Search Results

Search found 10695 results on 428 pages for 'some none'.

Page 391/428 | < Previous Page | 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398  | Next Page >

  • position:absolute within border-radius and overflow:hidden

    - by JaNightmare
    I had a problem with border-radius in webkit browsers and found the solution at the following URL: How to make CSS3 rounded corners hide overflow in Chrome/Opera but iam using a another element with position: absolute; inside this now I need to make the caption with rounded border too, but do not know how note: i can't use another border-radius in caption, because this will have an animation see the code with: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Problem</title> <style type="text/css"> img { border: 0; } a { text-decoration: none; } .wrap-events { float: left; position: relative; width: 500px; height: 250px; } .events { overflow: hidden; -webkit-border-radius: 50px; -moz-border-radius: 50px; border-radius: 50px; } .caption { position: absolute; width: 100%; bottom: 0; color: #FFFFFF; background-color: #151515; font: 12px "Arial", Helvetica, sans-serif; opacity: 0.6; border-radius: 0 0 50px 50px; /* add border-radius to caption */ } .caption p { padding: 10px; } </style> </head> <body> <div class="wrap-events"> <div class="events"> <a href="#"> <img src="http://www.cg-auto.com.br/forum/imagens/imagens_news/26c4dc4359edcfd4c6871ee1fa958539.jpg" alt="image"> </a> <div class="caption"> <p>This is a caption</p> </div> </div> </div> <button id="slide">Slide It!</button> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $('#slide').click(function(){ $('.caption').hide().slideDown(2000); }); </script> </body> </html> cheers

    Read the article

  • Is this a problem typically solved with IOC?

    - by Dirk
    My current application allows users to define custom web forms through a set of admin screens. it's essentially an EAV type application. As such, I can't hard code HTML or ASP.NET markup to render a given page. Instead, the UI requests an instance of a Form object from the service layer, which in turn constructs one using a several RDMBS tables. Form contains the kind of classes you would expect to see in such a context: Form= IEnumerable<FormSections>=IEnumerable<FormFields> Here's what the service layer looks like: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenForm(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } } Everything works splendidly (for a while). The UI is none the wiser about what sections/fields exist in a given form: It happily renders the Form object it receives into a functional ASP.NET page. A few weeks later, I get a new requirement from the business: When viewing a non-editable (i.e. read-only) versions of a form, certain field values should be merged together and other contrived/calculated fields should are added. No problem I say. Simply amend my service class so that its methods are more explicit: public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId){ //construct and a concrete implementation of Form //apply additional transformations to the form } } Again everything works great and balance has been restored to the force. The UI continues to be agnostic as to what is in the Form, and our separation of concerns is achieved. Only a few short weeks later, however, the business puts out a new requirement: in certain scenarios, we should apply only some of the form transformations I referenced above. At this point, it feels like the "explicit method" approach has reached a dead end, unless I want to end up with an explosion of methods (OpenFormViewingScenario1, OpenFormViewingScenario2, etc). Instead, I introduce another level of indirection: public interface IFormViewCreator{ void CreateView(Form form); } public class MyFormService: IFormService{ public Form OpenFormForEditing(int formId){ //construct and return a concrete implementation of Form } public Form OpenFormForViewing(int formId, IFormViewCreator formViewCreator){ //construct a concrete implementation of Form //apply transformations to the dynamic field list return formViewCreator.CreateView(form); } } On the surface, this seems like acceptable approach and yet there is a certain smell. Namely, the UI, which had been living in ignorant bliss about the implementation details of OpenFormForViewing, must possess knowledge of and create an instance of IFormViewCreator. My questions are twofold: Is there a better way to achieve the composability I'm after? (perhaps by using an IoC container or a home rolled factory to create the concrete IFormViewCreator)? Did I fundamentally screw up the abstraction here?

    Read the article

  • synchronized in java - Proper use

    - by ZoharYosef
    I'm building a simple program to use in multi processes (Threads). My question is more to understand - when I have to use a reserved word synchronized? Do I need to use this word in any method that affects the bone variables? I know I can put it on any method that is not static, but I want to understand more. thank you! here is the code: public class Container { // *** data members *** public static final int INIT_SIZE=10; // the first (init) size of the set. public static final int RESCALE=10; // the re-scale factor of this set. private int _sp=0; public Object[] _data; /************ Constructors ************/ public Container(){ _sp=0; _data = new Object[INIT_SIZE]; } public Container(Container other) { // copy constructor this(); for(int i=0;i<other.size();i++) this.add(other.at(i)); } /** return true is this collection is empty, else return false. */ public synchronized boolean isEmpty() {return _sp==0;} /** add an Object to this set */ public synchronized void add (Object p){ if (_sp==_data.length) rescale(RESCALE); _data[_sp] = p; // shellow copy semantic. _sp++; } /** returns the actual amount of Objects contained in this collection */ public synchronized int size() {return _sp;} /** returns true if this container contains an element which is equals to ob */ public synchronized boolean isMember(Object ob) { return get(ob)!=-1; } /** return the index of the first object which equals ob, if none returns -1 */ public synchronized int get(Object ob) { int ans=-1; for(int i=0;i<size();i=i+1) if(at(i).equals(ob)) return i; return ans; } /** returns the element located at the ind place in this container (null if out of range) */ public synchronized Object at(int p){ if (p>=0 && p<size()) return _data[p]; else return null; }

