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  • How to use log4j for a axis2 webservice

    - by KItis
    I have created a simple axis2 webservice to understand logging functionality in a webservice. in this sample webservice, when a client calls this webservice, first it reads the log4j.property file. then i can see the logs being printed on console. but i have included file appender too into the property file. but i can not file the log file any where in my sample webapplication. i am using tomcat to run the webservice. following is webservice interface method called by client. package test; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStream; import java.util.Properties; import org.apache.log4j.BasicConfigurator; import org.apache.log4j.Logger; import org.apache.log4j.PropertyConfigurator; public class WSInterface { static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(WSInterface.class); public String log4jTest(String input){ InputStream inputStream = this.getClass().getClassLoader() .getResourceAsStream(input); Properties properties = new Properties(); System.out.println("InputStream is: " + inputStream); //load the inputStream using the Properties try { properties.load(inputStream); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } PropertyConfigurator.configure(properties); logger.debug("Hello World!"); Class myclass = WSInterface.class; String url = myclass.getResource("WSInterface.class").toString(); String output = ""; return url; } }

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  • ASP.NET auto-generate aspx.designer.cs turn off?

    - by Joris
    Hey all, As I'm working on a asp.net/c# project, I'm confronted with the foobar.aspx.designer.cs that auto generates it's content. eg, when I'm changing the code/designer, the designer.cs automatically updates it's content. As I'm bit of a control-dude, I'd like to maintain the code myself. I'm not happy with the overkill of comments I don't need. Like: /// <summary> /// Form1 control. /// </summary> /// <remarks> /// Auto-generated field. /// To modify move field declaration from designer file to code-behind file. /// </remarks> protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; While I'd like to see the following: protected global::System.Web.UI.HtmlControls.HtmlForm Form1; protected global::System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button Button3; etc, etc (don't mind the naming, ofcourse I'd give it some distinguishing nameing) How to fix this? I checked google on this one, but couldn't find an answer so quickly...

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  • Let multiple highcharts charts appear automatically from mysql data

    - by martini1993
    I have the following problem. I want to make multiple Highcharts webcharts appear automatically based on the data from the database. Let's say we have the following database: ___________________________________________________________________ | | | | | | | | Year | Month | ID | Name User | Wins | Losses | |_______|___________|______|_______________|____________|__________| | 2013 1 21 Tony Stark 3 12 | | 2013 1 52 Bruce Wayne 5 4 | | 2013 1 76 Clark Kent 9 5 | |__________________________________________________________________| (This database is an example, there are a lot more rows in the real database.) And i have the following query: SELECT a.year AS year1, a.month AS month1, a.id AS id, a.name AS nameuser, a.wins AS wins, a.losses AS losses FROM Sales a WHERE a.month = 1 AND a.year = YEAR(NOW()) With this, it is very easy to hardcode a chart with Highcharts. But what I want is that there has to be a webchart per user. So instead of a single webchart with all the users in it, I want multiple charts next to each other based on the data from the database. So instead of this: http://jsfiddle.net/CWSb6/ I want this (But then next to each other): http://jsfiddle.net/DReMD/ It has to be generated automatically with php and mysql. So if there is a new user starting this month, and the new user is saved in the database, the page automatically displays the new user with the related web chart. I find this very hard to accomplish and I need some help to get to the right direction for the solution. Many thanks in advance! (Sorry for my bad english.)

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  • C# webservice async callback not getting called on HTTP 407 error.

