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  • A couple of questions on exceptions/flow control and the application of custom exceptions

    - by dotnetdev
    1) Custom exceptions can help make your intentions clear. How can this be? The intention is to handle or log the exception, regardless of whether the type is built-in or custom. The main reason I use custom exceptions is to not use one exception type to cover the same problem in different contexts (eg parameter is null in system code which may be effect by an external factor and an empty shopping basket). However, the partition between system and business-domain code and using different exception types seems very obvious and not making the most of custom exceptions. Related to this, if custom exceptions cover the business exceptions, I could also get all the places which are sources for exceptions at the business domain level using "Find all references". Is it worth adding exceptions if you check the arguments in a method for being null, use them a few times, and then add the catch? Is it a realistic risk that an external factor or some other freak cause could cause the argument to be null after being checked anyway? 2) What does it mean when exceptions should not be used to control the flow of programs and why not? I assume this is like: if (exceptionVariable != null) { } Is it generally good practise to fill every variable in an exception object? As a developer, do you expect every possible variable to be filled by another coder?

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  • WCF NetTcpBinding Security - how does it work?

    - by RemotecUk
    Hi, encountered the following problems trying to work through the quagmire of settings in WCF... I created a WCF client server service using a NetTcp binding. I didn't make any changes to the security settings and when running on one machine it works very nicely. However, when I ran my client from another machine it complained that the server didnt like the security credentials that were sent. I understand now that NetTCP is "secured" by default and that my client would have been passing the wrong security details - namely the windows user name and password (or some form of domain authentication) to my server which as they are not running on the same domain it would not have liked. However, what I don't understand is as follows: I haven't specified any security in my binding - does the standard settings expect a windows user name or password to be sent? I don't have any certificate installed on my server - I understand that NetTCP bindings need some form of public private key to protect the credentials - yet this seemed to work when both client and server were on the same machine - how was the data getting encrypted? Or wants it as WCF knew it was on the same machine and encryption isn't needed? I have had to set my security mode on my client and server to "none" now and they connect nicely. However is there any way to encrypt my data without a certificate? Finally... what is the difference between Transport and Message security? To check my understanding (excuse the scenario!) message security is like if I sent a letter from person A to person B and I encode my hand writing to ensure that if anyone intercepts it they cannot read it? Transport Security is if I decide to have my letter sent by armed transport so that no one can get at it along the way? Is it possible to have any form of encryption in WCF without a certificate? My project is a private project and I dont want to purchase a certificate and the data isnt that sensitive anyway so its just for my own knowledge. Thanks in advance.

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  • Calling SQL Azure's stored procedure in silverlight

    - by sweetsweet
    I have a silverlight application to call the SQL Azure's stored procedure and show the data. I use the service to call stored procedure, and it is working when it is run at VS 2008. But when I integrate in php page, the data is not shown. I think the service is not running. How can I call SQL Azure stored procedure without using service? I cannot use ADO.Net Entity Domain Model and LINQ to SQL(I don't have permission to access that database in GUI). I cannot connect to SQL Azure, so which method can I use to call SQL Azure stored procedure in silverlight? Please give me the information. {I don't know very much about that silverlight. To take the detailes of my project. I want to call SQL Azure's stored procedure. So, I tried to call that Stored Procedure from ADO.Net Entity Domain Model. The problem is I cannot access that SQL Azure database. It show "Buit_in function suer_sname is not supported in this version of SQL server. Therefore, I connect to that Stored Procedure in code beind and call that function in Service and to use that data in presentation layer, I add service reference in silverlight(I mean the service is at the same project). It is perfectly working when it is running at VS. So,I take out xap file and call that xap file in php. The silverlight is running in that PHP page but the data is not shown. I think the service is not hosted. So, how can I solve my problem? I use xampp to run my php page. }

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  • How to perform a 301 redirect of all .php URLs to clean URLs?