    Read the article

  • 2 Shaders using the same vertex data

    - by Fonix
    So im having problems rendering using 2 different shaders. Im currently rendering shapes that represent dice, what i want is if the dice is selected by the user, it draws an outline by drawing the dice completely red and slightly scaled up, then render the proper dice over it. At the moment some of the dice, for some reason, render the wrong dice for the outline, but the right one for the proper foreground dice. Im wondering if they aren't getting their vertex data mixed up somehow. Im not sure if doing something like this is even allowed in openGL: glGenBuffers(1, &_vertexBuffer); glBindBuffer(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, _vertexBuffer); glBufferData(GL_ARRAY_BUFFER, numVertices*sizeof(GLfloat), vertices, GL_STATIC_DRAW); glEnableVertexAttribArray(effect->vertCoord); glVertexAttribPointer(effect->vertCoord, 3, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, 0); glEnableVertexAttribArray(effect->toon_vertCoord); glVertexAttribPointer(effect->toon_vertCoord, 3, GL_FLOAT, GL_FALSE, 0, 0); im trying to bind the vertex data to 2 different shaders here when i load my first shader i have: vertCoord = glGetAttribLocation(TexAndLighting, "position"); and the other shader has: toon_vertCoord = glGetAttribLocation(Toon, "position"); if I use the shaders independently of each other they work fine, but when i try to render both one on top of the other they get the model mixed up some times. here is how my draw function looks: - (void) draw { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindVertexArrayOES(_vertexArray); effect->modelViewMatrix = mvm; effect->numberColour = GLKVector4Make(numbers[colorSelected].r, numbers[colorSelected].g, numbers[colorSelected].b, 1); effect->faceColour = GLKVector4Make(faceColors[colorSelected].r, faceColors[colorSelected].g, faceColors[colorSelected].b, 1); if(selected){ [effect drawOutline]; //this function prepares the shader glDrawElements(GL_TRIANGLES, numIndices, GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, 0); } [effect prepareToDraw]; //same with this one glDrawElements(GL_TRIANGLES, numIndices, GL_UNSIGNED_SHORT, 0); } this is what it looks like, as you can see most of the outlines are using the wrong dice, or none at all: links to full code: http://pastebin.com/yDKb3wrD Dice.mm //rendering stuff http://pastebin.com/eBK0pzrK Effects.mm //shader stuff http://pastebin.com/5LtDAk8J //my shaders, shouldn't be anything to do with them though TL;DR: trying to use 2 different shaders that use the same vertex data, but its getting the models mixed up when rendering using both at the same time, well thats what i think is going wrong, quite stumped actually.

    Read the article

  • Distinguishing between failure and end of file in read loop

    - by celtschk
    The idiomatic loop to read from an istream is while (thestream >> value) { // do something with value } Now this loop has one problem: It will not distinguish if the loop terminated due to end of file, or due to an error. For example, take the following test program: #include <iostream> #include <sstream> void readbools(std::istream& is) { bool b; while (is >> b) { std::cout << (b ? "T" : "F"); } std::cout << " - " << is.good() << is.eof() << is.fail() << is.bad() << "\n"; } void testread(std::string s) { std::istringstream is(s); is >> std::boolalpha; readbools(is); } int main() { testread("true false"); testread("true false tr"); } The first call to testread contains two valid bools, and therefore is not an error. The second call ends with a third, incomplete bool, and therefore is an error. Nevertheless, the behaviour of both is the same. In the first case, reading the boolean value fails because there is none, while in the second case it fails because it is incomplete, and in both cases EOF is hit. Indeed, the program above outputs twice the same line: TF - 0110 TF - 0110 To solve this problem, I thought of the following solution: while (thestream >> std::ws && !thestream.eof() && thestream >> value) { // do something with value } The idea is to detect regular EOF before actually trying to extract the value. Because there might be whitespace at the end of the file (which would not be an error, but cause read of the last item to not hit EOF), I first discard any whitespace (which cannot fail) and then test for EOF. Only if I'm not at the end of file, I try to read the value. For my example program, it indeed seems to work, and I get TF - 0100 TF - 0110 So in the first case (correct input), fail() returns false. Now my question: Is this solution guaranteed to work, or was I just (un-)lucky that it happened to give the desired result? Also: Is there a simpler (or, if my solution is wrong, a correct) way to get the desired result?

