Search Results

Search found 51799 results on 2072 pages for 'application wide'.

Page 393/2072 | < Previous Page | 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400  | Next Page >

• Flex 3 - Image flickers at first load

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I have an application with different components that are accessible through a viewstack in the main application. The main application looks like that: <Application> <Viewstack> <myComponent1/> <myComponent2/> <myComponent3/> . . . </Viewstack> </Application> In myComponent1, I have a horizontalList where the user can select a product. In myComponent2, I have 2 containers inside the component. A left container with a larger image of the product selected in myComponent1 and a right container with all characteristics of the product. Both containers have an embed background image. When I select a product in myComponent1, the application displays myComponent2. When the component is displayed, I first see the page without the large image of the product, then both containers flickers and the product image is displayed. How could I avoid this flickering? It's really annoying _< Thanks in advance for your help =) Regards. BS_C3

  Read the article

• Executing untrusted code

  - by MainMa

  Hi, I'm building a C# application which uses plug-ins. The application must guarantee to the user that plug-ins will not do whatever they want on the user machine, and will have less privileges that the application itself (for example, the application can access its own log files, whereas plug-ins cannot). I considered three alternatives. Using System.AddIn. I tried this alternative first, because it seamed much powerful, but I'm really disappointed by the need of modifying the same code seven times in seven different projects each time I want to modify something. Besides, there is a huge number of problems to solve even for a simple Hello World application. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(assemblyName, typeName). This is what I used in the preceding version of the application. I can't use it nevermore, because it does not provide a way to restrict permissions. Using System.Activator.CreateInstance(AppDomain domain, [...]). That's what I'm trying to implement now, but it seems that the only way to do that is to pass through ObjectHandle, which requires serialization for every used class. Although plug-ins contain WPF UserControls, which are not serializable. So is there a way to create plug-ins containing UserControls or other non serializable objects and to execute those plug-ins with a custom PermissionSet ?

  Read the article

• Can't use my form

  - by Alexandr

  I have class with my form in folder /application/forms/Auth.php it looks like class Form_Auth extends Zend_Form { public function __construct() { $this->setName(); parent::__construct(); $username = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('username'); $password = new Zend_Form_Element_Password('password'); $mail = new Zend_Form_Element_Text('mail'); $submit = new Zend_Form_Element_Submit('submit'); $this->addElements(array($username,$password,$mail,$submit)); } } When i try create object $this->view->form = new Form_Auth(); is see exeption Application error Exception information: Message: Invalid name provided; must contain only valid variable characters and be non-empty Stack trace: D:\WWW\zends\application\Forms\Auth.php(8): Zend_Form-setName() d:\WWW\zends\application\controllers\RegistrationController.php(49): Form_Auth-__construct() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Action.php(513): RegistrationController-indexAction() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Dispatcher\Standard.php(289): Zend_Controller_Action-dispatch('indexAction') D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Controller\Front.php(954): Zend_Controller_Dispatcher_Standard-dispatch(Object(Zend_Controller_Request_Http), Object(Zend_Controller_Response_Http)) D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application\Bootstrap\Bootstrap.php(97): Zend_Controller_Front-dispatch() D:\WebServer\ZendFramework\ZendFramework\library\Zend\Application.php(366): Zend_Application_Bootstrap_Bootstrap-run() D:\WWW\zends\public\index.php(26): Zend_Application-run() {main} Request Parameters: array ( 'controller' = 'registration', 'action' = 'index', 'module' = 'default', ) the version zf is 1.10.3 what i do wrong ?

  Read the article

• Can't add to NSMutableArray from SecondaryView

  - by Antonio

  Hi guys, I've searched and read and still haven't found a concrete answer. Brief: I have an application where I declare an NSMutableArray in my AppDelegate to synthesize when the application loads. (code below). I have a SecondaryViewController call this function, and I have it output a string to let me know what the array size is. Every time I run it, it executes but it does not add any objects to the array. How do I fix this? AppDelegate.h file #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @class arrayTestViewController; @interface arrayTestAppDelegate : NSObject <UIApplicationDelegate> { UIWindow *window; arrayTestViewController *viewController; NSMutableArray *myArray3; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *myArray3; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIWindow *window; @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet arrayTestViewController *viewController; -(void)addToArray3; @end AppDelegate.m file #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" #import "arrayTestViewController.h" @implementation arrayTestAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; @synthesize myArray3; #pragma mark - #pragma mark Application lifecycle - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { myArray3 = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // Override point for customization after application launch. // Add the view controller's view to the window and display. [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } -(void)addToArray3{ NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); [myArray3 addObject:@"Test"]; NSLog(@"Array triggered from SecondViewController"); NSLog(@"Array Count: %d", [myArray3 count]); } SecondViewController.m file #import "SecondViewController.h" #import "arrayTestAppDelegate.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction)addToArray{ arrayTestAppDelegate *object = [[arrayTestAppDelegate alloc] init]; [object addToArray3]; }

