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  • Clarification On Write-Caching Policy, Its Underlying Options And How It Applies To Hard Drives And Solid-State Drives

    - by Boris_yo
    In last week after doing more research on subject matter, I have been wondering about what I have been neglecting all those years to understand write-caching policy, always leaving it on default setting. Write-caching policy improves writing performance and consists of write-back caching and write-cache buffer flushing. This is how I understand all the above, but correct me if I erred somewhere: Write-through cache / Write-through caching itself is not a part of write caching policy per se and it's when data is written to both cache and storage device so if Windows will need that data later again, it is retrieved from cache and not from storage device which means only improved read performance as there is no need for waiting for storage device to read required data again. Since data is still written to storage device, write performance isn't improved and represents no risk of data loss or corruption in case of power failure or system crash while only data in cache gets lost. This option seems to be enabled by default and is recommended for removable devices with no need to use function of "Safely Remove Hardware" on user's part. Write-back caching is similar to above but without writing data to storage device, periodically releasing data from cache and writing to storage device when it is idle. In my opinion this option improves both read and write performance but represents risk if power failure or system crash occurs with the outcome of not only losing data eventually to be written to storage device, but causing file inconsistencies or corrupted file system. Write-back caching cannot be enabled together with write-through caching and it is not recommended to be enabled if no backup power supply is availabe. Write-cache buffer flushing I reckon is similar to write-back caching but enables immediate release and writing of data from cache to storage device right before power outage occurs but I don't know if it applies also to occasional system crash. This option seem to be complementary to write-back cache reducing or potentially eliminating risk of data loss or corruption of file system. I have questions about relevance of last 2 options to today's modern SSDs in order to get best performance and with less wear on SSDs: I know that traditional hard drives come with onboard cache (I wonder what type of cache that is), but do SSDs also come with cache? Assuming they do, is this cache faster than their NAND flash and system RAM and worth taking the risk of utilizing it by enabling write-back cache? I read somewhere that generally storage device's cache is faster than RAM, but I want to be sure. Additionally I read that write-caching should be enabled since current data that is to be written later to NAND flash is kept for a while in cache and provided there is data that gets modified a lot before finally being written, holding of this data and its periodic release reduces its write times to SSD thereby reducing its wearing. Now regarding to write-cache buffer flushing, I heard that SSD controllers are so fast by themselves that enabling this option is not required, because they manage flushing. However, once again, I don't know if SSDs have their own onboard cache and whether or not it is faster than their NAND flash and system RAM because if it is, keeping this option enabled would make sense. Recently I have posted question about issue with my Intel 330 SSD 120GB which was main reason to do deeper research having suspicion of write-caching policy being the culprit of SSD's freezing issue assuming data being released is what causes freezes. Currently I have write-cache enabled and write-cache buffer flushing disabled because I believe SSD controller's management of write-cache flushing and Windows write-cache buffer flushing are conflicting with each other: Since I want to troubleshoot in small steps to finally determine the source of issue, I have decided to start with write-caching policy and the move to drivers, switching to AHCI later on and finally disabling DIPM (device initiated power management) through registry modification thanks to @TomWijsman

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  • InternalsVisibleTo attribute and security vulnerability