    - by spacedatdusk
    My htaccess isn't quite working the way I want it to. I've seen some similar threads on here but they aren't quite what I need and I don't know enough yet about htaccess to modify the code to suit my needs. This is what I have working so far: I've got all non-www URLs redirecting to www URLs and I'm doing an internal rewrite of all URLs to the corresponding PHP file on the server. In the files I have relative links that are clean without any file extension on them. This is what I need to do yet: All the pages on my site are still accessible through URLs with .php on the end. For SEO reasons I want the URL's with .php to all do an external 301 redirect to the clean URL without the extension. Here's what I have in my htaccess file that's in the root folder on my server. Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.domain.com/$1 [L,R=301] I'd appreciate any help. Thanks in advance!

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  • Why isn't jQuery automatically appending the JSONP callback?

    - by Aseem Kishore
    The $.getJSON() documentation states: If the specified URL is on a remote server, the request is treated as JSONP instead. See the discussion of the jsonp data type in $.ajax() for more details. The $.ajax() documentation for the jsonp data type states (emphasis mine): Loads in a JSON block using JSONP. Will add an extra "?callback=?" to the end of your URL to specify the callback. So it seems that if I call $.getJSON() with a cross-domain URL, the extra "callback=?" parameter should automatically get added. (Other parts of the documentation support this interpretation.) However, I'm not seeing that behavior. If I don't add the "callback=?" explicitly, jQuery incorrectly makes an XMLHttpRequest (which returns null data since I can't read the response cross-domain). If I do add it explicitly, jQuery correctly makes a <script> request. Here's an example: var URL = "http://www.geonames.org/postalCodeLookupJSON" + "?postalcode=10504&country=US"; function alertResponse(data, status) { alert("data: " + data + ", status: " + status); } $.getJSON(URL, alertResponse); // alerts "data: null, status: success" $.getJSON(URL + "&callback=?", alertResponse); // alerts "data: [object Object], status: undefined" So what's going on? Am I misunderstanding the documentation or forgetting something? It goes without saying that this isn't a huge deal, but I'm creating a web API and I purposely set the callback parameter to "callback" in the hopes of tailoring it nicely to jQuery usage. Thanks!

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  • EWS: RemoveExtendedProperty throws error when used on an occurrence of a recurring appointment

    - by flyfishnjake
    I am developing an application that syncs an exchange calendar to another calendar. I put extended properties on the exchange appointments in order to preserve the mapping between appointments in the two calendars. Everything is working fine until I try to remove an extended property from an occurrence of a recurring appointment. When I try doing this, I get the error: The delete action is not supported for this property. Here is a code snippet that demonstrates the error: public void ExchangeTest() { ExchangeService service = new ExchangeService(ExchangeVersion.Exchange2007_SP1) { Credentials = new NetworkCredential("username", "password", "domain") }; service.AutodiscoverUrl("[email protected]"); Appointment appt = new Appointment(service) { Recurrence = new Recurrence.DailyPattern(DateTime.Now, 2) { NumberOfOccurrences = 3}, Start = DateTime.Now, End = DateTime.Now.AddHours(2), Subject = "Test Appointment" }; NameResolutionCollection resolutionCollection = service.ResolveName("username", ResolveNameSearchLocation.DirectoryOnly, false); string mailboxAddress = resolutionCollection.First().Mailbox.Address; FolderId folderId = new FolderId(WellKnownFolderName.Calendar, mailboxAddress); appt.Save(folderId); PropertySet properties = new PropertySet(AppointmentSchema.ICalUid); appt.Load(properties); CalendarView view = new CalendarView(DateTime.Today, DateTime.Today.AddDays(8)){PropertySet = properties}; IEnumerable<Appointment> occurrences = service.FindAppointments(folderId, view) .Where(a => a.ICalUid == appt.ICalUid); ExtendedPropertyDefinition definition = new ExtendedPropertyDefinition(DefaultExtendedPropertySet.PublicStrings, "TestProperty", MapiPropertyType.String); Appointment firstOccurrence = occurrences.First(); firstOccurrence.SetExtendedProperty(definition, "test"); firstOccurrence.Update(ConflictResolutionMode.AutoResolve); //The error occurs on the next line. firstOccurrence.RemoveExtendedProperty(definition); firstOccurrence.Update(ConflictResolutionMode.AutoResolve); //clean up appt.Delete(DeleteMode.HardDelete); } It appears that the error is only thrown for an Exchange 2007 server (It works on 2010). Am I doing something wrong, or is this a problem with Exchange? Is there a way to work around this issue? Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to make a non-nullable column nullable when used in a view? (sql server)

