHA approaches?

    - by Jeff Atwood
    It looks like we'll be adding CAPTCHA support to Stack Overflow. This is necessary to prevent bots, spammers, and other malicious scripted activity. We only want human beings to post or edit things here! We'll be using a JavaScript (jQuery) CAPTCHA as a first line of defense: http://docs.jquery.com/Tutorials:Safer_Contact_Forms_Without_CAPTCHAs The advantage of this approach is that, for most people, the CAPTCHA won't ever be visible! However, for people with JavaScript disabled, we still need a fallback and this is where it gets tricky. I have written a traditional CAPTCHA control for ASP.NET which we can re-use. However, I'd prefer to go with something textual to avoid the overhead of creating all these images on the server with each request. I've seen things like.. ASCII text captcha: \/\/(_)\/\/ math puzzles: what is 7 minus 3 times 2? trivia questions: what tastes better, a toad or a popsicle? Maybe I'm just tilting at windmills here, but I'd like to have a less resource intensive, non-image based <noscript> compatible CAPTCHA if possible. Ideas?

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  • Auto Submitting a form (cURL)

    - by cast01
    Im writing a form to post data off to paypal, and this works fine, i create the form with hidden fields and then have a submit button that submits everything to paypal. However, when the user clicks that button, there is more that i want to do, for example change their cart status in the database. So, i want to be able to execute some code when they click submit and then post the data to paypal. I dont want to use javascript for this. My method at the moment is using cURL, the form posts back to the current page, i then check for $_POST data, do my other commands like updating the status of the cart, and then create a curl command, and post the form data to paypal. Now, it gets posted successfully, but the browser doesnt go off to paypal. At first i was just retirieving the result in a string and then echoing it out and i could see that the post was successful, then i set CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION to 1 assuming this would let the browser go off to paypal but it doesnt, what it seems to do is grab some stuff from paypal and put it on my page. Is using cURL the right thing for this? and if so, how do i get round this problem? I want to stay away from javascript for this as only users with javascript enabled would have their cart updated. The code im using for curl is below, the post_data is an array i created and then read key-value pairs into post_string. //Set cURL Options curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 30); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1)"); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_MAXREDIRS, 20); //Set Data to be Posted curl_setopt($curl_connection, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $post_string); //Execute Request curl_exec($curl_connection);

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  • Setting "submit"

    - by user361626
    Driving me a bit nuts this one, have tried alsorts of combination's... At the top of my file I have PHP Code: if (!ISSET ($_POST['submit'])) which tests if the submit has been hit, if not displays the form.... What I'd like to be able to to is generate a link that would be processed directly by the php code that the form would normally be submitted to... (does that make sense ?) so a generated link in the code looks like .. PHP Code: echo '<a href="index.php?submit&s_type=' . $s_type . '&d_height=' . $d_height . '&j_ref=' . $j_ref . '&j_name=' . j_name . '">' . $j_ref . '</a>'; The link generated looks like .. HTML Code: index.php?s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name I have tried setting "submit" with links like HTML Code: index.php?submit=submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name index.php?submit&s_type=partk&d_height=3312&j_ref=AS0001&j_name=j_name How do I create a link that sets "submit so it gets processed rather than going through the form ???

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • VS ASP.NET 500 Server Error

    - by rlb.usa
    Hey guys, I'm having a super weird problem with my VS 2008 solution. We had this hand-coded ASP.NET compiled web app on our old IIS6/Win2003 server, working great, moved it to our new IIS7/Win2008 server, still working great, but when I try to compile the application and publish it again to our new Win2008 server, I get server 500 errors. It's ASP.NET 2.0 with AJAX extensions and AJAX control toolkit. I'm not too great with server issues, or even sure if it is a server issue but here are some more symptoms... ? I know the website works (it only differs by some minor code fixes) and can use it's code on a development machine, there are no errors, and it publishes fine. Publishing (using the DLL files), and even not publishing and trying to use the code-behind files on our new server, both no success. The old website does work on the new server just fine. If I put a simple hello world html page in the website's virtual directory, with the old code, it works fine, but with the new code, that html page gets the 500 error. And in fact, oddly, I can add all the files to the website, only when I add the web.config, do I get the 500 error. The web.config has not changed. Tried stopping and restarting IIS What's the problem, here? Any ideas, what else can I do to troubleshoot the problem?