    - by Sergey Litvinov
    I found one issue with InternalsVisibleTo attribute usage. The idea of InternalsVisibleTo attribute to allow some other assemblies to use internal classes\methods of this assembly. To make it work you need sign your assemblies. So, if other assemblies isn't specified in main assembly and if they have incorrect public key, then they can't use Internal members. But the issue in Reflection Emit type generation. For example, we have CorpLibrary1 assembly and it has such class: public class TestApi { internal virtual void DoSomething() { Console.WriteLine("Base DoSomething"); } public void DoApiTest() { // some internal logic // ... // call internal method DoSomething(); } } This assembly is marked with such attribute to allow another CorpLibrary2 to make inheritor for that TestAPI and override behaviour of DoSomething method. [assembly: InternalsVisibleTo("CorpLibrary2, PublicKey=0024000004800000940000000602000000240000525341310004000001000100434D9C5E1F9055BF7970B0C106AAA447271ECE0F8FC56F6AF3A906353F0B848A8346DC13C42A6530B4ED2E6CB8A1E56278E664E61C0D633A6F58643A7B8448CB0B15E31218FB8FE17F63906D3BF7E20B9D1A9F7B1C8CD11877C0AF079D454C21F24D5A85A8765395E5CC5252F0BE85CFEB65896EC69FCC75201E09795AAA07D0")] The issue is that I'm able to override this internal DoSomething method and break class logic. My steps to do it: Generate new assembly in runtime via AssemblyBuilder Get AssemblyName from CorpLibrary1 and copy PublikKey to new assembly Generate new assembly that will inherit TestApi class As PublicKey and name of generated assembly is the same as in InternalsVisibleTo, then we can generate new DoSomething method that will override internal method in TestAPI assembly Then we have another assembly that isn't related to this CorpLibrary1 and can't use internal members. We have such test code in it: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var builder = new FakeBuilder(InjectBadCode, "DoSomething", true); TestApi fakeType = builder.CreateFake(); fakeType.DoApiTest(); // it will display: // Inject bad code // Base DoSomething Console.ReadLine(); } public static void InjectBadCode() { Console.WriteLine("Inject bad code"); } } And this FakeBuilder class has such code: /// /// Builder that will generate inheritor for specified assembly and will overload specified internal virtual method /// /// Target type public class FakeBuilder { private readonly Action _callback; private readonly Type _targetType; private readonly string _targetMethodName; private readonly string _slotName; private readonly bool _callBaseMethod; public FakeBuilder(Action callback, string targetMethodName, bool callBaseMethod) { int randomId = new Random((int)DateTime.Now.Ticks).Next(); _slotName = string.Format("FakeSlot_{0}", randomId); _callback = callback; _targetType = typeof(TFakeType); _targetMethodName = targetMethodName; _callBaseMethod = callBaseMethod; } public TFakeType CreateFake() { // as CorpLibrary1 can't use code from unreferences assemblies, we need to store this Action somewhere. // And Thread is not bad place for that. It's not the best place as it won't work in multithread application, but it's just a sample LocalDataStoreSlot slot = Thread.AllocateNamedDataSlot(_slotName); Thread.SetData(slot, _callback); // then we generate new assembly with the same nameand public key as target assembly trusts by InternalsVisibleTo attribute var newTypeName = _targetType.Name + "Fake"; var targetAssembly = Assembly.GetAssembly(_targetType); AssemblyName an = new AssemblyName(); an.Name = GetFakeAssemblyName(targetAssembly); // copying public key to new generated assembly var assemblyName = targetAssembly.GetName(); an.SetPublicKey(assemblyName.GetPublicKey()); an.SetPublicKeyToken(assemblyName.GetPublicKeyToken()); AssemblyBuilder assemblyBuilder = Thread.GetDomain().DefineDynamicAssembly(an, AssemblyBuilderAccess.RunAndSave); ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder = assemblyBuilder.DefineDynamicModule(assemblyBuilder.GetName().Name, true); // create inheritor for specified type TypeBuilder typeBuilder = moduleBuilder.DefineType(newTypeName, TypeAttributes.Public | TypeAttributes.Class, _targetType); // LambdaExpression.CompileToMethod can be used only with static methods, so we need to create another method that will call our Inject method // we can do the same via ILGenerator, but expression trees are more easy to use MethodInfo methodInfo = CreateMethodInfo(moduleBuilder); MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod(_targetMethodName, MethodAttributes.Public | MethodAttributes.Virtual); ILGenerator ilGenerator = methodBuilder.GetILGenerator(); // call our static method that will call inject method ilGenerator.EmitCall(OpCodes.Call, methodInfo, null); // in case if we need, then we put call to base method if (_callBaseMethod) { var baseMethodInfo = _targetType.GetMethod(_targetMethodName, BindingFlags.NonPublic | BindingFlags.Instance); // place this to stack ilGenerator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // call the base method ilGenerator.EmitCall(OpCodes.Call, baseMethodInfo, new Type[0]); // return ilGenerator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); } // generate type, create it and return to caller Type cheatType = typeBuilder.CreateType(); object type = Activator.CreateInstance(cheatType); return (TFakeType)type; } /// /// Get name of assembly from InternalsVisibleTo AssemblyName /// private static string GetFakeAssemblyName(Assembly assembly) { var internalsVisibleAttr = assembly.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(InternalsVisibleToAttribute), true).FirstOrDefault() as InternalsVisibleToAttribute; if (internalsVisibleAttr == null) { throw new InvalidOperationException("Assembly hasn't InternalVisibleTo attribute"); } var ind = internalsVisibleAttr.AssemblyName.IndexOf(","); var name = internalsVisibleAttr.AssemblyName.Substring(0, ind); return name; } /// /// Generate such code: /// ((Action)Thread.GetData(Thread.GetNamedDataSlot(_slotName))).Invoke(); /// private LambdaExpression MakeStaticExpressionMethod() { var allocateMethod = typeof(Thread).GetMethod("GetNamedDataSlot", BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.Public); var getDataMethod = typeof(Thread).GetMethod("GetData", BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.Public); var call = Expression.Call(allocateMethod, Expression.Constant(_slotName)); var getCall = Expression.Call(getDataMethod, call); var convCall = Expression.Convert(getCall, typeof(Action)); var invokExpr = Expression.Invoke(convCall); var lambda = Expression.Lambda(invokExpr); return lambda; } /// /// Generate static class with one static function that will execute Action from Thread NamedDataSlot /// private MethodInfo CreateMethodInfo(ModuleBuilder moduleBuilder) { var methodName = "_StaticTestMethod_" + _slotName; var className = "_StaticClass_" + _slotName; TypeBuilder typeBuilder = moduleBuilder.DefineType(className, TypeAttributes.Public | TypeAttributes.Class); MethodBuilder methodBuilder = typeBuilder.DefineMethod(methodName, MethodAttributes.Static | MethodAttributes.Public); LambdaExpression expression = MakeStaticExpressionMethod(); expression.CompileToMethod(methodBuilder); var type = typeBuilder.CreateType(); return type.GetMethod(methodName, BindingFlags.Static | BindingFlags.Public); } } remarks about sample: as we need to execute code from another assembly, CorpLibrary1 hasn't access to it, so we need to store this delegate somewhere. Just for testing I stored it in Thread NamedDataSlot. It won't work in multithreaded applications, but it's just a sample. I know that we use Reflection to get private\internal members of any class, but within reflection we can't override them. But this issue is allows anyone to override internal class\method if that assembly has InternalsVisibleTo attribute. I tested it on .Net 3.5\4 and it works for both of them. How does it possible to just copy PublicKey without private key and use it in runtime? The whole sample can be found there - https://github.com/sergey-litvinov/Tests_InternalsVisibleTo UPDATE1: That test code in Program and FakeBuilder classes hasn't access to key.sn file and that library isn't signed, so it hasn't public key at all. It just copying it from CorpLibrary1 by using Reflection.Emit