  Read the article

• Why I get this error in CXF

  - by Milan

  I want to make dynamic web service invoker in JSF with CXF. But when I load this simple code I get error. The code: JaxWsDynamicClientFactory dcf = JaxWsDynamicClientFactory.newInstance(); Client client = dcf.createClient("http://ws.strikeiron.com/IPLookup2?wsdl"); The error: No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Caused by: java.lang.IllegalStateException - No Factories configured for this Application. This happens if the faces-initialization does not work at all - make sure that you properly include all configuration settings necessary for a basic faces application and that all the necessary libs are included. Also check the logging output of your web application and your container for any exceptions! If you did that and find nothing, the mistake might be due to the fact that you use some special web-containers which do not support registering context-listeners via TLD files and a context listener is not setup in your web.xml. A typical config looks like this; org.apache.myfaces.webapp.StartupServletContextListener Any Idea how to solve the problem?

  Read the article

• we would like the user to be able to pick a file from native file system and drag & drop it to our a

  - by user261740

  We have an existing java desktop application which starts, when user click on our application icon (placed on desktop) OR double click on executable(.exe). It opens the frame which allows user to select the file from native file system and uploads it to the server. Now we would like to facilitate user, that he can pick a file from windows explorer and drag it to the "shortcut / Application icon" & drop it on the "shortcut / Application icon" on the desktop. This would start the uploading of that file on the server. we need to capture the action of "drop" and launch on shortcut.. which may be completely not related to java, it can be very generic to any application. We are using JSmooth to build an executable from jar and NSIS for installer purpose. I would like to know.. How we can launch the application if user drops local file onto the system icon ? How we get the absolute path of file name which has been dropped onto the executable ?

  Read the article

• Django sub-applications & module structure

  - by Rob Golding

  I am developing a Django application, which is a large system that requires multiple sub-applications to keep things neat. Therefore, I have a top level directory that is a Django app (as it has an empty models.py file), and multiple subdirectories, which are also applications in themselves. The reason I have laid my application out in this way is because the sub-applications are separated, but they would never be used on their own, outside the parent application. It therefore makes no sense to distribute them separately. When installing my application, the settings file has to include something like this: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'myapp', 'myapp.subapp1', 'myapp.subapp2', ... ) ...which is obviously suboptimal. This also has the slightly nasty result of requiring that all the sub-applications are referred to by their "inner" name (i.e. subapp1, subapp2 etc.). For example, if I want to reset the database tables for subapp1, I have to type: python manage.py reset subapp1 This is annoying, especially because I have a sub-app called core - which is likely to conflict with another application's name when my application is installed in a user's project. Am I doing this completely wrongly, or is there away to force these "inner" apps to be referred to by their full name?

  Read the article

• How can I timeout Client-scoped variables in Coldfusion?

  - by Joshua Carmody

  I apologize if this is a "duh" question. It seems like the answer should be easily googleable, but I haven't found it yet. I am working on a large Coldfusion application that stores a large amount of session/user data in the Client scope (ie <cfset Client.UserName = "JoshuaC"> ). I did not write this application, and I don't have the luxury of significantly refactoring it. I've been given the task of setting the Client variables to time out after 72 hours. I'm not entirely sure how to do this. If I had written the application, I would have stored the variables in the Session scope, and then changed the sessiontimeout attribute of the CFAPPLICATION tag. As it is though, I'm not sure if that timeout affects the Client variables, or what their level of persistence is. The way the application works now, the Client variables never time out, and only clearing the user's cookies, or visiting a logout page which sets all the Client-scoped application variables to "", will clear the values. Of course, I could create some kind of timestamp variable like Client.LastAccessDateTime, and put something in the Application.cfm to clear the client variables if that datetime is more than 72 hours prior to Now(). But there's got to be a better way, right?