    - by Ben
    Hi, I am trying to test the use-case of a customer having a proxy with login credentials, trying to use our webservice from our client. If the request is synchronous, my job is easy. Catch the WebException, check for the 407 code, and prompt the user for the login credentials. However, for async requests, I seem to be running into a problem: the callback is never getting called! I ran a wireshark trace and did indeed see that the HTTP 407 error was being passed back, so I am bewildered as to what to do. Here is the code that sets up the callback and starts the request: TravelService.TravelServiceImplService svc = new TravelService.TravelServiceImplService(); svc.Url = svcUrl; svc.CreateEventCompleted += CbkCreateEventCompleted; svc.CreateEventAsync(crReq, req); And the code that was generated when I consumed the WSDL: public void CreateEventAsync(TravelServiceCreateEventRequest CreateEventRequest, object userState) { if ((this.CreateEventOperationCompleted == null)) { this.CreateEventOperationCompleted = new System.Threading.SendOrPostCallback(this.OnCreateEventOperationCompleted); } this.InvokeAsync("CreateEvent", new object[] { CreateEventRequest}, this.CreateEventOperationCompleted, userState); } private void OnCreateEventOperationCompleted(object arg) { if ((this.CreateEventCompleted != null)) { System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs invokeArgs = ((System.Web.Services.Protocols.InvokeCompletedEventArgs)(arg)); this.CreateEventCompleted(this, new CreateEventCompletedEventArgs(invokeArgs.Results, invokeArgs.Error, invokeArgs.Cancelled, invokeArgs.UserState)); } } Debugging the WS code, I found that even the SoapHttpClientProtocol.InvokeAsync method was not calling its callback as well. Am I missing some sort of configuration?

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  • How to handle large dataset with JPA (or at least with Hibernate)?

    - by Roman
    I need to make my web-app work with really huge datasets. At the moment I get either OutOfMemoryException or output which is being generated 1-2 minutes. Let's put it simple and suppose that we have 2 tables in DB: Worker and WorkLog with about 1000 rows in the first one and 10 000 000 rows in the second one. Latter table has several fields including 'workerId' and 'hoursWorked' fields among others. What we need is: count total hours worked by each user; list of work periods for each user. The most straightforward approach (IMO) for each task in plain SQL is: 1) select Worker.name, sum(hoursWorked) from Worker, WorkLog where Worker.id = WorkLog.workerId group by Worker.name; //results of this query should be transformed to Multimap<Worker, Long> 2) select Worker.name, WorkLog.start, WorkLog.hoursWorked from Worker, WorkLog where Worker.id = WorkLog.workerId; //results of this query should be transformed to Multimap<Worker, Period> //if it was JDBC then it would be vitally //to set resultSet.setFetchSize (someSmallNumber), ~100 So, I have two questions: how to implement each of my approaches with JPA (or at least with Hibernate); how would you handle this problem (with JPA or Hibernate of course)?

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  • .NET: How to know when serialization is completed?

    - by Ian Boyd
    When I construct my control (which inherits DataGrid), I add specific rows and columns. This works great at design time. Unfortunately, at runtime I add my rows and columns in the same constructor, but then the DataGrid is serialized (after the constructor runs) adding more rows and columns. After serialization is complete, I need to clear everything and re-initialize the rows and columns. Is there a protected method that I can override to know when the control is done serializing? Of course, I'd prefer to not have to do the work in the constructor, throw it away, and do it again after (potential) serialization. Is there a preferred event that is the equivalent of "set yourself up now", so that it is called once whether I'm serialized or not? The serialization i speak of comes from the InitializeComponent() method in the form's code-behind file. #region Windows Form Designer generated code /// <summary> /// Required method for Designer support - do not modify /// the contents of this method with the code editor. /// </summary> private void InitializeComponent() { ... } It would have been perfect if InitializeComponent was a virtual method defined by Control, then i could just override it and then perform my processing after i call base: protected override void InitializeComponent() { base.InitializeComponent(); InitializeMe(); } But it's not an ancestor method, it's declared only in the code-behind file. i notice that InitializeComponent calls SuspendLayout and ResumeLayout on various Controls. i thought it could override ResumeLayout, and perform my initialization then: public override void ResumeLayout() { base.ResumeLayout(); InitializeMe(); } But ResumeLayout is not virtual, so that's out. Anymore ideas? i can't be the first person to create a custom control.

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  • starting oracle 10g on ubuntu, Listener failed to start.