    - by Matt
    Hi, To start off I have two tables, PersonNames and PersonNameVariations. When a name is searched, it finds the closest name to one of the ones available in PersonNames and records it in the PersonNameVariations table if it's not already in there. I am using a stored proc to search the PersonNames for a passed in PersonNameVariationand return the information on both the PersonName found and the PersonNameVariation that was compared to it. Since I am using the Entity Framework, I needed return a complex type in the Import Function but for some reason it says my current framework doesn't support it. My last option was to use an Entity to return in my stored proc instead. The result that I needed back is the information on both the PersonName that was found and the PersonNameVariation that was recorded. Since I cannot return both entities, I created a view PersonSearchVariationInfo and added it into my Entity Framework in order to use it as the entity to return. The problem is that the search will not always return a Person Name match. It needs to be able to return only the PersonNameVariation data in some cases, meaning that all the fields in the PersonSearchVariationInfo pertaining to PersonName need to be nullable. How can I take my view and make some of the fields nullable? When I do it directly in the Entity Framework I get a mapping error: Error 4 Error 3031: Problem in mapping fragments starting at line 1202:Non-nullable column myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo.DateAdded in table myproject_vw_PersonSearchVariationInfo is mapped to a nullable entity property. C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\MyProject\MyProject.Domain\EntityFramework\MyProjectDBEntities.edmx 1203 15 MyProject.Domain Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Matt

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  • XML Attributes or Element Nodes?

    - by Camsoft
    Example XML using element nodes: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <users> <user> <name>David Smith</name> <phone>0441 234443</phone> <email>[email protected]</email> <addresses> <address> <street>1 Some Street</street> <town>Toy Town</town> <country>UK</country> </address> <address> <street>5 New Street</street> <town>Lego City</town> <country>US</country> </address> </addresses> </user> </users> Example XML using attributes: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <users> <user name="David Smith" phone="0441 234443" email="[email protected]"> <addresses> <address street="1 Some Street" town="Toy Town" country="UK" /> <address street="5 New Street" town="Lego City" country="US" /> </addresses> </user> </users> I'm needing to build an XML file based on data from a relation database and can't work out whether I should use attributes or elements. What is best practice when building XML files?

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  • Best practice for structuring a new large ASP.NET MVC2 plus EF4 VS2010 solution?

    - by Nick
    Hi, we are building a new web application using Microsoft ASP.NET MVC2 and Entity Framework 4. Although I am sure there is not one right answer to my question, we are struggling to agree a VS2010 solution structure. The application will use SQL Server 2008 with a possible future Azure cloud version. We are using EF4 with T4 POCOs (model-first) and accessing a number of third-party web-services. We will also be connecting to a number of external messaging systems. UI is based on standard ASP.NET (MVC) with jQuery. In future we may deliver a Silverlight/WPF version - as well as mobile. So put simply, we start with a VS2010 blank solution - then what? I have suggested 4 folders Data (the EF edmx file etc), Domain (entities, repositories), Services (web-services access), Presentation (web ui etc). However under Presentation, creating the ASP.NET MVC2 project obviously creates it's own Models folder etc and it just doesn't seem to fit too well in this proposed structure. I'm also missing a business layer (or does this sit in the domain?). Again I am sure there is no one right way to do it, but I'd really appreciate your views on this. Thanks

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  • Core Data Migration - "Can't add source store" error