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  • Handle URI hacking gracefully in ASP.NET

    - by asbjornu
    I've written an application that handles most exceptions gracefully, with the page's design intact and a pretty error message. My application catches them all in the Page_Error event and there adds the exception to HttpContext.Curent.Context.Items and then does a Server.Transfer to an Error.aspx page. I find this to be the only viable solution in ASP.NET as there seems to be no other way to do it in a centralized and generic manner. I also handle the Application_Error and there I do some inspection on the exception that occurred to find out if I can handle it gracefully or not. Exceptions I've found I can handle gracefully are such that are thrown after someone hacking the URI to contain characters the .NET framework considers dangerous or basically just illegal at the file system level. Such URIs can look like e.g.: http://exmample.com/"illegal" http://example.com/illegal"/ http://example.com/illegal / (notice the space before the slash at the end of the last URI). I'd like these URIs to respond with a "404 Not Found" and a friendly message as well as not causing any error report to be sent to avoid DDOS attack vectors and such. I have, however, not found an elegant way to catch these types of errors. What I do now is inspect the exception.TargetSite.Name property, and if it's equal to CheckInvalidPathChars, ValidatePath or CheckSuspiciousPhysicalPath, I consider it a "path validation exception" and respond with a 404. This seems like a hack, though. First, the list of method names is probably not complete in any way and second, there's the possibility that these method names gets replaced or renamed down the line which will cause my code to break. Does anyone have an idea how I can handle this less hard-coded and much more future-proof way? PS: I'm using System.Web.Routing in my application to have clean and sensible URIs, if that is of any importance to any given solution.

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

    - by Mad Halfling
    Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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  • Localization approach for XSLT + RESX in ASP.NET

    - by frankadelic
    I have an ASP.NET web app where the back end data (XML format) is transformed using XSLT, producing XHTML which is output into the page. Simplified code: XmlDocument xmlDoc = MyRepository.RetrieveXmlData(keyValue); XslCompiledTransform xsl = new XslCompiledTransform(); xsl.Load(pathToXsl, XsltSettings.TrustedXslt, null); StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter(); xsl.Transform(xmlDoc, null, stringWriter); myLiteral.Text = stringWriter.ToString(); Currently my XSL file contains the XHTML markup elements, as well as text labels, which are currently in English. for example: <p>Title:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="title"/> </p> <p>Description:<br /> <xsl:value-of select="desc"/> </p> I would like the text labels (Title and Description above) to be localized. I was thinking of using .NET resource files (.resx), but I don't know how the resx string resources would get pulled in to the XSLT when the transformation takes place. I would prefer not to have locale-specific copies of the XSLT file, since that means a lot of duplicate transformation logic. (NOTE: the XML data is already localized, so I don't need to change that)

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  • Validation in n-tier asp.net mvc applications

    - by sTodorov
    Dear Stack Overflow gurus, I am looking for some practical/theoretical information regarding best practices for validation in asp.net mvc n-tier applications. I am working on a .Net application divided into the following layers: UI - Mvc3 BLL layer - all business rules. Decoupled from data access and UI layers through interfaces DAL layer - Data access with the repository pattern, EF4 and pocos Now, I am looking for a nice, clean and transparent way to specify my validation rules. Here are some thoughts on the matter so far: UI validation should only be responsible for user input and its validity. BLL validation should be handling the validity of the data regarding the application business rules. My main concern is how to bind the BLL and UI validation in the most efficient way. One think I am would like to avoid is having the UI check in a collection of validation and adding manually errors to the ModelState. Furthermore, I do not want to pass the ModelState to the BLL to be populated in there. I will appreciate any thoughts on the matter. P.S. Should this question be marked as a discussion ?

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  • Asp.Net Cache, modify an object from cache and it changes the cached value

    - by Glen
    Hi, I'm having an issue when using the Asp.Net Cache functionality. I add an object to the Cache then at another time I get that object from the Cache, modify one of it's properties then save the changes to the database. But, the next time I get the object from Cache it contains the changed values. So, when I modify the object it modifies the version which is contained in cache even though I haven't updated it in the Cache specifically. Does anyone know how I can get an object from the Cache which doesn't reference the cached version? i.e. Step 1: Item item = new Item(); item.Title = "Test"; Cache.Insert("Test", item, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(1), System.Web.Caching.Cache.NoSlidingExpiration); Step 2: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); item.Title = "Test 1"; Step 3: Item item = (Item)Cache.Get("test"); if(item.Title == "Test 1"){ Response.Write("Object has been changed in the Cache."); } I realise that with the above example it would make sense that any changes to the item get reflected in cache but my situation is a bit more complicated and I definitely don't want this to happen.