    - by tsegay
    I have installed oracle 10g on a ubuntu 10.x, This is my first time installation. After installing I tried to start it with the command below. tsegay@server-name:/u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/bin$ lsnrctl LSNRCTL for Linux: Version 10.2.0.1.0 - Production on 29-DEC-2010 22:46:51 Copyright (c) 1991, 2005, Oracle. All rights reserved. Welcome to LSNRCTL, type "help" for information. LSNRCTL> start Starting /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/bin/tnslsnr: please wait... TNSLSNR for Linux: Version 10.2.0.1.0 - Production System parameter file is /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/admin/listener.ora Log messages written to /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/log/listener.log Error listening on: (DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=IPC)(KEY=EXTPROC1))) TNS-12555: TNS:permission denied TNS-12560: TNS:protocol adapter error TNS-00525: Insufficient privilege for operation Linux Error: 1: Operation not permitted Listener failed to start. See the error message(s) above... my listener.ora file looks like this: # listener.ora Network Configuration File: /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/admin/listener.ora # Generated by Oracle configuration tools. SID_LIST_LISTENER = (SID_LIST = (SID_DESC = (SID_NAME = PLSExtProc) (ORACLE_HOME = /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1) (PROGRAM = extproc) ) ) LISTENER = (DESCRIPTION_LIST = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = IPC)(KEY = EXTPROC1)) (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = acct-vmserver)(PORT = 1521)) ) ) I can guess the problem is with permission issue, But i dont know where I have to do the change on permission. Any help is appreciated ...

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  • Why does gcc generate verbose assembly code?

    - by Jared Nash
    I have a question about assembly code generated by GCC (-S option). Since, I am new to assembly language and know very little about it, the question will be very primitive. Still, I hope somebody will answer: Suppose, I have this C code: main(){ int x = 15; int y = 6; int z = x - y; return 0; } If we look at the assembly code (especially the part corresponding to int z = x - y ), we see: main: ... subl $16, %esp movl $15, -4(%ebp) movl $6, -8(%ebp) movl -8(%ebp), %eax movl -4(%ebp), %edx movl %edx, %ecx subl %eax, %ecx movl %ecx, %eax movl %eax, -12(%ebp) ... Why doesn't GCC generate something like this, which is less copying things around. main: ... movl $15, -4(%ebp) movl $6, -8(%ebp) movl -8(%ebp), %edx movl -4(%ebp), %eax subl %edx, %eax movl %eax, -12(%ebp) ... P.S. Linux zion-5 2.6.32-21-generic #32-Ubuntu SMP Fri Apr 16 08:10:02 UTC 2010 i686 GNU/Linux gcc version 4.4.3 (Ubuntu 4.4.3-4ubuntu5)

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  • How to handle update events on a ASP.NET GridView?

    - by Bogdan M
    Hello, This may sound silly, but I need to find out how to handle an Update event from a GridView. First of all, I have a DataSet, where there is a typed DataTable with a typed TableAdapter, based on a "select all query", with auto-generated Insert, Update, and Delete methods. Then, in my aspx page, I have an ObjectDataSource related to my typed TableAdapter on Select, Insert, Update and Delete methods. Finnally, I have a GridView bound to this ObjectDataSource, with default Edit, Update and Cancel links. How should I implement the edit functionality? Should I have something like this? protected void GridView_RowEditing(object sender, GridViewEditEventArgs e) { using(MyTableAdapter ta = new MyTableAdapter()) { ta.Update(...); TypedDataTable dt = ta.GetRecords(); this.GridView.DataSource = dt; this.GridView.DataBind(); } } In this scenario, I have the feeling that I update some changes to the DB, then I retrive and bind all the data, and not only the modified parts. Is there any way to update only the DataSet, and this to update on his turn the DataBase and the GridView? I do not want to retrive all the data after a CRUD operations is performed, I just want to retrive the changes made. Thanks. PS: I'm using .NET 3.5 and VS 2008 with SP1.