    Read the article

  • Selenium navigation inside foreach loop

    - by smudgedlens
    I am having an issue with navigation. I get a list of rows from an html table. I iterate over the rows and scrape information from them. But there is also a link on the row that I click to go to more information related to the row to scrape. Then I navigate back to the page with the original table. This works for the first row, but for the subsequent rows, it throws an exception. I look at my row collection after the first time the link inside a row is clicked, and none of them have the correct values like they did before I clicked the link. I believe that there is something going on when I navigate to a different URL that I'm not getting. My code is below. How do I get this working so I can iterate over the parent table, click the links in each row, navigate to the child table, but still continue iterating over the rows in the parent table? private List<Document> getResults() { var documents = new List<Document>(); //Results IWebElement docsTable = this.webDriver.FindElements(By.TagName("table")) .Where(table => table.Text.Contains("Document List")) .FirstOrDefault(); var validDocRowRegex = new Regex(@"^(\d{3}\s+)"); var docRows = docsTable.FindElements(By.TagName("tr")) .Where(row => //It throws an exception with .FindElement() when there isn't one. row.FindElements(By.TagName("td")).FirstOrDefault() != null && //Yeah, I don't get this one either. I negate the match and so it works?? !validDocRowRegex.IsMatch( row.FindElement(By.TagName("td")).Text)) .ToList(); foreach (var docRow in docRows) { //Todo: find out why this is crashing on some documents. var cells = docRow.FindElements(By.TagName("td")); var document = new Document { DocID = Convert.ToInt32(cells.First().Text), PNum = Convert.ToInt32(cells[1].Text), AuthNum = Convert.ToInt32(cells[2].Text) }; //Go to history for the current document. cells.Where(cell => cell.FindElements(By.TagName("a")).FirstOrDefault() != null) .FirstOrDefault().Click(); //Todo: scrape child table. this.webDriver.Navigate().Back(); } return documents; }

    Read the article

  • Why does OpenGL's glDrawArrays() fail with GL_INVALID_OPERATION under Core Profile 3.2, but not 3.3 or 4.2?

    - by metaleap
    I have OpenGL rendering code calling glDrawArrays that works flawlessly when the OpenGL context is (automatically / implicitly obtained) 4.2 but fails consistently (GL_INVALID_OPERATION) with an explicitly requested OpenGL core context 3.2. (Shaders are always set to #version 150 in both cases but that's beside the point here I suspect.) According to specs, there are only two instances when glDrawArrays() fails with GL_INVALID_OPERATION: "if a non-zero buffer object name is bound to an enabled array and the buffer object's data store is currently mapped" -- I'm not doing any buffer mapping at this point "if a geometry shader is active and mode? is incompatible with [...]" -- nope, no geometry shaders as of now. Furthermore: I have verified & double-checked that it's only the glDrawArrays() calls failing. Also double-checked that all arguments passed to glDrawArrays() are identical under both GL versions, buffer bindings too. This happens across 3 different nvidia GPUs and 2 different OSes (Win7 and OSX, both 64-bit -- of course, in OSX we have only the 3.2 context, no 4.2 anyway). It does not happen with an integrated "Intel HD" GPU but for that one, I only get an automatic implicit 3.3 context (trying to explicitly force a 3.2 core profile with this GPU via GLFW here fails the window creation but that's an entirely different issue...) For what it's worth, here's the relevant routine excerpted from the render loop, in Golang: func (me *TMesh) render () { curMesh = me curTechnique.OnRenderMesh() gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glVertBuf) if me.glElemBuf > 0 { gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, me.glElemBuf) gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.DrawElements(me.glMode, me.glNumIndices, gl.UNSIGNED_INT, gl.Pointer(nil)) gl.BindBuffer(gl.ELEMENT_ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } else { gl.VertexAttribPointer(curProg.AttrLocs["aPos"], 3, gl.FLOAT, gl.FALSE, 0, gl.Pointer(nil)) /* BOOM! */ gl.DrawArrays(me.glMode, 0, me.glNumVerts) } gl.BindBuffer(gl.ARRAY_BUFFER, 0) } So of course this is part of a bigger render-loop, though the whole "*TMesh" construction for now is just two instances, one a simple cube and the other a simple pyramid. What matters is that the entire drawing loop works flawlessly with no errors reported when GL is queried for errors under both 3.3 and 4.2, yet on 3 nvidia GPUs with an explicit 3.2 core profile fails with an error code that according to spec is only invoked in two specific situations, none of which as far as I can tell apply here. What could be wrong here? Have you ever run into this? Any ideas what I have been missing?

    Read the article

  • why is that we always get an extra column show in datagrid

    - by prince23
    hi, i have four columns specfied but why is that i always see one extra column shown in the output this is my xaml code <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="White" Height="492" Width="453"> <sdk:DataGrid MinHeight="100" x:Name="dgCounty" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" Grid.Row="1" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="5,5,5,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgCounty_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" SelectionMode="Extended" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="VisibleWhenSelected"> <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Width="24" Height="24" Click="Details_Click"> <Image x:Name="img" Source="Images/detail.JPG" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="ID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeFName}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="MailID"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding EmployeeMailID}" /> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> is there any setting that we need to do to remove that extra column? thanks in advance for the help.