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, In my iPhone app I'm using Core Data and I've made changes to my data model that cannot be automatically migrated over (i.e. added new relationships). I added the data model version (Design - Data Model - Add Model Version) and applied my new data model changes to the new version 2. I then created a mapping object model and set the Source and Destination models to their correct data models (old and new respectively). When I run the app and call the persistentStoreCoordinator, my app barfs with the following: 2010-02-27 02:40:30.922 XXXX[73578:20b] Unresolved error Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134110 UserInfo=0xfc2240 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134110.)", { NSUnderlyingError = Error Domain=NSCocoaErrorDomain Code=134130 UserInfo=0xfbb3a0 "Operation could not be completed. (Cocoa error 134130.)"; reason = "Can't add source store"; } FWIW (not much i think) I've also made the usual code changes in persistentStoreCoordinator to use the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption and NSInferMappingModelAutomaticallyOption (for future data model changes that can be automatically migrated). More relevantly, my managedObjectModel is created by calling initWithContentsOfURL where the file/resource type is "momd". I've tried updating both the source and destination model in the mapping model (Design - Mapping Model - Update XXX Model) as well as deleted the mapping model and recreated it. I've cleaned and re-built but all to no avail. I still get the above error message. Any pointers/thoughts on how I can further debug or resolve this problem please? I haven't posted any code snippets because this feels much more like a build environment issue (and my code is very standard - just the usual core data code to handle migrations using a mapping model but I'm happy to show the code if it helps). Appreciate any help. Thanks

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  • sermyadmin 2.01

    - by lepricon123
    I am able to install sermyadmin 2.0.1 and got everything working. Only user registration is not working. When I register a user the entry goe sin DB etc find but the email is not send to the user. We are using our own smtp server with no authentication. And I am sure there is nothing wrong with the smtp server. I can see that it has received a request from sermyadmin but in the logs Is ee that the FROM adddress is missing. So it is throwing 553 5.1.8 Domain of sender address does not exist. The domain does exist. Here is my resources.xml with all the valid entries. Since I don;t need the smtp authentication which the server is not using, i removed that. <beans xmlns="www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation=" www.springframework.org/schema/beans www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spr...ns-2.0.xsd"> <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl"> <property name="host" value="10.100.22.365" /> </bean> <bean id="mailMessage" class="org.springframework.mail.SimpleMailMessage"> <property name="from" value="[email protected]" /> </bean> </beans>

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  • Hibernate "JOIN ... ON"?

    - by CaptainAwesomePants
    I have an application that uses Hibernate for its domain objects. One part of the app is common between a few apps, and it has no knowledge of the other systems. In order to handle relations, our class looks like this: @Entity public class SystemEvent { @Id @GeneratedValue public int entity_id; @Column(name="event_type") public String eventType; @Column(name="related_id") public int relatedObjectId; } relatedObjectId holds a foreign key to one of several different objects, depending on the type of event. When a system wants to know about events that are relevant to its interests, it grabs all the system events with eventType "NewAccounts" or some such thing, and it knows that all of those relatedObjectIds are IDs to a "User" object or similar. Unfortunately, this has caused a problem down the line. I can't figure out a way to tell Hibernate about this mapping, which means that HQL queries can't do joins. I'd really like to create an HQL query that looks like this: SELECT users FROM SystemEvent event join Users newUsers where event.eventType = 'SignUp' However, Hibernate has no knowledge of the relationship between SystemEvent and Users, and as far as I can tell, there's no way to tell it. So here's my question: Is there any way to tell Hibernate about a relationship when your domain objects reference each other via ID numbers and not class references?

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  • Forms authentication, ASP.NET MVC and WCF RESTful service