  Read the article

• Open + Save .exe file in notepad makes it corrupted

  - by Jacob Kofoed

  Hi, I just published this simple console application that is supposed to show a textbox with the value of a setting called "userID" with value 1001. This works like a charm. Now what I need is to change this value outside the editor, from notepad etc. When I open the application a lot in there is non-sence (& o! -å Þþþ,o" Ü+) etc. but with a quick (ctrl + F) I found the value 1001, and changed this to some other integer. I ran the application again, and it failed, didn't even give any userful error-message. At a point I tried just opening a newly published non-corrupted version of the application, didn't change anything, then saved from notepad, and it were also corrupted. It seems like notepad can't open some characters or something. Do I need to publish the application in some specific text-unicode language or something? Help much appreciated :) I know it sounds like a stupid application, but it is just a test of concept :) I use vb.net for this

  Read the article

• Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

  - by Rising Star

  I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

  Read the article

• PHP Outputting File Attachments with Headers

  - by OneNerd

  After reading a few posts here I formulated this function which is sort of a mishmash of a bunch of others: function outputFile( $filePath, $fileName, $mimeType = '' ) { // Setup $mimeTypes = array( 'pdf' => 'application/pdf', 'txt' => 'text/plain', 'html' => 'text/html', 'exe' => 'application/octet-stream', 'zip' => 'application/zip', 'doc' => 'application/msword', 'xls' => 'application/vnd.ms-excel', 'ppt' => 'application/vnd.ms-powerpoint', 'gif' => 'image/gif', 'png' => 'image/png', 'jpeg' => 'image/jpg', 'jpg' => 'image/jpg', 'php' => 'text/plain' ); // Send Headers //-- next line fixed as per suggestion -- header('Content-Type: ' . $mimeTypes[$mimeType]); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="' . $fileName . '"'); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Accept-Ranges: bytes'); header('Cache-Control: private'); header('Pragma: private'); header('Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT'); readfile($filePath); } I have a php page (file.php) which does something like this (lots of other code stripped out): // I run this thru a safe function not shown here $safe_filename = $_GET['filename']; outputFile ( "/the/file/path/{$safe_filename}", $safe_filename, substr($safe_filename, -3) ); Seems like it should work, and it almost does, but I am having the following issues: When its a text file, I am getting a strange symbol as the first letter in the text document When its a word doc, it is corrupt (presumably that same first bit or byte throwing things off). I presume all other file types will be corrupt - have not even tried them Any ideas on what I am doing wrong? Thanks - UPDATE: changed line of code as suggested - still same issue.

  Read the article

• What happens when we say "listen to a port" ?

  - by smwikipedia

  Hi, When we start a server application, we always need to speicify the port number it listens to. But how is this "listening mechanism" implemented under the hood? My current imagination is like this: The operating system associate the port number with some buffer. The server application's responsibiligy is to monitor this buffer. If there's no data in this buffer, the server application's listen operation will just block the application. When some data arrives from the wire, the operating system will know that check the data and see if it is targed at this port number. And then it will fill the buffer. And then OS will notify the blocked server application and the server application will get the data and continue to run. Question is: If the above scenario is correct, how could the opearting system know there's data arriving from wire? It cannot be a busy pooling. Is it some kind of interrupt-based mechanism? If there's too much data arriving and the buffer is not big enough, will there be data loss? Is the "listen to a port" operation really a blocking operation? Many thanks.

  Read the article

• C/C++ I18N mbstowcs question

  - by bogertron

  I am working on internationalizing the input for a C/C++ application. I have currently hit an issue with converting from a multi-byte string to wide character string. The code needs to be cross platform compatible, so I am using mbstowcs and wcstombs as much as possible. I am currently working on a WIN32 machine and I have set the locale to a non-english locale (Japanese). When I attempt to convert a multibyte character string, I seem to be having some conversion issues. Here is an example of the code: int main(int argc, char** argv) { wchar_t *wcsVal = NULL; char *mbsVal = NULL; /* Get the current code page, in my case 932, runs only on windows */ TCHAR szCodePage[10]; int cch= GetLocaleInfo( GetSystemDefaultLCID(), LOCALE_IDEFAULTANSICODEPAGE, szCodePage, sizeof(szCodePage)); /* verify locale is set */ if (setlocale(LC_CTYPE, "") == 0) { fprintf(stderr, "Failed to set locale\n"); return 1; } mbsVal = argv[1]; /* validate multibyte string and convert to wide character */ int size = mbstowcs(NULL, mbsVal, 0); if (size == -1) { printf("Invalid multibyte\n"); return 1; } wcsVal = (wchar_t*) malloc(sizeof(wchar_t) * (size + 1)); if (wcsVal == NULL) { printf("memory issue \n"); return 1; } mbstowcs(wcsVal, szVal, size + 1); wprintf(L"%ls \n", wcsVal); return 0; } At the end of execution, the wide character string does not contain the converted data. I believe that there is an issue with the code page settings, because when i use MultiByteToWideChar and have the current code page sent in EX: MultiByteToWideChar( CP_ACP, 0, mbsVal, -1, wcsVal, size + 1 ); in place of the mbstowcs calls, the conversion succeeds. My question is, how do I use the generic mbstowcs call instead of teh MuliByteToWideChar call?