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  • RegisterStartupScript not working after upgrading to framework 3.5

    - by AaronS
    I'm trying to upgrade an asp.net c# web project from framework 2.0 to 3.5. When I do this, the client side script that gets written using RegisterStartupScript isn't rendered on the client page. This works perfectly when I compile for 2.0, and for 3.0, but not when I compile for 3.5. Here is the code that isn't getting rendered: Page myPage = (Page)HttpContext.Current.Handler; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(myPage, myPage.GetType(), "alertscript", "alert('test');", true); This is called from a class project, and not the web project itself, which is why I'm using the HttpContext.Current.Handler. There are no errors getting generated from the compiler, the CLR, and there are no client side JavaScript errors. If I do a search for the "alertscript" in my rendered page, the above code actually isn't there. Anyone have ideas as to what is going on? -Edit- This seems to be an issue when I'm trying to register the script from an external project. If I use the exact same code in a class file in the web project (not the code behind), it works. However, if I make a call to a method in a class from another project, it does not work. Does the ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript not get registered correctly if performed from somewhere besides the web project itself?

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  • Why does stored procedure invalidate SQL Cache Dependency?

    - by Fabio Milheiro
    After many hours, I finally realize that I am working correctly with the Cache object in my ASP.NET application but my stored procedures stops it from working correctly. This stored procedure works correctly: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ListLanguages] @Page INT = 1, @ItemsPerPage INT = 10, @OrderBy NVARCHAR (100) = 'ID', @OrderDirection NVARCHAR(4) = 'DESC' AS BEGIN SELECT ID, [Name], Flag, IsDefault FROM dbo.Languages END But this (the one I wanted) doesn't: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[ListLanguages] @Page INT = 1, @ItemsPerPage INT = 10, @OrderBy NVARCHAR (100) = 'ID', @OrderDirection NVARCHAR(4) = 'DESC', @TotalRecords INT OUTPUT AS BEGIN SET @TotalRecords = 10 EXEC('SELECT ID, Name, Flag, IsDefault FROM ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY ' + @OrderBy + ' ' + @OrderDirection + ') as Row, ID, Name, Flag, IsDefault FROM dbo.Languages) results WHERE Row BETWEEN ((' + @Page + '-1)*' + @ItemsPerPage + '+1) AND (' + @Page + '*' + @ItemsPerPage + ')') END I gave the @TotalRecords parameter the value 10 so you can be sure that the problem is not from the COUNT(*) function which I know is not supported well. Also, when I run it from SQL Server Management Studio, it does exactly what it should do. In the ASP.NET application the results are retrieved correctly, only the cache is somehow unable to work! Can you please help? Maybe a hint I believe that the reason why the dependency HasChanged property is related to the fact that the column Row generated from the ROW_NUMBER is only temporary and, therefore, the SQL SERVER is not able to to say whether the results are changed or not. That's why HasChanged is always set to true. Does anyone know how to paginate results from SQL SERVER without using COUNT or ROW_NUMBER functions?

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  • Setting processor affinity on CSC.exe launched by CoreCompile MSBuild Task

    - by Hardy
    I am wondering if there is simple way to ensure that when a c# project is compiled the CSC.exe launched inherits the parent processor affinity settings, or perhaps of a way where by i can supply this. I have been trying to accomplish this by launching a bat file from vs.net cmd prompt like start /affinity 01 custombuild.cmd and inside my custombuild.cmd i have @echo off msbuild Libraries.sln /t:rebuild /p:Configuration=Release;platform=x64 /m:1 :END The command line call to Csc.exe this generates looks like the following C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. What i 'd like to see is the CSC.exe to inherit the processor affinity or a simple way to be able to override how csc.exe call is generated so i can make it into a start /affinity 01 C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v4.0.30319\Csc.exe ... ignoring the rest for brevity. I also noticed that CoreCompile target is defined in Microsoft.CSharp.targets, should i be considering overriding MSBuildToolsPath variable so i can sneak in my own version. This feels rather hacky. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Having an issue with Nullable MySQL columns in SubSonic 3.0 templates