    Read the article

  • IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

    - by akach
    I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

    Read the article

  • Phonegap (Cordova) iOS button click

    - by JNM
    I am trying to create a very simple phone gap application for iOS. I am using query mobile. the problem is, that i can't get javascript event to fire on button click. Code i have now: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Title</title> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, minimum-scale=1, maximum-scale=1"> <meta charset="utf-8"> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="js/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.css" /> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="cordova-1.8.1.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="js/jquery-1.8.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="js/jquery.mobile-1.2.0.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> document.addEventListener("deviceready", onDeviceReady, false); function onDeviceReady() { } function showAlert() { navigator.notification.alert("Cordova is working"); } </script> </head> <body> <div data-role="page" id="options" data-add-back-btn="true" data-back-btn-text="Atgal"> <div data-role="header" data-position="fixed"> <h1>Title</h1> </div> <div data-role="content"> <h1>Alert</h1> <p><a href="#" onclick="showAlert(); return false;" data-role="button">Show alert</a></p> </div> </div> </body> </html> I tried multiple solutions to fix my problem, but none of them works. When have button with # in href, it doesn't event change the color on click. When i add url, it changes color. But it never call javascript function. Another problem is, that document.addEventListener("deviceready", onDeviceReady, false); works only in the index page. If i press button in initial page which redirects to another page, OnDeviceReady function is never called. Anybody has any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Model self referential collections in Rails

    - by Najitaka
    I have written an application for an online clothing store in Rails 2.3.5. I want to show related Products when a customer views the Product Detail page. For example, if the customer views the detail page for a suit, I'd like to display the accessory products that match the dress such as a vest, shoes, and belt. I have named the related products an Ensemble. However, the vest, shoes, and belts are also Products which is what has me struggling. I have it working as follows but I know it's not the Rails way. I have a Products table for all of the products. Not important here but I also have a ProductDetails table. I have an Ensembles table that has the following columns: product_id - the main or origination product, the one displayed on the detail page outfit_id - the related or accessory product In setting up the data, on the Products list, for each Product I have an Ensemble link. This link takes you to the index action in the Ensembles controller. Using the id from the "main" Product, I find all of the associated Ensemble rows by product_id or I create a new ensemble and assign the id from the main product as the product_id. I'd like to just be able to do @product.related_products to get an Ensemble collection. Also on the index page I list the columns of the main product so the user can be sure their main product was the one they selected from the list. I also have a select list of the other products, with an Add to Ensemble action. Finally on the same index page, I have a table that displays the products that are already in the ensemble and in that list each row has a destroy link to remove a particular product from the ensemble. It would be nice if given a single Ensemble row @ensemble I could do @ensemble.product to get the Product related to the outfit_id of the ensemble row. I've got it working without associations but I have to run queries in the controller to build my own @product, @ensemble, and @ensembles collections. Also the only way I found to destroy an ensemble row is by Ensemble.connection.delete(sql to delete), simple @ensemble.destroy doesn't work. Anyone know how I would set up the associations or have a link to a site explaining a similar setup. None of the examples I found use the same table. They have A related to B through C. I want A related to other A through B.

    Read the article

  • C# 'could not found' existing method

    - by shybovycha
    Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

    Read the article

  • What's causing this background-image to display "incorrectly" in Opera and Firefox?

    - by Sukasa
    I know this is something I'm probably doing wrong, so please don't incinerate me for the thread title. I'm trying to put together a small personal website using HTML 5/CSS3. I've checked with the w3c validator and the site and CSS file fully conform according to the validator (However the validator has a warning attached that it might not be perfect). I'm not sure how to explain it without a picture, so here's a comparison of Chrome/Opera/Firefox: So, you can sorta see how in Chrome the background image is in one non-repeating piece, whereas in Opera/Firefox the image has, oddly, been broken up and placed slightly differently. I'm confident this is due to an error on my part, but I've had no luck at all figuring out why the image is being mangled in Opera and Firefox. Here's the CSS that's relevant to this issue: /* Content Pane */ .content { position: absolute; left: 220px; width: 800px; top: 80px; min-height: 550px; background-color: rgba(8,12,42,0.85); } /* Headers */ .content hgroup { background: url("Header_Flat.png") no-repeat left top; min-height: 38px; padding-left: 28px; text-shadow: 0 0 8px #FFA9FF; color: Black; text-decoration: none; } .content hgroup h1 { display: block; } .content hgroup h3 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } .content hgroup h4 { display: inline; position: relative; top: -12px; left: 20px; font-size: xx-small; text-shadow: 0 0 6px #AFF9FF; } And the HTML: <hgroup> <h1>New Site!</h1> <h3>Now with Bloom!</h3> <h4> - Posted Tuesday, May 11th 2010</h4> </hgroup> Can anyone see what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • What is user gcc's purpose in requesting code possibly like this?

    - by James Morris
    In the question between syntax, are there any equal function the user gcc is requesting only what I can imagine to be the following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <string.h> /* estimated magic values */ #define MAXFUNCS 8 #define MAXFUNCLEN 3 int the_mainp_compare_func(char** mainp) { char mainp0[MAXFUNCS][MAXFUNCLEN] = { 0 }; char mainp1[MAXFUNCS][MAXFUNCLEN] = { 0 }; char* psrc, *pdst; int i = 0; int func = 0; psrc = mainp[0]; printf("scanning mainp[0] for functions...\n"); while(*psrc) { if (*psrc == '\0') break; else if (*psrc == ',') ++psrc; else { mainp0[func][0] = *psrc++; if (*psrc == ',') { mainp0[func][1] = '\0'; psrc++; } else if (*psrc !='\0') { mainp0[func][1] = *psrc++; mainp0[func][2] = '\0'; } printf("function: '%s'\n", mainp0[func]); } ++func; } printf("\nscanning mainp[1] for functions...\n"); psrc = mainp[1]; func = 0; while(*psrc) { if (*psrc == '\0') break; else if (*psrc == ',') ++psrc; else { mainp1[func][0] = *psrc++; if (*psrc == ',') { mainp1[func][1] = '\0'; psrc++; } else if (*psrc !='\0') { mainp1[func][1] = *psrc++; mainp1[func][2] = '\0'; } printf("function: '%s'\n", mainp1[func]); } ++func; } printf("\ncomparing functions in '%s' with those in '%s'\n", mainp[0], mainp[1] ); int func2; func = 0; while (*mainp0[func] != '\0') { func2 = 0; while(*mainp1[func2] != '\0') { printf("comparing %s with %s\n", mainp0[func], mainp1[func2]); if (strcmp(mainp0[func], mainp1[func2++]) == 0) return 1; /* not sure what to return here */ } ++func; } /* no matches == failure */ return -1; /* not sure what to return on failure */ } int main(int argc, char** argv) { char* mainp[] = { "P,-Q,Q,-R", "R,A,P,B,F" }; if (the_mainp_compare_func(mainp) == 1) printf("a match was found, but I don't know what to do with it!\n"); else printf("no match found, and I'm none the wiser!\n"); return 0; } My question is, what is it's purpose?