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  • Create custom culture in ASP.NET

    - by Billy
    I want to create a resource file for Singaporean English (en-sg) named "shopping.en-sg.resx" in App_GlobalResources folder. I get error during compilation. Error 1 The namespace 'Resources' already contains a definition for 'shopping' c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\web\2cd6afe9\737b0a13\App_GlobalResources.vomuzavz.1.cs 26 After searching Google, I discover that "en-sg" is not a default culture and I have to create custom culture for it. I don't know the detailed steps of this. What should I do to create the culture and remove the compilation error? I follow the example in MSDN, create a file called "shopping.x-en-US-sample.resx" and put the following code into BasePage's function (protected override void InitializeCulture()): CultureAndRegionInfoBuilder cib = null; cib = new CultureAndRegionInfoBuilder( "x-en-US-sample", CultureAndRegionModifiers.None); CultureInfo ci = new CultureInfo("en-US"); cib.LoadDataFromCultureInfo(ci); RegionInfo ri = new RegionInfo("US"); cib.LoadDataFromRegionInfo(ri); cib.Register(); ci = new CultureInfo("x-en-US-sample"); However, compilation error is still exist. UPDATED: You can easily reproduce the problem by creating an empty website and two files "shopping.en-sg.resx" and "shopping.resx" in the app_globalresources folder.

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  • A very weird problem with localization (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Alex
    I'm using Web Developer 2010. I just created a resource file lang.resx with different values in english. Then I created a lang.FR-fr.resx with French equivalents. However after tryingto compile, I get Error 131 Task could not find "AL.exe" using the SdkToolsPath "C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0A\bin\NETFX 4.0 Tools\" or the registry key "HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Microsoft SDKs\Windows\v7.0A". Make sure the SdkToolsPath is set and the tool exists in the correct processor specific location under the SdkToolsPath and that the Microsoft Windows SDK is installed This is so weird! If I remove FR-fr part, it will work, but there will be no translation of course. I went to that directory and found out that I don't have al.exe there. I managed to find it in .NET 2 folder, but after copying it didn't help. It throws an exception. I tried to reinstall .NET 4, to install Windows SDK, and it still doesn't work. Maybe I can somehow get this al.exe file?

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  • Open PDF Content files in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by mcbingo
    I want to provide simple href links to my PDF forms that reside in my Forms folder. I have a created a simple Index.aspx and FormController Index action that simple iterates through the list of PDF files using my FormMetaData.xml file. The links get created just fine but when you click on the links I get a 404 exception. That looks like this: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Forms/ccindteamgolfform.pdf Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 This seems like this should open up a new browser window with the PDF in it but perhaps I am making a bad assumption. The PDF content files have Build Action of Content and Copy to Output set to Copy Always. Here is an example output html for the link from my Index.aspx page: <span class="form"> <a href="Forms/ccindteamgolfform.pdf" target="_blank"> <span class="description">Entry Form</span></span> I must be missing something because this does not work. Do I need to add a MapRoute for these documents? Or am I missing something else with the routing? This seems like it should not be that difficult.

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  • Do I need Response.End() in ASP.Net 2.0

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    Hi, I am just starting with ASP.Net. I copied a ex-co-worker's code (from .Net 1.1 era) and it has a Response.End(); in case of an error. There is also a: catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); Response.End(); } at the end of Page_Load(object sender, System.EventArgs e) which always appends "Thread was aborted." or something like that at the end. I suspect that this worked differently before, or the error conditions were not tested very well. Anyhow, I was able to stop using Response.End(); in case when I do not like the GET parameters, and use return; instead. It seemed to do the right think in a simple case. Is this Ok in general? There are some problems with the code I copied, but I do not want to do a rewrite; I just want to get it running first and find wrinkles later. The Response.End(); caused a mental block for me, however, so I want to figure it out. I want to keep the catch all clause just in case, at least for now. I could also end the method with: catch (System.Threading.ThreadAbortException) { Response.End(); } catch (Exception ex) { Response.Write(ex.Message); Response.End(); } but that just seems extremely stupid, once you think about all of the exceptions being generated. Please give me a few words of wisdom. Feel free to ask if something is not clear. Thanks! P.S. Ex-coworker was not fired and is a good coder - one more reason to reuse his example.

