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  • Best way to replace mass emails sent from Entourage with a proper mailing list solution?

    - by aaandre
    I am helping a Los Angeles choreographer to transition away from sending her announcements via Entourage. Here's the situation: She has multiple conact groups, and sends classes and performance announcements several times a month, to different groups. She manages the contact groups manually. The group size is between 1500 and 2500 people. Recently verizon blocked her outgoing port 25, presumably for spam activity. Again, her contacts are interested in the content. She is aware of mailchimp, constantcontact etc. but would like to be able to send the email via her email software and not have to create a newsletter for every single mailing. Also, she's very short on $$. So, what would be the best way to set up a system allowing her to send announcements from Entourage, with attached images, to her lists, without having Entourage send every single email? I am thinking of setting up a set of mailing lists, each corresponding to one of her groups. I have never set up a mailing list before and am wondering if it's possible to have a list accept emails from only one person (Admin) and distribute them to the group? Recipients should be able to unsubscribe easily, and by default reply to her but not the list. She should be the only one able to use the list for distribution, and should be able to send messages (with attachments) directly from her email client without modification. Is this possible? Where can I find step-by-step instructions? What are best practices to avoid her domain being blacklisted? What's the easiest way to convert her contact groups to mailing list subscribers? I am helping her for free, so the simpler the better :) Thank you! UPDATE: She has a standard linux hosting account allowing her to run php etc. And, ideally, the emails would come from her personally or at least from her domain name.

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  • Update a PDF to include an encrypted, hidden, unique identifier?

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background The idea is this: Person provides contact information for online book purchase Book, as a PDF, is marked with a unique hash Person downloads book PDF passwords are annoying and extremely easy to circumvent. The ideal process would be something like: Generate hash based on contact information Store contact information and hash in database Acquire book lock Update an "include" file with hash text Generate book as PDF (using pdflatex) Apply hash to book Release book lock Send email with book download link Technologies The following technologies can be used (other programming languages are possible, but libraries will likely be limited to those supplied by the host): C, Java, PHP LaTeX files PDF files Linux Question What programming techniques (or open source software) should I investigate to: Embed a unique hash (or other mark) to a PDF Create a collusion-attack resistant mark Develop a non-fragile (e.g., PDF -> EPS -> PDF still contains the mark) solution Research I have looked at the following possibilities: Steganography Natural Language Processing (NLP) Convert blank pages in PDF to images; mark those images; reassemble PDF LaTeX watermark package ImageMagick Steganograhy requires keeping a master copy of the images, and I'm not sure if the watermark would survive PDF -> EPS -> PDF, or other types of conversion. LaTeX creates an image cache, so any steganographic process would have to intercept that process somehow. NLP introduces grammatical errors. Inserting blank pages as images is immediately suspect; it is easy to replace suspicious blank pages. The LaTeX watermark package draws visible marks. ImageMagick draws visible marks. What other solutions are possible? Related Links http://www.tcpdf.org/ invisible watermarks in images Thank you!

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  • Accessing Virtual Host from outside LAN

    - by Ray
    I'm setting up a web development platform that makes things as easy as possible to write and test all code on my local machine, and sync this with my web server. I setup several virtual hosts so that I can access my projects by typing in "project" instead of "localhost/project" as the URL. I also want to set this up so that I can access my projects from any network. I signed up for a DYNDNS URL that points to my computer's IP address. This worked great from anywhere before I setup the virtual hosts. Now when I try to access my projects by typing in my DYNDNS URL, I get the 403 Forbidden Error message, "You don't have permission to access / on this server." To setup my virtual hosts, I edited two files - hosts in the system32/drivers/etc folder, and httpd-vhosts.conf in the Apache folder of my WAMP installation. In the hosts file, I simply added the server name to associate with 127.0.0.1. I added the following to the http-vhosts.conf file: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot "c:/wamp/www/ladybug" ServerName ladybug ErrorLog "logs/your_own-error.log" CustomLog "logs/your_own-access.log" common </VirtualHost> <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot "c:/wamp/www" ServerName localhost ErrorLog "logs/localhost-error.log" CustomLog "logs/localhost-access.log" common </VirtualHost> Any idea why I can't access my projects from typing in my DYNDNS URL? Also, is it possible to setup virtual hosts so that when I type in http://projects from a random computer outside of my network, I access url.dyndns.info/projects (a.k.a. my WAMP projects on my home computer)? Help is much appreciated, thanks!

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  • The algorithm used to generate recommendations in Google News?

    - by Siddhant
    Hi everyone. I'm study recommendation engines, and I went through the paper that defines how Google News generates recommendations to users for news items which might be of their interest, based on collaborative filtering. One interesting technique that they mention is Minhashing. I went through what it does, but I'm pretty sure that what I have is a fuzzy idea and there is a strong chance that I'm wrong. The following is what I could make out of it :- Collect a set of all news items. Define a hash function for a user. This hash function returns the index of the first item from the news items which this user viewed, in the list of all news items. Collect, say "n" number of such values, and represent a user with this list of values. Based on the similarity count between these lists, we can calculate the similarity between users as the number of common items. This reduces the number of comparisons a lot. Based on these similarity measures, group users into different clusters. This is just what I think it might be. In Step 2, instead of defining a constant hash function, it might be possible that we vary the hash function in a way that it returns the index of a different element. So one hash function could return the index of the first element from the user's list, another hash function could return the index of the second element from the user's list, and so on. So the nature of the hash function satisfying the minwise independent permutations condition, this does sound like a possible approach. Could anyone please confirm if what I think is correct? Or the minhashing portion of Google News Recommendations, functions in some other way? I'm new to internal implementations of recommendations. Any help is appreciated a lot. Thanks!