    Read the article

  • Meshing different systems of keys together in XML Schema

    - by Tom W
    Hello SO, I'd like to ask people's thoughts on an XSD problem I've been pondering. The system I am trying to model is thus: I have a general type that represents some item in a hypothetical model. The type is abstract and will be inherited by all manner of different model objects, so the model is heterogeneous. Furthermore, some types exist only as children of other types. Objects are to be given an identifier, but the scope of uniqueness of this identifier varies. Some objects - we will call them P (for Parent) objects - must have a globally unique identifier. This is straightforward and can use the xs:key schema element. Other objects (we can call them C objects, for Child) are children of a P object and must have an identifier that is unique only in the scope of that parent. For example, object P1 has two children, object C1 and C2, and object P2 has one child, object C3. In this system, the identifiers given could be as follows: P1: 1 (1st P object globally) P2: 2 (2nd P object globally) C1: 1 (1st C object of P1) C2: 2 (2nd C object of P1) C3: 1 (1st C object of P2) I want the identity syntax of every model object to be identical if possible, therefore my first pass at implementing is to define a single type: <xs:complexType name="ModelElement"> <xs:attribute name="IDMode" type="IdentityMode"/> <xs:attribute name="Identifier" type="xs:string"/> </xs:complexType> where the IdentityMode is an enumerated value: <xs:simpleType name="IdentityMode"> <xs:restriction base="xs:string"> <xs:enumeration value="Identified"/> <xs:enumeration value="Indexed"/> <xs:enumeration value="None"/> </xs:restriction> </xs:simpleType> Here "Identified" signifies a global identifier, and "Indexed" indicates an identifier local only to the parent. My question is, how do I enforce these uniqueness conditions using unique, key or other schema elements based on the IdentityMode property of the given subtype of ModelElement?

    Read the article

  • PHP Shared Sessions across Domain

    - by bigstylee
    Hi, I have seen a few answers to this on SOO but most of these are concerned with the use of subdomains, of which none have worked for me. The common one being that the use of session.cookie_domain, which from my understanding will only work with subdomains. I am interested in a solution that deals with deals with entirely different domains (and includes the possibility of subdomains). Unfortunately project deadlines being what they are, time is not on my side, so I turn to SOO's expertise and experience. The current project brief is to be able to log into one site which currently only stores the user_id in the session and then be able to retrieve this value while on a different domain within the same server enviroment. Session data is being stored/retrieved from a database where the session id is the primary key. I am hoping to find a "light wieght" and "easy" to implement solution. The system is utlising an in-house Model View Controller design pattern, so all requests (including different domains) are run through a single bootstrap script. Using the domain name as a variable, this determines what context to display to the user. One option that did look like to have potential is the use of a hidden image and using the alt tag to set the user id. My first impressions suggest this immediately seems "too easy" (if possible) and riddled with security flaws. Disscuss? Another option which I considered is using the IP and User Agent for authentication but again I feel this not going to be a reliable option due to shared networks and changing IP addresses. My third option (and preferred) which I considered and as yet not seen discussed is using htaccess to fool the user into thinking that they are on a different domain when infact apache is redirecting; something like www.foo.com/index.php?domain=bar.com&controller=news/categoires/1 but displays to the user as www.bar.com/news/categories/1 foo.com represents the "main site domain" which all requests are run through and bar.com is what the user thinks they are accessing. The controller request dictates the page and view being requested. Is this possible? Are there other options? Pros/Cons? Thanks in advanced!!!