    - by J F
    One test webserver, with the following applications service.ganymedes.com:8008 - WCF RESTful service, basically the FormsAuth sample from WCF Starter Kit Preview 2 mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 - ASP.NET MVC 2.0 application web.config for service.ganymedes.com: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/login.aspx" timeout="2880" domain="ganymedes.com" name="GANYMEDES_COOKIE" path="/" /> </authentication> web.config for mvc.ganymedes.com: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" domain="ganymedes.com" name="GANYMEDES_COOKIE" path="/" /> </authentication> Trying my darndest, a GET (or POST for that matter) via jQuery's $.ajax or getJson does not send my cookie (according to Firebug), so I get HTTP 302 returned from the WCF service: Request Headers Host service.ganymedes.com:8008 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.8) Gecko/20100202 Firefox/3.5.8 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept application/json, text/javascript, */* Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008/Test Origin http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 It's sent when mucking about on the MVC site though: Request Headers Host mvc.ganymedes.com:8008 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.1.8) Gecko/20100202 Firefox/3.5.8 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729) Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 300 Connection keep-alive Referer http://mvc.ganymedes.com:8008/Test Cookie GANYMEDES_COOKIE=0106A4A666C8C615FBFA9811E9A6C5219C277D625C04E54122D881A601CD0E00C10AF481CB21FAED544FAF4E9B50C59CDE2385644BBF01DDD4F211FE7EE8FAC2; GANYMEDES_COOKIE=D6569887B7C5B67EFE09079DD59A07A98311D7879817C382D79947AE62B5508008C2B2D2112DCFCE5B8D4C61D45A109E61BBA637FD30315C2D8353E8DDFD4309 I also put the exact same settings in both applications' web.config files (self-generated validationKey and decryptionKey).

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  • WCF RIA Silverlight deployment issues

    - by Handleman
    It seems the world is awash with people having problems deploying RIA WCF services, and now I'm one too. I've already tried a bunch of things, but to no avail. I need WCF RIA to support a Silverlight 3 application I've built. The short story is, using the new WCF RIA services (Nov 09?) I open VS 2008, create new project (silverlight application), enabling ".NET RIA services". Add new item to web project - Linq2SQL dbml file (from SQL 2005 DB prepared earlier) and compile. I add a new item to the web project - domain service (link the tables I need) and compiled. Using the domain context I "Load" data with a standard RIA get query in the MainPage and add a TextBlock to display returned data. Build & run (cassini) - success. Using VS to publish to IIS on local PC - success. Using VS to publish to test server (IIS6) - browse to location and the Silverlight app loads but Fiddler tells me I've got a 404 on all the the WCF .svc requests. Use Fiddler to "launch IE" on the service request and it's true - 404. I have already run aspnet_regiis, ServiceModelReg and added mime types for .xap, .xaml, .xbap and .svc. I have included the System.Web.Ria and System.Web.DomainServices DLL with copy local true. I need help with either a) a solution b) an approach to find a solution

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  • git pull not working

    - by dorelal
    I am not using github. We have git setup on our machine. I created a branch from master called experiment. However when I am trying to do git pull I am getting following message. > git pull You asked me to pull without telling me which branch you want to merge with, and 'branch.experiment.merge' in your configuration file does not tell me either. Please specify which branch you want to merge on the command line and try again (e.g. 'git pull <repository> <refspec>'). See git-pull(1) for details. Here is result of git remote show origin > git remote show origin * remote origin Fetch URL: ssh://git.domain.com/var/git/app.git Push URL: ssh://git.domain.com/var/git/app.git HEAD branch: master Remote branches: experiment tracked master tracked Local branches configured for 'git pull': master merges with remote master Local refs configured for 'git push': experiment pushes to experiment (local out of date) master pushes to master (up to date) As I read the message above experiment is mapped to origin/experiment. And my local repository knows that it is out of date. Then why I am not able to do git pull?

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  • asp.net mvc cookies not being sent back

    - by brian b
    My application at mysubdomain.mydomain.com needs to set a cookie that contains some user session information. They log in at a https page. We authenticate them and set some session info in a cookie. We do this in a helper library that takes in the controller context contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Value = encryptedTicket; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Expires = cookieExpires; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Domain= ConfigHelper.CookieDomain; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].HttpOnly=true; We do a quick redirect in the controller (to a non https page): this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect(redirectTo, false); return null; The cookie appears in the response (according to firebug's net tab). But neither fireforx nor ie send the cookie on subsequent gets. We are setting the cookie domain to mydomain.com even though the site is mysubdomain.mydomain.com. Skipping the redirect command has no effect, nor does changing the cookie value. I'm baffled. Thanks for any suggestions.

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  • htaccess mod_rewrite check file/directory existence, else rewrite?