  Read the article

• Flex 3 - Remove image flickering

  - by BS_C3

  Hello Community! I have an application with different components that are accessible through a viewstack in the main application. The main application looks like that: <Application> <Viewstack> <myComponent1/> <myComponent2/> <myComponent3/> . . . </Viewstack> </Application> In myComponent1, I have a horizontalList where the user can select a product. In myComponent2, I have 2 containers inside the component. A left container with a larger image of the product selected in myComponent1 and a right container with all characteristics of the product. Both containers have an embed background image. When I select a product in myComponent1, the application displays myComponent2. When the component is displayed, I first see the page without the large image of the product, then both containers flickers and the product image is displayed. How could I avoid this flickering? It's really annoying _< Thanks in advance for your help =) Regards. BS_C3

  Read the article

• Micrsoft Silverlight 3 cannot create service reference to localhost:port

  - by Monte

  Windows Server 2003 (IIS 6) Visual Studio 2008 .NET FrameWork 3.5 SP1 I am a .NET developer for a living and I have over 40 hours in the problem Project type = "Silverlight Navigation Application", "APS.NET Web Site" (when I tried it as "ASP.NET Web Application Project" I could not copy it to the production web site - well I could copy it but I could not make it run) Created a service.cs on the .Web side of the application. Created a reference to that service.cs on the Silverlight side. For a time all is good as I can reference the service as localhost:port (e.g. localhost:1374) in Visual Studio and debug both Silverlight side and service.cs To access the application in production mode (from IE) I update the service refrence and replace localhost:port with the IP address. The problem with the IP address is I cannot debug the service.cs so I have to change it back to localhost:port to debug. Now to the problem. After a period of time localhost:port just plain breaks. I get an error message no service at the other end Yes I know the port can change - that is not the problem - the port on the service side just plain breaks! For example from Visual Studio from the Silverlight side of the project right click "Service Reference", "Add Service Reverence". It finds 1 service in the application on a port. But when I click that service under "Services:" in the modal dialog box "Add Service Reference" I get an error: There was an error downloading 'http://localhost:1377/SehaleCSS.Web/Service.svc'. The request failed with the error message: -- Could not load file or assembly 'App_Web_tipnndfq, If I go back to the IP address the service is repsponding (with the right answer) The service just plain goes a while responding to localhost:port and then fails Even making NO change to service.cs it go a while then fails as a localhost:port It is not IIS environmental as I can go back to a prior saved version of the code and it works Something is happening that the .web side of the application is failing. It still works as an IP and it still exposes itself as a localhost:port but it fails to properly repsonde as a localhost:port.

  Read the article

• Ant: simplest way to copy over a relative list of files

  - by Derek Illchuk

  Using Ant, I want to copy a list of files from one project to another, where each project has the same directory structure. Is there a way to get the following to work? <project name="WordSlug" default="pull" basedir="."> <description> WordSlug: pull needed files </description> <property name="prontiso_home" location="../../prontiso/trunk"/> <!-- I know this doesn't work, what's the missing piece? --> <target name="pull" description="Pull needed files"> <copy todir="." overwrite="true"> <resources> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml"/> <file file="${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php"/> <!-- etc. --> </resources> </copy> </target> </project> Success is deriving the paths automatically: ${prontiso_home}/application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml copied to ./application/views/scripts/error/error.phtml ${prontiso_home}/application/controllers/CacheController.php copied to ./application/controllers/CacheController.php Thanks!