    Read the article

  • CSS- removing horizontal space in list menu using display inline property

    - by Kayote
    Hi All, Im new to CSS and have a set target of learning & publishing my website in CSS by the end of the month. My question: Im trying to build a CSS horizontal menu with hover drop downs, however, when I use the 'display: inline' property with li (list) items, I get horizontal spaces between the li (list) items in the bar. How do I remove this space? Here is the html: <div id="tabas_menu"> <ul> <li id="tabBut0" class="tabBut">Overview</li> <li id="tabBut1" class="tabBut">Collar</li> <li id="tabBut2" class="tabBut">Sleeves</li> <li id="tabBut3" class="tabBut">Body</li> </ul> </div> And here is the CSS: #tabas_menu { position: absolute; background: rgb(123,345,567); top: 110px; left: 200px; } ul#tabas_menu { padding: 0; margin: 0; } .tabBut { display: inline; white-space: list-style: none; background: -webkit-gradient(linear, 0% 0%, 0% 100%, from(rgba(255,142,190,1)),to(rgba(188,22,93,1))); background: -moz-linear-gradient(top, rgba(255,142,190,1), rgba(188,22,93,1)); font-family: helvetica, calibri, sans-serif; font-size: 16px; font-weight: bold; line-height: 20px; text-shadow: 1px 1px 1px rgba(99,99,99,0.5); -moz-border-radius: 0.3em; -moz-box-shadow: 0px 0px 2px rgba(0,0,0,0.5); -webkit-border-radius: 0.3em; -webkit-box-shadow: 0px 0px 2px rgba(0,0,0,0.5); padding: 6px 18px; border: 1px solid rgba(0,0,0,0.4); margin: 0; } I can get the space removed using the 'float: left/right' property but its bugging me as to why I cannot achieve the same effect by just using the display property.

    Read the article

  • Could not load file or assembly ... or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a progra

    - by Dan
    I am getting the following error message when compiling or attempting to run my application on Windows 7 64 bit. I've scoured the internet and many people have the same error message however none of the solutions address my problem or situation. Using VS 2010. Error 38 Could not load file or assembly 'file:///D:/Projects/Windows Projects/Weld/Components/FileAttachments/FileAttachments/FileAttachments/bin/x86/Debug/FileAttaching.dll' or one of its dependencies. An attempt was made to load a program with an incorrect format. Line 1212, position 5. D:\Projects\Windows Projects\Weld\Weld\Weld.UI\frmMain.resx 1212 5 Weld.UI Ok, so I have 2 projects a UI project and a FileAttachment project. UI project has a reference to FileAttachment project. When I compile UI project in "Any CPU" mode everything works fine and it runs. I assume 'Any CPU' will run in 64bit mode when I compile as that is the platform I am using. I want to run/compile as x86 so I try to do that, so I change configuration for all projects to x86 and verify that these configurations are compiling to x86. I compile and get the error as stated above. I find it odd that it compiles and works fine in 64bit but not 32bit. However when compiled and deployed to users as 'Any CPU', if these users have x86 it still works for them no problem. I just can't compile or run as x86 on my PC. Again, I can compile as Any CPU and deploy to a 32bit PC no problem. Neither project are referencing any 64bit only dlls. Both projects are verified to be targetting 32bit dll's and .NET Framework assemblies. I need to compile and run this locally under 32bit mode. I need JIT edit/continue among other things. Here is the line of code in the resx file that is causing the problem: </data> <data name="Appearance17.Image" type="System.Drawing.Bitmap, System.Drawing" mimetype="application/x-microsoft.net.object.bytearray.base64"> <value> The resx file is verified to be generated for .NET 2.0 amnd is only referencing .NET 2.0 assemblies and not .NET 4.0 versions. Any ideas here? I've searched the net and have found hundreds of people with the same error message but a different problem.

    Read the article

  • Sorting a list of numbers with modified cost

    - by David
    First, this was one of the four problems we had to solve in a project last year and I couldn’t find a suitable algorithm so we handle in a brute force solution. Problem: The numbers are in a list that is not sorted and supports only one type of operation. The operation is defined as follows: Given a position i and a position j the operation moves the number at position i to position j without altering the relative order of the other numbers. If i j, the positions of the numbers between positions j and i - 1 increment by 1, otherwise if i < j the positions of the numbers between positions i+1 and j decreases by 1. This operation requires i steps to find a number to move and j steps to locate the position to which you want to move it. Then the number of steps required to move a number of position i to position j is i+j. We need to design an algorithm that given a list of numbers, determine the optimal (in terms of cost) sequence of moves to rearrange the sequence. Attempts: Part of our investigation was around NP-Completeness, we make it a decision problem and try to find a suitable transformation to any of the problems listed in Garey and Johnson’s book: Computers and Intractability with no results. There is also no direct reference (from our point of view) to this kind of variation in Donald E. Knuth’s book: The art of Computer Programing Vol. 3 Sorting and Searching. We also analyzed algorithms to sort linked lists but none of them gives a good idea to find de optimal sequence of movements. Note that the idea is not to find an algorithm that orders the sequence, but one to tell me the optimal sequence of movements in terms of cost that organizes the sequence, you can make a copy and sort it to analyze the final position of the elements if you want, in fact we may assume that the list contains the numbers from 1 to n, so we know where we want to put each number, we are just concerned with minimizing the total cost of the steps. We tested several greedy approaches but all of them failed, divide and conquer sorting algorithms can’t be used because they swap with no cost portions of the list and our dynamic programing approaches had to consider many cases. The brute force recursive algorithm takes all the possible combinations of movements from i to j and then again all the possible moments of the rest of the element’s, at the end it returns the sequence with less total cost that sorted the list, as you can imagine the cost of this algorithm is brutal and makes it impracticable for more than 8 elements. Our observations: n movements is not necessarily cheaper than n+1 movements (unlike swaps in arrays that are O(1)). There are basically two ways of moving one element from position i to j: one is to move it directly and the other is to move other elements around i in a way that it reaches the position j. At most you make n-1 movements (the untouched element reaches its position alone). If it is the optimal sequence of movements then you didn’t move the same element twice.