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  • Database and logic layer for ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern as it allows to apply filter in logic layer rather than in data access layer. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right? So questions basically are - Is MySQL to Linq possible? If yes where can I get more details on it? Pros and cons of using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will it be easy to access data using EntityFramework with MySQL? Will I be able to implement repository patter which allows applying filter in logic layer rather than data access layer (when I use EntityFramework with MySQL) Does it fetches hell lot of data from database and then apply filter on it? If it sounds too many questions from my side in that case, if you can just let me know what you will do (with a considerable reason) in this situation as an experienced person in this area, that should answer my question.

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  • "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" error in Windows 7 (ASP.NET & Web Service)

    - by Tony_Henrich
    I have an asp.net web app which works fine in Windows XP machine in a domain. I am porting it to a Windows 7 stand alone machine. The app uses a web service which makes a call to sql server. The web server (IIS 7.5) and SQL Server are on the same stand alone machine. I enabled Windows authentication for the website and web service. The web service uses a trusted connection connection string. The web service credentials uses System.Net.CredentialCache.DefaultCredentials. I noticed username, password and domainname are blank after the call! The webservice and web site use an application pool with identity "Network Service". I am getting an exception "NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON" in the database call in the web service. I am assuming it's related to the blank credentials. I am expecting ASPNET user to be the security token to the database. Why is this not happening? (Usually this happens when sql server and web server are on two different machines in a domain, delegation & double hopping, but in my case everything is on a dev box)

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  • MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

    - by Barslett
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

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  • ASP.NET Login Control rejects users who exist

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I'm having some trouble with the ASP.NET 2.0 Login Control. I've setup a database with the aspI.net regsql tool. I've checked the application name. It is set to "/". The application can access the SQL Server. In fact, when I go to retrieve the password, it will even send me the password. Despite this, the login control continues to reject logins. I added this to the web.config: <membership defaultProvider="AspNetSqlProvider"> <providers> <clear/> <add name="AspNetSqlProvider" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer" applicationName="/" type="System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"/> </providers> And I added the following to my connection strings: <remove name="LocalSqlServer" /> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Data Source=IDC-4\EXCALIBUR;Initial Catalog=allied_nr;Integrated Security=True;Asynchronous Processing=True"/> (Note the "remove name" is to get rid of the default connection string in the App_Data directory.) Why won't the login control authenticate users?

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  • Identity.Name is disposed in a IIS7 Asp.NET MVC application Thread

    - by vIceBerg
    I have made the smallest demo project to illustrate my problem. You can download the sources Here Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, IIS7, Windows 7 Ultimate 32 bits. The IIS Website is configured ONLY for Windows Authentication in an Integreated pipeline app pool (DefaultAppPool). Here's the problem. I have an Asp.NET MVC 2 application. In an action, I start a thread. The View returns. The thread is doing it's job... but it needs to access Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name BANG The worker process of IIS7 stops. I have a window that says: "Visual Studio Just-In-Time Debugger An unhandled exception ('System.Object.DisposedException') occured in w3wp.exe [5524]" I checked with the debugger and the Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity is valid, but the Name property is disposed. If I put a long wait in the action before it returns the view, then the Thread can do it's job and the Identity.Name is not disposed. So I think the Name gets disposed when the view is returned. For the sake of the discussion, here's the code that the thread runs (but you can also download the demo project. The link is on top of this post): private void Run() { const int SECTOWAIT = 3; //wait SECTOWAIT seconds long end = DateTime.Now.Ticks + (TimeSpan.TicksPerSecond * SECTOWAIT); while (DateTime.Now.Ticks <= end) continue; //Check the currentprincipal. BANG!!!!!!!!!!!!! var userName = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; } Here's the code that starts the thread public void Start() { Thread thread = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(ThreadProc)); thread.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.MTA); thread.Name = "TestThread"; thread.Start(this); } static void ThreadProc(object o) { try { Builder builder = (Builder)o; builder.Run(); } catch (Exception ex) { throw; } } So... what am i doing wrong? Thanks