    - by omegawkd
    Looking at this line in the Settings.ttinclude string CheckNullable(Column col){ string result=""; if(col.IsNullable && col.SysType !="byte[]" && col.SysType !="string") result="?"; return result; } It describes how it determines if the column is nullable based on requirements and returns either "" or "?" to the generated code. Now I'm not too familiar with the ? nullable type operator but from what I can see a cast is required. For instance, if I have a nullable integer MySQL column and I generate the code using the default template files it returns a line similar to this: int? _User_ID; When trying to compile the project I get the error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int?' to 'int'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I checked teh Settings files for the other database types and they all seems to have the same routine. So my question is, is this behaviour expected or is this a bug? I need to solve it one way or the other before I can procede. Thanks for your help.

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  • File Storage for Web Applications: Filesystem vs DB vs NoSQL engines

    - by El Yobo
    I have a web application that stores a lot of user generated files. Currently these are all stored on the server filesystem, which has several downsides for me. When we move "folders" (as defined by our application) we also have to move the files on disk (although this is more due to strange design decisions on the part of the original developers than a requirement of storing things on the filesystem). It's hard to write tests for file system actions; I have a mock filesystem class that logs actions like move, delete etc, without performing them, which more or less does the job, but I don't have 100% confidence in the tests. I will be adding some other jobs which need to access the files from other service to perform additional tasks (e.g. indexing in Solr, generating thumbnails, movie format conversion), so I need to get at the files remotely. Doing this over network shares seems dodgy... Dealing with permissions on the filesystem as sometimes given us problems in the past, although now that we've moved to a pure Linux environment this should be less of an issue. What are the downsides of storing files as BLOBs in MySQL? I guess that it would massively increase the database size and reduce the effectiveness of caches, but are there other problems? Do the same problems exist with NoSQL systems like Cassandra? Does anyone have any other suggestions that might be appropriate?

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  • Why can't I include these data files in a Python distribution using distutils?

    - by froadie
    I'm writing a setup.py file for a Python project so that I can distribute it. The aim is to eventually create a .egg file, but I'm trying to get it to work first with distutils and a regular .zip. This is an eclipse pydev project and my file structure is something like this: ProjectName src somePackage module1.py module2.py ... config propsFile1.ini propsFile2.ini propsFile3.ini setup.py Here's my setup.py code so far: from distutils.core import setup setup(name='ProjectName', version='1.0', packages=['somePackage'], data_files = [('config', ['..\config\propsFile1.ini', '..\config\propsFile2.ini', '..\config\propsFile3.ini'])] ) When I run this (with sdist as a command line parameter), a .zip file gets generated with all the python files - but the config files are not included. I thought that this code: data_files = [('config', ['..\config\propsFile1.ini', '..\config\propsFile2.ini', '..\config\propsFile3.ini'])] indicates that those 3 specified config files should be copied to a "config" directory in the zip distribution. Why is this code not accomplishing anything? What am I doing wrong? (I have also tried playing around with the paths of the config files... But nothing seems to help. Would Python throw an error or warning if the path was incorrect / file was not found?)

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  • How to create databinding over two xaml files?

    - by BionicGecko
    Hello, I am trying to come to a working understanding of how databinding works, but even after several tutorials I only have a basic understanding of how databinding works. Thus this question might seem fundamental to those more familiar with silverlight. Even if it is trivial, please point me to some tutorial that deals with this problem. All that I could find simply solved this via adding the data binding on a parent page.xaml (that i must not use in my case). For the sake of this example let us assume, that we have 5 files: starter.cs button1.xaml + codeBehind button2.xaml + codeBehind The two buttons are generated in code in the starter(.cs) file, and then added to some MapLayer button1 my_button1 = new button1(); button2 my_button1 = new button2(); someLayer.Children.Add(my_button1); someLayer.Children.Add(my_button2); My aim is to connect the two buttons, so that they always display the same "text" (i.e. my_button1.content==my_button2.content = true;). Thus when something changes my_button1.content this change should be propagated to the other button (two way binding). At the moment my button1.xaml looks like this: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <Button x:Name="x_button1" Margin="0,0,0,0" Content="{Binding ElementName=x_button2, Path=Content}" ClickMode="Press" Click="button1_Click"/> </Grid> But everthing that i get out of that is a button with no content at all, it is just blank as the binding silently fails. How could I create the databinding in the context I described? Preferably in code and not XAML ;) Thanks in advance