    Read the article

  • JQuery not copying state dropdown list 1 to DDL2 on checkbox change

    - by user1001411
    I've looked at similar posts on the subject but none of the recommended solutions have worked for me so I'm not sure where I'm going wrong. I have a billing and shipping address form with a dropdown list for the state. Upon checking/unchecking the "billing address same as shipping" everything copies over except the state dropdown list. The state dropdown list is populated from a SQLDataSource state table. Here's my code: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="../Scripts/jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('input:checkbox[id*=chkCopy]').change(function () { if ($(this).is(':checked')) { $('input:text[id*=TextBox5]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox1]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox7]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox2]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox9]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox3]').val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox12]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox4]').val()); $('select#DropDownList6').val($("select#DropDownList1").val()); $('input:text[id*=TextBox14]').val($('input:text[id*=TextBox6]').val()); } else { $('input:text[id*=TextBox5]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox7]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox9]').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox12]').val(''); $('select#DropDownList6').val(''); $('input:text[id*=TextBox14]').val(''); } }); }); and here is my SQL for the DDL: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" DataTextField="Descr" DataValueField="ID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1" Width="254"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ASPNETDBConnectionString1 %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [xrefState]"> </asp:SqlDataSource> the other one: <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList6" runat="server" DataTextField="Descr" DataValueField="ID" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource5" Width="254"> </asp:DropDownList> <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource5" runat="server" ConnectionString="<%$ ConnectionStrings:ASPNETDBConnectionString1 %>" SelectCommand="SELECT * FROM [xrefState]"> </asp:SqlDataSource>

    Read the article

  • Need Help Figuring Out Why Text Is Overflowing My Page

    - by Brian
    Like the title says, I am having issues with a VERY long string overflowing my page. I tried some overflow techniques, but none seem to work. I had previously posted this as a Primefaces problem, but have since learned that it is not a Primefaces issue. Anyway, if anybody has any suggestions on how I can fix this, I would appreciate it. I will post my HTML below so you can see what I am talking about. Thanks for taking the time to read, and have a great day. :-) <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title> problem </title> <style type="text/css"> span.troubleSpan { overflow: scroll; } </style> </head> <body> <h4> problem </h4> <div> <table border="1"> <tr> <td> <span>cell</span> </td> <td> <span>&nbsp;</span> </td> <td> <span>cell</span> </td> <td> <span class="troubleSpan">asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf</span> </td> <td> <span>&nbsp;</span> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • IE not showing jquery append() images

    - by Johannes Ruuska
    Ok, so i took John Raasch's slideshow script and modyfied it too dynamicly fetch images from folders on the server through ajax. The slideshow work like a charm in FF and Chrome but IE is not showing the images. And since IE's javascript debugging possibilities is close to none I cant figure out what is crashing. Javascript (indenting got messed up when pasting here but you get the code anyway): function slideSwitch() { var $active = $('#box_bildspel IMG.active'); if ( $active.length == 0 ) $active = $('#box_bildspel IMG:last'); var $next = $active.next().length ? $active.next() : $('#box_bildspel IMG:first'); $active.addClass('last-active'); $next.css({opacity: 0.0}) .addClass('active') .animate({opacity: 1.0}, 1000, function() { $active.removeClass('active last-active'); }); } $(document).ready(function(){ $.get('includes/bildspel.php?page='+page, function(r){ var file = r.split('!'); var path = 'pic/bildspel/'+page+'/'; var data = ''; if(file != null && file != ''){ $.each(file, function(key, value){ if(key == 0) { $('#box_bildspel').append('<img src="'+path+value+'" class="active"></img>'); //console.log(path+value); } else { $('#box_bildspel').append('<img src="'+path+value+'"></img>'); //console.log(path+value); } }); } if(file.length > 1){ $(function() { setInterval( "slideSwitch()", 4000 ); }); } }); }); PHP: <?php function getimgs($page) { $path = '../pic/bildspel/'.$page; $files = ''; if ($handle = opendir($path)) { while (false !== ($file = readdir($handle))) { if ($file !== '.' && $file !== '..') { $files .= $file.'!'; } } closedir($handle); echo substr_replace($files ,"",-1);; } } getimgs($_GET['page']); ?> Tested in IE 7 & 8 Any ideas? I have a deadline on this site for tomorrow (april 23) would appreciate VERY much if someone could figure this on out for me, thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • video player for HTML 5 page not loading