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  • Issue with Callback method and maintaining CultureInfo and ASP.Net HttpRuntime

    - by Little Larry Sellers
    Hi All, Here is my issue. I am working on an E-commerce solution that is deployed to multiple European countries. We persist all exceptions within the application to SQL Server and I have found that there are records in the DB that have a DateTime in the future! We define the culture in the web.config, for example pt-PT, and the format expected is DD-MM-YYYY. After debugging I found the issue with these 'future' records in the DB is because of Callback methods we use. For example, in our Caching architecture we use Callbacks, as such - CacheItemRemovedCallback ReloadCallBack = new CacheItemRemovedCallback(OnRefreshRequest); When I check the current threads CultureInfo, on these Callbacks it is en-US instead of pt-PT and also the HttpContext is null. If an exception occurs on the Callback our exception manager reports it as MM-DD-YYYY and thus it is persisted to SQL Server incorrectly. Unfortunately, in the exception manager code, we use DateTime.Now, which is fine if it is not a callback. I can't change this code to be culture specific due to it being shared across other verticals. So, why don't callbacks into ASP.Net maintain context? Is there any way to maintain it on this callback thread? What are the best practices here? Thanks.

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  • ASP.NET - Webservice not being called from javascript

    - by Robert
    Ok I'm stumped on this one. I've got a ASMX web service up and running. I can browse to it (~/Webservice.asmx) and see the .NET generated page and test it out.. and it works fine. I've got a page with a Script Manager with the webservice registered... and i can call it in javascript (Webservice.Method(...)) just fine. However, I want to use this Webservice as part of a jQuery Autocomplete box. So I have use the url...? and the Webservice is never being called. Here's the code. [WebService(Namespace = "http://tempuri.org/")] [WebServiceBinding(ConformsTo = WsiProfiles.BasicProfile1_1)] // To allow this Web Service to be called from script, using ASP.NET AJAX, uncomment the following line. [System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptService] public class User : System.Web.Services.WebService { public User () { //Uncomment the following line if using designed components //InitializeComponent(); } [WebMethod] public string Autocomplete(string q) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); //doStuff return sb.ToString(); } web.config <system.web> <webServices> <protocols> <add name="HttpGet"/> <add name="HttpPost"/> </protocols> </webServices> And the HTML $(document).ready(function() { User.Autocomplete("rr", function(data) { alert(data); });//this works ("#<%=txtUserNbr.ClientID %>").autocomplete("/User.asmx/Autocomplete"); //doesn't work $.ajax({ url: "/User.asmx/Autocomplete", success: function() { alert(data); }, error: function(e) { alert(e); } }); //just to test... calls "error" function });

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  • ASP.Net : Error in sending EMail from Google Apps hosted at Godaddy

    - by user279244
    Hello, I want to send EMail from my Website hosted at GoDaddy, and we are using Google Apps for Emails. Here is my code in ASP.Net/ C# MailMessage mMailMessage = new MailMessage(); mMailMessage.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]", "GotFeedback", System.Text.Encoding.UTF8); mMailMessage.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")); mMailMessage.Subject = "subject"; mMailMessage.SubjectEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; mMailMessage.Body = body; mMailMessage.BodyEncoding = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8; mMailMessage.IsBodyHtml = true; mMailMessage.Priority = MailPriority.Normal; SmtpClient mSmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mSmtpClient.UseDefaultCredentials = false; mSmtpClient.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential("[email protected]", "mypassword"); mSmtpClient.Host = "SMTP.GOOGLE.COM"; mSmtpClient.Port = 587; mSmtpClient.EnableSsl = true; try { mSmtpClient.Send(mMailMessage); } catch(Exception e) { string edsf = e.ToString(); } But I am getting Exception that it is unable to connect to remote server. Please help. Thanks