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  • Do I need Response.End() in ASP.Net 2.0

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, I am just starting with ASP.Net. I copied a ex-co-worker's code (from .Net 1.1 era) and it has a Response.End(); in case of an error. There is also a: catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); Response.End(); } at the end of Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) which always appends "Thread was aborted." or something like that at the end. I suspect that this worked differently before, or the error conditions were not tested very well. Anyhow, I was able to stop using Response.End(); in case when I do not like the GET parameters, and use return; instead. It seemed to do the right think in a simple case. Is this Ok in general? There are some problems with the code I copied, but I do not want to do a rewrite; I just want to get it running first and find wrinkles later. The Response.End(); caused a mental block for me, however, so I want to figure it out. I want to keep the catch all clause just in case, at least for now. I could also end the method with: catch (System.Threading.ThreadAbortException) { Response.End(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); Response.End(); } but that just seems extremely stupid, once you think about all of the exceptions being generated. Please give me a few words of wisdom. Feel free to ask if something is not clear. Thanks! P.S. Ex-coworker was not fired and is a good coder - one more reason to reuse his example.

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  • MVC 2 - Name Attributes on HTML Input Field when using Parent/Child Entities

    - by Click Ahead
    Hi All, I'm pretty new to MVC 2 using the Entity Framework. I have two tables Company {ID int identity PK,Name nvarchar} and User {ID int identity PK,UserName nvarchar,CompanyID int FK}. A Foreign Key exists between User and Company. I generated my ADO.NET Entity Data Model, a Controller and a view to insert a record. My HTML form has the fields Company and UserName and the idea is when I click save a Company and User is inserted into the database. Sounds straight forward right! My question is as follows: I created a strongly-typed view derived from my 'User' entity. I'm using the the html helper Html.TextBoxFor(model = model.Organisation.Name) but the html name attribute for this input field is 'Organisation.Name'. My problem with this is that the dot throws up all sorts of issues in JQuery, which sees this as a property. If I want to change the name I read that I can use DataAnnotations but because I used the Entity Designer this involves using Buddy Classes. Seems like a bit of overkill just to change the html name attribute on this input field. Am I approaching this the right way or am I missing something here? Thanks for the help !

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  • Does ASP.NET need to be configured for Full Trust to implement 'PageHandlerFactory' ?

    - by Kev
    Our hosting platform (running IIS6/ASP.NET 2.0) is configured to run under partial trust. In the machine wide web.config file we set the ASP.NET trust level to Medium (and lock to prevent overrides) and use a modified policy file. When trying to add a custom HttpHandler to handle .aspx requests for a website running in this configuration I get the following security exception: Security Exception Description: The application attempted to perform an operation not allowed by the security policy. To grant this application the required permission please contact your system administrator or change the application's trust level in the configuration file. Exception Details: System.Security.SecurityException: Request failed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SecurityException: Request failed.] System.Reflection.Assembly._GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +0 System.Reflection.Assembly.GetType(String name, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +42 System.Web.Compilation.CompilationUtil.GetTypeFromAssemblies(AssemblyCollection assembliesCollection, String typeName, Boolean ignoreCase) +172 System.Web.Compilation.BuildManager.GetType(String typeName, Boolean throwOnError, Boolean ignoreCase) +291 System.Web.Configuration.ConfigUtil.GetType(String typeName, String propertyName, ConfigurationElement configElement, XmlNode node, Boolean checkAptcaBit, Boolean ignoreCase) +52 I'm using a class derived from PageHandlerFactory, for example: public class MyPageHandlerFactory : PageHandlerFactory { public override System.Web.IHttpHandler GetHandler(System.Web.HttpContext context, string requestType, string virtualPath, string path) { // CustomPageHandler derives from System.Web.UI.Page return new CustomPageHandler(); } } My web.config httpHandler configuration is as follow: <httpHandlers> <add verb="*" path="*.aspx" type="MyPageHandler.MyPageHandlerFactory" /> </httpHandlers> The documentation for PageHandlerFactory shows that PageHandlerFactory is decorated with the following attributes: [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Unrestricted = true)] [PermissionSetAttribute(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Unrestricted = true)] public class PageHandlerFactory : IHttpHandlerFactory Does this mean that I need to set ASP.NET to run at Full Trust to be able to create my own PageHandlerFactory classes?