    - by devians
    I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Another option is using -U, but the tricky part is stopping it from hijacking every other request when they should flow through, since -U is really easy to satisfy. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome. I am not interested in using RewriteBase, as that requires my htaccess to have a hardcoded base path.

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  • scripsharp reference web service / strongly type to results model

    - by user175528
    With scriptsharp (script#) is it possible to get strong typing when calling a service defined in my web app? The only way I can see is to: 1 - use linked / shared files to shadow copy my results classes / domain models across into my script# lib 2 - replicate my model across in the script# lib and use automapper to validate? 3 - use some .tt to code gen? also, even if I can do this, how do I get around the auto camel-casing script# does, when my service result (asmx) wont do this? (so my JSON response will comback as UserMessage, script# will have changed that to userMessage) basically, what I am looking to use script# to achieve is better compile time support against our domain model when calling and processing services in javascript, so something like this: Scriptlet public static class MyScriptlet { public static void Main() { MyService.Service1("hello", ProcessResponse);} public static void ProcessResponse(MyService.Service1ResponseData resp) { jQuery.Select('#Message').Text(resp.UserMessage); jQuery.Select('#Detail').Text(resp.UserDetail); } Service (in our web app) public class MyService { public class Service1ResponseData { public string UserMessage {get;set;} public string UserDetail {get;set;} } public Service1ResponseData Service1(string user) { return new Service1ResponseData() { UserMessage:"hi",UserDetail:"some text"}; } }

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  • Displaying ppt, doc, and xls in UIWebView doesn't work but pdf does

    - by slugolicious
    It looks like a few people on stackoverflow get this to work but their code isn't posted. I'm using [web loadData:data MIMEType:MIMEType textEncodingName:@"UTF-8" baseURL:nil]; where MIMEType is: @"application/vnd.ms-powerpoint" @"application/vnd.ms-word" @"application/vnd.ms-excel" (BTW, I've seen DOC files use mimetype @"application/msword" but the "vnd" version seems more appropriate. I tried both just in case.) I verified that my 'data' is correct. PDF and TXT files work. When the UIWebView displays PPT, DOC, or XLS files, it's blank. I put NSLOG statements in my UIWebViewDelegate calls. shouldStartLoadWithRequest:<NSMutableURLRequest about:blank> navType:5 webViewDidStartLoad: didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=NSURLErrorDomain Code=100 UserInfo=0x122503a0 "Operation could not be completed. (NSURLErrorDomain error 100.)" didFailLoadWithError:Error Domain=WebKitErrorDomain Code=102 UserInfo=0x12253840 "Frame load interrupted" so obviously the load is failing, but why? If I change my mimetype to @"text/plain" for a PPT file, the UIWebView loads fine and displays unprintable characters, as expected. That's telling me the 'data' passed to loadData: is ok. Meaning my mimetypes are bad? And just to make sure my PPT, DOC, and XLS files are indeed ok to display, I created a simple html file with anchor tags to the files. When the html file is displayed in Safari on the iPhone, clicking on the files displays correctly in Safari. I tried to research the error code displayed in didFailLoadWithError (100) but all the documented error codes are negative and greater than 1000 (as seen in NSURLError.h). -(void)webView:(UIWebView *)webView didFailLoadWithError:(NSError *)error { NSLog(@"didFailLoadWithError:%@", error); }

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  • Spring-hibernate mapping problem

    - by James
    I have a spring-hibernate application which is failing to map an object properly: basically I have 2 domain objects, a Post and a User. The semantics are that every Post has 1 corresponding User. The Post domain object looks roughly as follows: class Post { private int pId; private String attribute; ... private User user; //getters and setters here } As you can see, Post contains a reference to User. When I load a Post object, I want to corresponding User object to be loaded (lazily - only when its needed). My mapping looks as follows: <class name="com...Post" table="post"> <id name="pId" column="PostId" /> <property name="attribute" column="Attribute" type="java.lang.String" /> <one-to-one name="User" fetch="join" class="com...User"></one-to-one> </class> And of course I have a basic mapping for User set up. As far as my table schema is concerned, I have a table called post with a foreign UserId which links to the user table. I thought this setup should work, BUT when I load a page that forces the lazy loading of the User object, I notice the following Hiberate query being generated: Select ... from post this_ left outer join user user2_ on this.PostId=user2_.UserId ... Obviously this is wrong: it should be joining UserId from post with UserId from user, but instead its incorrectly joining PostId from post (its primary key) with UserId from user. Any ideas? Thanks!