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  • Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework Sports Store tutorial

    - by gary7
    Following the tutorial in the book "Pro ASP.Net MVC 3 Entity Framework" in Chapter 9 - Image Uploads section; asks that the Product class be updated with two new columns - public byte ImageData, and public string ImageType. It also directs that the database be updated with these two columns via the server explorer. After these updates, the discussion directs that the Entity Framework Conceptual Model be updated via the SportsStore.EDMX file. This file does not exist in the source code for the project, and was not used in the project to begin with. Obvious errata for the book. Adding the ADO.NET Entity Data Model to the Project then overrides the EFProduct reposistory (conceptual model used throughout the project) which inherits from the interface IProductsRepository; and results in errors within the mapping. If the project is debugged after the columns are added, an error is thrown related to the new added columns. Has anyone resolved this issue in the project? I haven't found any solutions so far. Thanks!

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  • Does ASP.NET Tracing work in MVC2 Views?

    - by AUSTX_RJL
    I have a VS 2010 MVC2 .NET 4.0 web application. ASP.NET tracing is enabled both in the Page directive (Trace="true) and in the Web.config: <trace enabled="true" requestLimit="10" pageOutput="true" traceMode="SortByTime" localOnly="true" writeToDiagnosticsTrace="true" /> A standard trace listener is also configured in the Web.config: <trace autoflush="true" indentsize="4"> <listeners> <add name="WebPageTrace" type="System.Web.WebPageTraceListener, System.Web, Version=4.0.30319.1, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" /> <add name="TextWriterTrace" type="System.Diagnostics.TextWriterTraceListener" initializeData="textListener.log" /> </listeners> </trace> Tracing works fine from the controller, but when I add a Trace in the View (.aspx) nothing ever shows: <% System.Diagnostics.Trace.WriteLine("Message System.Diagnostics.Trace from View"); %> <% Page.Trace.Write("Message Page.Trace from View"); %> Is this supposed to work? Is there something else that is needed to enable Tracing from a View? Thanks

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  • Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

    - by Wayne M
    This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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  • Help regarding database and logic layer for my ASP.NET MVC application

    - by Ismail S
    I'm going to start a new project which is going to be small initially but may grow to big over the years. I'm strongly convinced that I'm going to use ASP.NET MVC with jQuery for UI. I want to go for MySQL as database for some reasons but worried on few things. I've a good years of experience working on SQL Server databases and on one project I've had a bad experience creating and managing stored procedures on MySQL database. I'm totally new to Linq but I see that it is easier to use once you are familiar with it. First thing is that accessing data should be easy. So I thought I should use MySQL to Linq but somewhere I read that it is not directly supported but MySQL .NET connector adds support for EntityFramework. I don't know what are the pros and cons of it. I would love if I can implement repository pattern. Will it be possible if I use Entity Framework? I'm not clear on how I should go about all this or I should just forget every thing and directly use SQL to Linq on SQL Server. I'm also concerned about the performance. Someone told me that if we use Entity framework it fetches lot of data and then filter it. Is that right?

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  • Asp.Net Cookie sharing

    - by SH
    This is C#.Net code: How to share Cookie between 2 HttpWebRequest calls? Details: I am posting a form in first request, this form contains some setting variables which are used by the system. lets say there is a input field in the form which sets the size of grid pages to be displayed in other pages. Once i have updated the setings in previous request, i go to send a request to another page which shows off asp.net gridview/grid. The grid might contaian several pages and the page size should be the one which i set in previous request. But when i do this via HttpWebReeust it does not happen. When i do it via browser, loading the setting page in the browser and then going to the grid view page... i see the page size is updated. I want to achieve this via code. Sicne i am scraping this grid. i have to set page size or visit the gird pages one by one via code. Or is it possible to set a cookie on 2nd request which is used to set in first request? It will be great if i go this way. any solution?

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