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  • Codeigniter only loads the default controller

    - by fh47331
    I am very new to CodeIgniter, but have been programming PHP for ages. I'm writing some software at the moment and using CI for the first time with it. The default controller is set to the first controller I want to action call 'login' (the controller is login.php, the view is login.php. When the form is submitted it calls the 'authenticate' controller. This executes fine, process the login data correctly and then does a redirect command (without any output to the screen prior) to the next page in this case 'newspage'. The problem is that the redirect, never reaches 'newspage' but the default controller runs again. It doesn't matter what I put ... ht tp://domain.name/anything ... (yes im using .htaccess to remove the index.php) the anything never gets called, just the default controller. I have left the standard 'welcome.php' controller and 'welcome_message.php' in the folders and even putting ht tp://domain.name/welcome all I get is the login screen! (Obviously there shouldn't be a space between the http - thats just done so it does not show as a hyperlink!) Can anyone tell me what i've done wrong!

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  • Understanding REST: is GET fundamentally incompatible with any "number of views" counter?

    - by cocotwo
    I'm trying to understand REST. Under REST a GET must not trigger something transactional on the server (this is a definition everybody agrees upon, it is fundamental to REST). So imagine you've got a website like stackoverflow.com (I say like so if I got the underlying details of SO wrong it doesn't change anything to my question), where everytime someone reads a question, using a GET, there's also some display showing "This question has been read 256 times". Now someone else reads that question. The counter now is at 257. The GET is transactional because the number of views got incremented and is now incremented again. The "number of views" is incremented in the DB, there's no arguing about that (for example on SO the number of time any question has been viewed is always displayed). So, is a REST GET fundamentally incompatible with any kind of "number of views" like functionality in a website? So should it want to be "RESTFUL", should the SO main page either stop display plain HTML links that are accessed using GETs or stop displaying the "this question has been viewed x times"? Because incrementing a counter in a DB is transactional and hence "unrestful"? EDIT just so that people Googling this can get some pointers: From http://www.xfront.com/REST-Web-Services.html : 4. All resources accessible via HTTP GET should be side-effect free. That is, the request should just return a representation of the resource. Invoking the resource should not result in modifying the resource. Now to me if the representation contains the "number of views", it is part of the resource [and in SO the "number of views" a question has is a very important information] and accessing it definitely modifies the resource. This is in sharp contrast with, say, a true RESTFUL HTTP GET like the one you can make on an Amazon S3 resource, where your GET is guaranteed not to modify the resource you get back. But then I'm still very confused.

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  • Viewing recently edited etherpads (note new 'etherpad' tag for open sourced etherpad code!)

    - by dreeves
    Prescript: The amazing etherpad was recently open sourced. Get it here: http://code.google.com/p/etherpad. This is the first question that I know of on StackOverflow about the etherpad code. If you're part of the etherpad open source community, you might want to subscribe to the RSS feed for questions tagged 'etherpad' just in case this catches on! My actual question, which assumes you have etherpad installed on your own server: First, here's a query to view recently edited pads: SELECT id,lastWriteTime,creationTime,headRev FROM PAD_SQLMETA ORDER BY lastWriteTime, headRev; Or, if you want to run it from a unix prompt: mysql -u root -pPASSWD etherpad -e "select id,lastWriteTime,creationTime,headRev from PAD_SQLMETA order by lastWriteTime, headRev" That's handy, however lastWriteTime actually gets updated every time someone so much as views a pad in their browser. I'd rather sort the pads by when they were actually last edited. There's probably a fancy SQL query involving a join with another table that would show actual last edit time. Does anyone know what that is? Alternatively, you could have a script that notices when headRev changes but that doesn't seem like the cleanest way to do it.

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  • Limiting the width of a TextBlock in Silverlight