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  • Parsec: backtracking not working

    - by Nathan Sanders
    I am trying to parse F# type syntax. I started writing an [F]Parsec grammar and ran into problems, so I simplified the grammar down to this: type ::= identifier | type -> type identifier ::= [A-Za-z0-9.`]+ After running into problems with FParsec, I switched to Parsec, since I have a full chapter of a book dedicated to explaining it. My code for this grammar is typeP = choice [identP, arrowP] identP = do id <- many1 (digit <|> letter <|> char '.' <|> char '`') -- more complicated code here later return id arrowP = do domain <- typeP string "->" range <- typeP return $ "("++domain++" -> "++range++")" run = parse (do t <- typeP eof return t) "F# type syntax" The problem is that Parsec doesn't backtrack by default, so > run "int" Right "int" -- works! > run "int->int" Left "F# type syntax" unexpected "-" expecting digit, letter, ".", "`" or end of input -- doesn't work! The first thing I tried was to reorder typeP: typeP = choice [arrowP, identP] But this just stack overflows because the grammar is left-recursive--typeP never gets to trying identP because it keeps trying arrowP over and over. Next I tried try in various places, for example: typeP = choice [try identP, arrowP] But nothing I do seems to change the basic behaviours of (1) stack overflow or (2) non-recognition of "-" following an identifier. My mistake is probably obvious to anybody who has successfully written a Parsec grammar. Can somebody point it out?

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  • Grails - Simple hasMany Problem - How does 'save' work?

    - by gav
    My problem is this: I want to create a grails domain instance, defining the 'Many' instances of another domain that it has. I have the actual source in a Google Code Project but the following should illustrate the problem. class Person { String name static hasMany[skills:Skill] static constraints = { id (visible:false) skills (nullable:false, blank:false) } } class Skill { String name String description static constraints = { id (visible:false) name (nullable:false, blank:false) description (nullable:false, blank:false) } } If you use this model and def scaffold for the two Controllers then you end up with a form like this that doesn't work; My own attempt to get this to work enumerates the Skills as checkboxes and looks like this; But when I save the Volunteer the skills are null! This is the code for my save method; def save = { log.info "Saving: " + params.toString() def skills = params.skills log.info "Skills: " + skills def volunteerInstance = new Volunteer(params) log.info volunteerInstance if (volunteerInstance.save(flush: true)) { flash.message = "${message(code: 'default.created.message', args: [message(code: 'volunteer.label', default: 'Volunteer'), volunteerInstance.id])}" redirect(action: "show", id: volunteerInstance.id) log.info volunteerInstance } else { render(view: "create", model: [volunteerInstance: volunteerInstance]) } } This is my log output (I have custom toString() methods); 2010-05-10 21:06:41,494 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Saving: ["skills":["1", "2"], "name":"Ian", "_skills":["", ""], "create":"Create", "action":"save", "controller":"volunteer"] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,495 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Skills: [1, 2] 2010-05-10 21:06:41,508 [http-8080-3] INFO bumbumtrain.VolunteerController - Volunteer[ id: null | Name: Ian | Skills [Skill[ id: 1 | Name: Carpenter ] , Skill[ id: 2 | Name: Sound Engineer ] ]] Note that in the final log line the right Skills have been picked up and are part of the object instance. When the volunteer is saved the 'Skills' are ignored and not commited to the database despite the in memory version created clearly does have the items. Is it not possible to pass the Skills at construction time? There must be a way round this? I need a single form to allow a person to register but I want to normalise the data so that I can add more skills at a later time. If you think this should 'just work' then a link to a working example would be great. Hope this makes sense, thanks in advance! Gav

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  • ASP.NET Chart Control errors in Event Viewer