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  • How to migrate primary key generation from "increment" to "hi-lo"?

    - by Bevan
    I'm working with a moderate sized SQL Server 2008 database (around 120 tables, backups are around 4GB compressed) where all the table primary keys are declared as simple int columns. At present, primary key values are generated by NHibernate with the increment identity generator, which has worked well thus far, but precludes moving to a multiprocessing environment. Load on the system is growing, so I'm evaluating the work required to allow the use of multiple servers accessing a common database backend. Transitioning to the hi-lo generator seems to be the best way forward, but I can't find a lot of detail about how such a migration would work. Will NHibernate automatically create rows in the hi-lo table for me, or do I need to script these manually? If NHibernate does insert rows automatically, does it properly take account of existing key values? If NHibernate does take care of thing automatically, that's great. If not, are there any tools to help? Update NHibernate's increment identifier generator works entirely in-memory. It's seeded by selecting the maximum value of used identifiers from the table, but from that point on allocates new values by a simple increment, without reference back to the underlying database table. If any other process adds rows to the table, you end up with primary key collisions. You can run multiple threads within the one process just fine, but you can't run multiple processes. For comparison, the NHibernate identity generator works by configuring the database tables with identity columns, putting control over primary key generation in the hands of the database. This works well, but compromises the unit of work pattern. The hi-lo algorithm sits inbetween these - generation of primary keys is coordinated through the database, allowing for multiprocessing, but actual allocation can occur entirely in memory, avoiding problems with the unit of work pattern.

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  • How to define custom path to Interop *.dll

    - by NoviceAndNovice
    Well, I have an ActiveX (*.ocx) component, and i use it in a managed C++/CLI project: write a managed wrapper around ActiveX component[ NET has a great Interop services : provides me genarated dll so i can easily use it in my managed code] The problem is that Visual Studio (2008) automatically copy the generated Interop *.dll to the directory where my *.exe file stay.But i want put all my genarated Interop *.dll to a folder ... Suppose My directory structure is so: D:\MyProject\Output\MyProject.exe //My mamanged exe D:\MyProject\Output\Interop.XXXLib.1.0.dll // *Interop .dll I want to put Interop.XXXLib.1.0.dll into new folder D:\MyProject\Output\Interops and use it from that directory...How Can i do it? Best Wishes PS: What I found so far was using using codeBase/ probing tags in my app.config file such as <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com.asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="Interops" /> </assemblyBinding> </runtime> </configuration> But i did not work in C++/CLI

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  • Visual Studio 2010 Professional - Problem Unit-Testing Web Services

    - by Ben
    Have created a very simple Web Service (asmx) in Visual Studio 2010 Professional, and am trying to use the auto-generated unit test cases. I get something that seems quite familiar on this site: The web site could not be configured correctly; getting ASP.NET process information failed. Requesting http://localhost:81/zfp/VSEnterpriseHelper.axd return an error: The remote server returned an error: (500) Internal Server Error. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/260432/500-error-running-visual-studio-asp-net-unit-test I have tried: 1. Running the tests on IIS rather than ASP.NET Development Server 2. Adding and then removing the XML fragment to my Web Service's .config file 3. Giving the MACHINE\ASPNET account Full control to the local folder My current questions: 1. Why am I being bothered with this instrumentation / code coverage DLL, when this doesn't seem to be something that ships with Visual Studio 2010 Professional? Is there any way I can turn it off? 2. I'm placing the node under in Web.config - is that the correct node? 3. Is it possible to bind to a web service without using the webby test attributes? I've seen other people advising making the Web Service as light-weight as possible. I'm trying to call it with jQuery / AJAX / JSON, so being able to debug the actual web service would be really helpful. Best wishes, Ben

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  • Loader.php trying to load Doctrine classes, but we use Propel!