    - by Druzil
    The obvious MaxWidth gets ignored and the text in the "DisplayBox" TextBlock displays the whole text even if this text continues past the parent container controls (to the edge of the silverlight area. <win:HierarchicalDataTemplate x:Key="hierarchicalTemplate" ItemsSource="{Binding _children}"> <Border BorderThickness="0" BorderBrush="Orange" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" Background="{Binding Converter={StaticResource BackgroundConverter}}"> <toolkit:DockPanel LastChildFill="True" Width="{Binding HeirarchyLevel, Converter={StaticResource WidthConverter}}" Height="20"> <Canvas toolkit:DockPanel.Dock="Right" Width="20" MouseLeftButtonUp="Arrow_MouseLeftButtonDown"> <Rectangle Width="20" Height="20" Fill="Transparent" /> <Line Stroke="Black" X1="5" Y1="10" X2="17" Y2="10" /> <Line Stroke="Black" X1="11" Y1="5" X2="17" Y2="10" /> <Line Stroke="Black" X1="11" Y1="15" X2="17" Y2="10" /> </Canvas> <Ellipse Canvas.Top="5" Width="10" Height="10" Fill="Green" toolkit:DockPanel.Dock="Right" MouseLeftButtonDown="Ellipse_MouseLeftButtonDown" /> <Canvas Width="Auto" Loaded="TextArea_Loaded"> <TextBlock Name="DisplayBox" FontFamily="Arial" FontSize="17" Foreground="Black" Width="Auto" Text="{Binding TaskName}" MouseLeftButtonUp="TextBlock_MouseLeftButtonUp" /> <TextBox Name="EditBox" FontFamily="Arial" FontSize="10" Foreground="Black" Height="20" Text="{Binding TaskName}" Visibility="Collapsed" LostFocus="TextBox_LostFocus" /> <Line Stroke="Black" X1="0" Y1="10" X2="202" Y2="10" Width="Auto" /> </Canvas> </toolkit:DockPanel> </Border> </win:HierarchicalDataTemplate>

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  • Best practices for (over)using Azure queues

    - by John
    Hi, I'm in the early phases of designing an Azure-based application. One of the things that attracts me to Azure is the scalability, given the variability of the demand I'm likely to expect. As such I'm trying to keep things loosely coupled so I can add instances when I need to. The recommendations I've seen for architecting an application for Azure include keeping web role logic to a minimum, and having processing done in worker roles, using queues to communicate and some sort of back-end store like SQL Azure or Azure Tables. This seems like a good idea to me as I can scale up either or both parts of the application without any issue. However I'm curious if there are any best practices (or if anyone has any experiences) for when it's best to just have the web role talk directly to the data store vs. sending data by the queue? I'm thinking of the case where I have a simple insert to do from the web role - while I could set this up as a message, send it on the queue, and have a worker role pick it up and do the insert, it seems like a lot of double-handling. However I also appreciate that it may be the case that this is better in the long run, in case the web role gets overwhelmed or more complex logic ends up being required for the insert. I realise this might be a case where the answer is "it depends entirely on the situation, check your perf metrics" - but if anyone has any thoughts I'd be very appreciative! Thanks John

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  • @dynamic property needs setter with multiple behaviors

    - by ambertch
    I have a class that contains multiple user objects and as such has an array of them as an instance variable: NSMutableArray *users; The tricky part is setting it. I am deserializing these objects from a server via Objective Resource, and for backend reasons users can only be returned as a long string of UIDs - what I have locally is a separate dictionary of users keyed to UIDs. Given the string uidString of comma separated UIDs I override the default setter and populate the actual user objects: @dynamic users; - (void)setUsers:(id)uidString { users = [NSMutableArray arrayWithArray: [[User allUsersDictionary] objectsForKeys:[(NSString*)uidString componentsSeparatedByString:@","]]]; } The problem is this: I now serialize these to database using SQLitePO, which stores these as the array of user objects, not the original string. So when I retrieve it from database the setter mistakenly treats this array of user objects as a string! Where I actually want to adjust the setter's behavior when it gets this object from DB vs. over the network. I can't just make the getter serialize back into a string without tearing up large code that reference this array of user objects, and I tried to detect in the setter whether I have a string or an array coming in: if ([uidString respondsToSelector:@selector(addObject)]) { // Already an array, so don't do anything - just assign users = uidString but no success... so I'm kind of stuck - any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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  • Where should my "filtering" logic reside with Linq-2-SQL and ASP.NET-MVC in View or Controller?

    - by Nate Bross
    I have a main Table, with several "child" tables. TableA and TableAChild1 and TableAChild2. I have a view which shows the information in TableA, and then has two columns of all items in TableAChild1 and TableAChild2 respectivly, they are rendered with Partial views. Both child tables have a bit field for VisibleToAll, and depending on user role, I'd like to either display all related rows, or related rows where VisibleToAll = true. This code, feels like it should be in the controller, but I'm not sure how it would look, because as it stands, the controller (limmited version) looks like this: return View("TableADetailView", repos.GetTableA(id)); Would something like this be even work, and would it be bad what if my DataContext gets submitted, would that delete all the rows that have VisibleToAll == false? var tblA = repos.GetTableA(id); tblA.TableAChild1 = tblA.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); tblA.TableAChild2 = tblA.TableAChild2.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); return View("TableADetailView", tblA); It would also be simple to add that logic to the RendarPartial call from the main view: <% Html.RenderPartial("TableAChild1", Model.TableAChild1.Where(tmp => tmp.VisibleToAll == true); %>

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