  Read the article

• Accessing the calling object into ajax response... (not the ajax call)

  - by Nishchay Sharma

  I have an object of type Application (defined by me). Whenever an object of this type is created, it automatically loads a php file say "start.php" using jquery ajax and assign the response to a div say "Respo". Now what i want is to access the Application object from that Respo div. Unfortunately, i have no clue how to do this... in my ajax call: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html(data); } }); } Now in my Respo division i want to access that Application object... I tried: alert(this) but it resulted in an object of DOMWindow... i tried editing success function as: function Application(options) { ....... var appObj=this; $.ajax({ url:appObj.location, //Already defined success:function(data) { $("#respo").html("<script type='text/javascript'>var Self="+appObj+"</script>"); $("#respo").html(data); } }); } But i ended nowhere. :( Although if i assign "var Self='nishchay';" then alerting Self from start.php gives nishchay but i am not able to assign the calling object of Application type to the Self variable. It is the only way I cud think of. :\ Please help me... actually my object has some editing functions to control itself - its look and feel and some other options. I want the code loaded by object to control the object itself. Please help me.. Thanks in advance. Nishchay

  Read the article

• Serving .docx files through Php

  - by user275074

  Hi, I'm having issues when attempting to serve a .docx file using Php. When uploading the file I detect the file mime type and upload the file using the file with the correct extension based on the mime type; e.g. below: application/msword - doc application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document - docx When attempting to serve the files for download, I do the reverse in detecting the extension and serving based on the mime type e.g. public static function fileMimeType($extention) { if(!is_null($extention)) { switch($extention) { case 'txt': return 'text/plain'; break; case 'odt': return 'application/vnd.oasis.opendocument.text'; break; case 'doc': return 'application/msword'; break; case 'docx': return 'application/vnd.openxmlformats-officedocument.wordprocessingml.document'; break; case ('jpg' || 'jpeg'): return 'image/jpeg'; break; case 'png': return 'image/png'; break; case 'pdf': return 'application/pdf'; break; default: break; } } } All files appear to download correctly and open fine but when attempting to open a docx file, Word (on multiple files) throws a error stating the file is corrupt. Any ideas would be great, thanks.

  Read the article

• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

  Read the article

• How to use App.Xaml's ResourseDictionaries with own entry point

  - by Polaris

  Hello friends. I created some logic for singleInstance application and I must to use my own entry point (not App.xaml) for Application. I have some styles in App.xaml which now is not working. How can I use this ResourceDictionaries from my App.xaml for entire project in my situation? My class for manage Application Startup public class SingleInstanceManager : WindowsFormsApplicationBase { App app; public SingleInstanceManager() { this.IsSingleInstance = true; } protected override bool OnStartup(Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.StartupEventArgs e) { try { // First time app is launched app = new App(); App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = e.CommandLine; //IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Run(); return false; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); return false; } } protected override void OnStartupNextInstance(StartupNextInstanceEventArgs eventArgs) { // Subsequent launches base.OnStartupNextInstance(eventArgs); Intro win = (Intro)app.MainWindow; if (eventArgs != null) { App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = eventArgs.CommandLine[0]; } IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Activate(); } } and my own Entry Point: public class EntryPoint { [STAThread] public static void Main(string[] args) { SingleInstanceManager manager = new SingleInstanceManager(); manager.Run(args); } } And my App.Xaml code behind: public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(System.Windows.StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); // Create and show the application's main window Intro window = new Intro(); window.Show(); } public void Activate() { // Reactivate application's main window this.MainWindow.Activate(); } } And my App.xaml has some code which decribe ResourceDictionaries which doesnt work. Why?

  Read the article

• VB6 ActiveX exe - what is the proper registration sequence?

  - by Timbuck

  I have recently updated a Visual Basic 6 application that is an ActiveX exe, running on Windows XP. I have a couple of testers for this application who have received a copy of the exe and are attempting to run it. However, they are getting an error message "Unexpected error;quitting" when trying to do so. A key difference between their testing and my testing is that on the machines I tested on, I have admin rights and was able to register the application using the appname.exe /regserver command line. Reading the details at MS Support about file registration appears unclear: Visual Basic ActiveX EXE files register themselves the first time you run the EXE. However, you cannot use the EXE as a COM server until it is registered. So does this mean that after the first time the users run the exe that the application should be correctly registered, and the error I am receiving is sign of something other than an incorrectly registered application? Or does this mean that the application will not work properly until such time as the file is explicitly registered using the appname.exe /regserver command line? nb - during a production distribution, the software would be sent out to client PCs using Systems Management Server, which isn't an option for this testing.