    - by philippe
    I'm using VideoJS to as my video player for a project I've been working on. Basically I have a div, and I wanted to have the video player within that div, however when I load the page nothing happens, and the video is never played. In fact, the video is never loaded nor shown in the page. I basically copied the example from VideoJS' page. Any thoughts? <div class="video-js-box"> <!-- Using the Video for Everybody Embed Code http://camendesign.com/code/video_for_everybody --> <div style="position: absolute; top: 50px; left: 600px; display:none"> <video id="example_video_1" class="video-js vjs-default-skin" controls preload="auto" width="640" height="264" poster="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.png" data-setup='{"example_option":true}'> <source src="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.mp4" type='video/mp4'></source> <source src="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.webm" type='video/webm'>></source> <source src="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.ogv" type='video/ogg'></source> </video> <!-- Download links provided for devices that can't play video in the browser. --> <p class="vjs-no-video"><strong>Download Video:</strong> <a href="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.mp4">MP4</a>, <a href="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.webm">WebM</a>, <a href="http://video-js.zencoder.com/oceans-clip.ogv">Ogg</a><br> <!-- Support VideoJS by keeping this link. --> <a href="http://videojs.com">HTML5 Video Player</a> by VideoJS </p> </div> <div style="clear:both;"></div> </div><!--main-->

    Read the article

  • Securing paths in PHP

    - by tjm
    I'm writing some PHP which takes some paths to different content directories, and uses these to include various parts of pages later. I'm trying to ensure that the paths are as they seem, and none of them break the rules of the application. I have PRIVATEDIR which must lie above DOCUMENT_ROOT (aka) PUBLICDIR. CONTENTDIR which must lie within PRIVATEDIR and not go back below PUBLICDIR and some other *DIR's which must remain within CONTENTDIR. Currently I set up some defaults, and then override the ones the user specifies and then sanity check them with the following. private function __construct($options) { error_reporting(0); if(is_array($options)) { $this->opts = array_merge($this->opts, $options); } if($this->opts['STATUS']==='debug') { error_reporting(E_ALL | E_NOTICE | E_STRICT); } $this->opts['PUBLICDIR'] = realpath($_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; $this->opts['PRIVATEDIR'] = realpath($this->opts['PUBLICDIR'] .$this->opts['PRIVATEDIR']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; $this->opts['CONTENTDIR'] = realpath($this->opts['PRIVATEDIR'] .$this->opts['CONTENTDIR']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; $this->opts['CACHEDIR'] = realpath($this->opts['PRIVATEDIR'] .$this->opts['CACHEDIR']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; $this->opts['ERRORDIR'] = realpath($this->opts['CONTENTDIR'] .$this->opts['ERRORDIR']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; $this->opts['TEMPLATEDIR' = realpath($this->opts['CONTENTDIR'] .$this->opts['TEMPLATEDIR']) .DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR; // then here I have to check that PRIVATEDIR is above PUBLICDIR // and that all the rest remain within private dir and don't drop // down into (or below) PUBLICDIR again. And die with an error if // they don't conform. } The thing is this seems like a lot of work to do, especially as it must be run, every time a page is accessed, before I can do anything else, e.g check for a cached version of the page I'm serving. Part of me is thinking, since all of these paths are predefined by the maintainer of the site, they SHOULD be aware of what paths they are allowing access to and ensuring they are secure. But, I think I'm thinking that because currently I am said maintainer, and I KNOW my paths conform to the rules. That said, I do want to secure this thing from any accidental errors by future maintainers (and I bet, now I've said above "I KNOW...", probably from myself somewhere down the line). This just feels like a suboptimal solution. I wonder how fast this would really be and what you would suggest to improve it or as an alternative? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Jquery remove class from image

    - by user1269625
    Hey ya'll I have these 3 images thumbnails here... <div class="wpcart_gallery" style="text-align:center; padding-top:5px;"> <a class="thickbox cboxElement" title="DSC_0118" href="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/DSC_0118.jpg" rel="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring" rev="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/DSC_0118.jpg"> <img class="attachment-gold-thumbnails colorbox-736" width="50" height="50" title="DSC_0118" alt="DSC_0118" src="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/DSC_0118-50x50.jpg"> </a> <a class="thickbox cboxElement" title="P7230376" href="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230376.jpg" rel="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring" rev="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230376.jpg"> <img class="attachment-gold-thumbnails colorbox-736" width="50" height="50" title="P7230376" alt="P7230376" src="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230376-50x50.jpg"> </a> <a class="thickbox cboxElement" title="P7230378" href="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230378.jpg" rel="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring" rev="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230378.jpg"> <img class="attachment-gold-thumbnails colorbox-736" width="50" height="50" title="P7230378" alt="P7230378" src="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/P7230378-50x50.jpg"> </a> </div> What I am trying to do is come up with a jquery code that would remove the cboxElement from the first image and if I click on one of the images to remove cboxElement and place cboxElement to the other images... I also have this big image and when you click on one of the thumbnails, the image is replaced by the thumbnail and thats really the thumbnail I want to exclude...Could I possible just say if one of the 3 images src = this one image = src remove the class from this thumbnail? Which way would be better? I am very new at jquery :( I hope this makes sense. Here is the code for the big image... <a class="preview_link cboxElement" style="text-decoration:none;" href="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/DSC_0118.jpg" rel="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring"> <img id="product_image_736" class="product_image colorbox-736" width="400" src="http://www.taranmarlowjewelry.com/wp-content/uploads/2012/07/DSC_0118.jpg" title="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring" alt="Teardrop Druzy Amethyst Ring"> <br> <div style="text-align:center; color:#F39B91;">Click To Enlarge</div> </a> Any help or a point in the right direction would be awesome!!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398  | Next Page >