    - by kewpiedoll99
    We are finding cases where we get the following 500 error: File xyz.php does not exist or class "xyz" was not found in the file at () in SF_ROOT_DIR/lib/vendor/Zend/Loader.php line 107 ... where xyz == Memcache (when trying to use symfony cc on the command line) or sfDoctrineAdminGenerator (when using an old-ish AdminGenerator-generated CMS page). We use Propel, but Loader.php is trying to load classes used only for Doctrine. Currently I am using a filthy hack where I request Loader.php to check if the file is either of these two cases, and if so simply return rather than trying to load it. Obviously, this is unacceptable longer term. Has anybody encountered this, and how did you solve it? Edited to add: We have: class ProjectConfiguration extends sfProjectConfiguration { public function setup() { // for compatibility / remove and enable only the plugins you want $this->enableAllPluginsExcept(array('sfDoctrinePlugin')); } } And we have a propel.ini file in our top level config directory. This has only started in the past four weeks or so, and we've had a stable build for over a year now. I'm pretty sure Doctrine is totally disabled.

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  • What techniques can be used to detect so called "black holes" (a spider trap) when creating a web crawler?

    - by Tom
    When creating a web crawler, you have to design somekind of system that gathers links and add them to a queue. Some, if not most, of these links will be dynamic, which appear to be different, but do not add any value as they are specifically created to fool crawlers. An example: We tell our crawler to crawl the domain evil.com by entering an initial lookup URL. Lets assume we let it crawl the front page initially, evil.com/index The returned HTML will contain several "unique" links: evil.com/somePageOne evil.com/somePageTwo evil.com/somePageThree The crawler will add these to the buffer of uncrawled URLs. When somePageOne is being crawled, the crawler receives more URLs: evil.com/someSubPageOne evil.com/someSubPageTwo These appear to be unique, and so they are. They are unique in the sense that the returned content is different from previous pages and that the URL is new to the crawler, however it appears that this is only because the developer has made a "loop trap" or "black hole". The crawler will add this new sub page, and the sub page will have another sub page, which will also be added. This process can go on infinitely. The content of each page is unique, but totally useless (it is randomly generated text, or text pulled from a random source). Our crawler will keep finding new pages, which we actually are not interested in. These loop traps are very difficult to find, and if your crawler does not have anything to prevent them in place, it will get stuck on a certain domain for infinity. My question is, what techniques can be used to detect so called black holes? One of the most common answers I have heard is the introduction of a limit on the amount of pages to be crawled. However, I cannot see how this can be a reliable technique when you do not know what kind of site is to be crawled. A legit site, like Wikipedia, can have hundreds of thousands of pages. Such limit could return a false positive for these kind of sites. Any feedback is appreciated. Thanks.

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  • POST a form in an iframe.

    - by Stavros Korokithakis
    I would like to POST a form in an iframe, generated like so: My JS loads an iframe inside the page, adds a form to the iframe and submits the form. What I would like to happen is the iframe to load the result of that request. So, I would effectively like to post a form and render the result inside the iframe, without touching the parent (apart from putting the iframe up for display in the first place). I am using the code from this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/133925/javascript-post-request-like-a-form-submit/134003#134003 but I can't get it to not reload the parent. I post the form, and instead of the iframe refreshing, the entire parent refreshes. I don't know why that is, since the url it's posting to is different and would at least redirect there. Can anyone help me with this problem? I just want a post inside an iframe and only within the iframe, basically. EDIT: After some more research, apparently the form is not being created properly. I'm using document.createElement("form") and then document.getElementById("my_iframe_id").appendChild(form) to append it, but it does not seem to be working correctly.

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