  Read the article

• Mercurial repository narrow clone?

  - by Berry Langerak

  Hi. I'm currently in the process of moving from Subversion to Mercurial, and I have to say I don't regret that decision. However, when trying to convert my project, I ran into a problem of Mercurial, which I can't seem to get fixed. I have two distinct projects: one is a framework, and the other is an application that relies on that framework. Here's what the repositories look like: The Framework repository: docs/ deploy/ lib/ tests/ The Application repository: application/ config/ lib/ tests/ www/ What I'd like is for the application's lib directory to contain a copy of the frameworks' lib/ directory. I used to do this using svn:externals. Now, I am aware that Mercurial supports the concept of subrepositories, but that doesn't seem like the "correct" solution, as it doesn't actually pull in the lib/ directory like I wanted, as you'll still have to pull and push changes manually. That, plus once you clone the framework repository, you'll get all of it, not just the lib/ directory. I only need the lib/ directory, not the tests, or the docs. Now, I thought up two different solutions to this problem, but I wonder which is the best. The first solution would be to clone the framework in a different directory altogether and create symlink in the application's lib/ directory which points to the framework's lib/ directory. Putting the symlink in .hgignore should make sure all is well, I think? That means that you could edit the frameworks code, and commit that, and you could edit the application's code and commit that, too. The other option is to have multiple repositories. The framework gets pulled as a whole, which means you'll get the docs/, deploy/, test/ etc. directories, which are not needed for usage of the framework. I thought maybe creating a repository purely for the library might be a solution, although I sincerely doubt it, as the Unit Tests are very dependant upon the library itself. Does anyone know a decent solution for this problem?

  Read the article

• Is there a way to create subdatabases as a kind of subfolders in sql server?

  - by user193655

  I am creating an application where there is main DB and where other data is stored in secondary databases. The secondary databases follow a "plugin" approach. I use SQL Server. A simple installation of the application will just have the mainDB, while as an option one can activate more "plug-ins" and for every plug-in there will be a new database. Now why I made this choice is because I have to work with an exisiting legacy system and this is the smartest thing I could figure to implement the plugin system. MainDB and Plugins DB have exactly the same schema (basically Plugins DB have some "special content", some important data that one can use as a kind of template - think to a letter template for example - in the application). Plugin DBs are so used in readonly mode, they are "repository of content". The "smart" thing is that the main application can also be used by "plugin writers", they just write a DB inserting content, and by making a backup of the database they creaetd a potential plugin (this is why all DBs has the same schema). Those plugins DB are downloaded from internet as there is a content upgrade available, every time the full PlugIn DB is destroyed and a new one with the same name is creaetd. This is for simplicity and even because the size of this DBs is generally small. Now this works, anyway I would prefer to organize the DBs in a kind of Tree structure, so that I can force the PlugIn DBs to be "sub-DBs" of the main application DB. As a workaround I am thinking of using naming rules, like: ApplicationDB (for the main application DB) ApplicationDB_PlugIn_N (for the N-th plugin DB) When I search for plugin 1 I try to connect to ApplicationDB_PlugIn_1, if I don't find the DB i raise an error. This situation can happen for example if som DBA renamed ApplicationDB_Plugin_1. So since those Plugin DBs are really dependant on ApplicationDB only I was trying to "do the subfolder trick". Can anyone suggest a way to do this? Can you comment on this self-made plugin approach I decribed above?

  Read the article

• Do I need a spatial index in my database?

  - by Sanoj

  I am designing an application that needs to save geometric shapes in a database. I haven't choosen the database management system yet. In my application, all database queries will have an bounding box as input, and as output I want all shapes within that database. I know that databases with a spatial index is used for this kind of application. But in my application there will not be any queries of type "give me objects nearby x/y" or other more complex queries that are useful in a GIS application. I am planning of having a database without a spatial index and have queries looking like: SELECT * FROM shapes WHERE x < max_x AND x > min_x AND y < max_y AND y > min_y And have an index on the columns x (double) and y (double). As long I can see, I don't really need a database with an spatial index, howsoever my application is close to that kind of applications. And even if I would like to have nearby queries, then I could create a big enough bounding box around that point. Or will this lead to poor performance? Do I really need a spatial database? And when is a spatial index needed?

  Read the article

• Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

  - by misaxi

  Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400  | Next Page >