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have been using the ASP.NET chart controls for a while on win2k3 (32bit) setups without any issue but have noticed that on our new win2k8 (64bit) box I am getting a warning message showing up in the event viewer from the chart control. In my web.config file I have the following tag telling the Chart Control where I can store the Temp Files: <add key="ChartImageHandler" value="storage=file;timeout=20;dir=c:\TempImageFiles\;" /> Below is the warning message produced by the control: Event code: 3005 Event message: An unhandled exception has occurred. Event time: 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event time (UTC): 10/7/2009 2:40:03 PM Event ID: 237c3b208962429e8bbc5a48ffd177f0 Event sequence: 2860 Event occurrence: 26 Event detail code: 0 Application information: Application domain: /LM/W3SVC/2/ROOT-1-128993655360497729 Trust level: Full Application Virtual Path: / Application Path: C:\data\sites\mydomain.com\ Machine name: 231692-WEB Process information: Process ID: 4068 Process name: w3wp.exe Account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Exception information: Exception type: ArgumentException Exception message: The image is not found. Request information: Request URL: http://www.mydomain.com/ChartImg.axd?i=chart%5F0%5F3.png&g=bccc8aa11abb470980c60e8cf1e71e15 Request path: /ChartImg.axd User host address: my domain ip User: Is authenticated: False Authentication Type: Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Thread information: Thread ID: 7 Thread account name: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE Is impersonating: False Stack trace: at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.ProcessSavedChartImage(HttpContext context) at System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.ChartHttpHandler.System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) at System.Web.HttpApplication.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() at System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) It's worth pointing out that ALL of the chart images are displayed correctly on the screen so I'm not sure when/where the image not found error is being caused. Is this a 64bit issue? Thanks, Rich

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  • How to resolve user registration and activation email error in Django registration?

    - by user2476295
    So I was just trying to setup a basic user authentication in Django and downloaded a django registration app with templates. Now when I run the server at 127.0.0.1:8000/accounts/register/ I get a basic registration page, I fill in the details and when I click submit I get this error "NoReverseMatch at /accounts/register/" Error during template rendering In template Users/sudhasinha/mysite/mysite/registration/templates/registration/activation_email.txt, error at line 4 'url' requires a non-empty first argument. The syntax changed in Django 1.5, see the docs. 1 {% load i18n %} 2 {% trans "Activate account at" %} {{ site.name }}: 3 4 http://{{ site.domain }}{**% url registration_activate activation_key %**} 5 6 {% blocktrans %}Link is valid for {{ expiration_days }} days.{% endblocktrans %} 7 This is what my activation_email.txt looks like: {% load i18n %} {% trans "Activate account at" %} {{ site.name }}: http://{{ site.domain }}{% url registration_activate activation_key %} {% blocktrans %}Link is valid for {{ expiration_days }} days.{% endblocktrans %} And this is what my registration_form.html looks like: {% extends "base.html" %} {% load i18n %} {% block content %} <form method="post" action="."> {{ form.as_p }} <input type="submit" value="{% trans 'Submit' %}" /> </form> {% endblock %} I have very minimal experience with Django and would appreciate some help to resolve this error. My urls seem to be setup correctly but I will post it if needed. Also pardon my horrible formatting

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  • Subdomain on different host

    - by mattsmith321
    Hi everyone! I'm trying to host a subdomain for my site with a different hosting company and I'm running into issues on how to set it up. Here are the specifics: - Domain is registered with GoDaddy. - Nameservers are pointing to DiscountASP.net where ASP.NET app has been happily running for couple of years. - Would like blog.mydomain.com to point to my account with DreamHost.com to take advantage of their LAMP stack. I have added blog.mydomain.com to DreamHost (after adding mydomain.com) via their control panel. I thought I would be able to add a subdomain entry on GoDaddy to point to DreamHost, but all they allow is blog.mydomain.com = new url. In theory I could just take our .biz or .net domain and host it on DreamHost but was hoping I could do it all with a subdomain. So, to summarize I'd like to know if what I want to do is feasible and if so, how do I go about it (given the constraints of GoDaddy, DiscountASP, & DreamHost). Thanks, Matt

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