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  • ANTLR Tree Grammar and StringTemplate Code Translation

    - by Behrooz Nobakht
    I am working on a code translation project with a sample ANTLR tree grammar as: start: ^(PROGRAM declaration+) -> program_decl_tmpl(); declaration: class_decl | interface_decl; class_decl: ^(CLASS ^(ID CLASS_IDENTIFIER)) -> class_decl_tmpl(cid={$CLASS_IDENTIFIER.text}); The group template file for it looks like: group My; program_decl_tmpl() ::= << *WHAT?* >> class_decl_tmpl(cid) ::= << public class <cid> {} >> Based on this, I have these questions: Everything works fine apart from that what I should express in WHAT? to say that a program is simply a list of class declarations to get the final generated output? Is this approach averagely suitable for not so a high-level language? I have also studied ANTLR Code Translation with String Templates, but it seems that this approach takes much advantage of interleaving code in tree grammar. Is it also possible to do it as much as possible just in String Templates?

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  • How can I display an ASP.NET MVC html part from one application in another

    - by Frank Sessions
    We have several asp.net MVC apps in the following setup SecurityApp (root application - handles forms auth for SSO and has a profile edit page) Application1 (virtual directory) Application2 (virtual directory) Application3 (virtual directory) so that domain.com points to SecurityApp and domain.com/Application1 etc point to their associated virtual directories. All of our Single Sign On (SSO) is working properly using forms authentication. Based on the users permissions when logging in a menu that lists their available applications and a logout link will be generated and saved in the cache - this menu displays fine whenever the user is in the SecurityApp (editing their profile) but we cannot figure out how to get the Applications in the virtual directories to display the same application menu. We have tried: 1) Using JSONP to do an request that will return the html for the menu. The ajax call returns the HTML with the html; however, because User.IsAuthenticated is false the menu comes back empty. 2) We created a user control and include it along with the dll's for the SecurityApp project and this works; however, we dont want to have to include all the dlls for the SecurityApp project in every application that we create (along with all the app settings in the web.config) We would like this to be as simple as possible to implement so that anyone creating a new app can add the menu to their application in as few steps as possible... Any ideas? To Clarify - we are using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 since these apps are in production and we do not have the okay to go to ASP.NET MVC 2.0 (unfortunately)

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  • Realizing program with decision tree logics

    - by Vytas999
    The system realizes a game “Think animal”. Main use case is: 1. System offers user to think about any animal and the system will try to guess it 2. The system starts asking questions from the start of decision tree. Ex., “Question: It has fur?”, and provides possible answers – yes or no. 3. If the user answers Yes, the system proceeds to these steps: a. System tries to guess animal that has that feature, ex. “My guess: Is it bear?” and provides with possible answers – yes or no. b. If the user answer is Yes, the system offers to think off another animal 4. If the user answers is No, the system moves to No node in decision tree and moves to 2 step (and starts from asking from new node). 5. If system runs out of nodes (i.e., empty yes or no node was reached): a. the system announces that it has given up, and ask user to enter: i. What animal he had in mind ii. What is his characteristic feature b. User enters requested data c. The system creates a new node and links it to yes or no of last active node. Where i can get some information and some examples, when implementing decision tree logics in MS SQL Server and C#..? Any information will be usefull. Thanks

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  • Calling Java classes from IzPack

    - by bguiz
    I am trying to write an IzPack installer which is able to detect a previously installed version of the application. After finding out that it doesn't really support this feature, I think the only way to do this is through writing a Java class and calling it from IzPack. Tim Williscroft has previously suggested this method: <condition type="java" id="jbossEnv"> <java> <class>au.com.codarra.ela.installer.JBossChecker</class <field>hasJBossEnv</field> </java> <returnvalue type="boolean">true</returnvalue> </condition> However, is it possible to call <java> from somewhere other than a <condition> tag? I want to be able to call it from a <variable> tag. Also, is it possible to call a method from a Java class instead of reading a value of a field? I want to be able to pass parameters to my class. Thank you!

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  • Cache consistency & spawning a thread

    - by Dave Keck
    Background I've been reading through various books and articles to learn about processor caches, cache consistency, and memory barriers in the context of concurrent execution. So far though, I have been unable to determine whether a common coding practice of mine is safe in the strictest sense. Assumptions The following pseudo-code is executed on a two-processor machine: int sharedVar = 0; myThread() { print(sharedVar); } main() { sharedVar = 1; spawnThread(myThread); sleep(-1); } main() executes on processor 1 (P1), while myThread() executes on P2. Initially, sharedVar exists in the caches of both P1 and P2 with the initial value of 0 (due to some "warm-up code" that isn't shown above.) Question Strictly speaking – preferably without assuming any particular CPU – is myThread() guaranteed to print 1? With my newfound knowledge of processor caches, it seems entirely possible that at the time of the print() statement, P2 may not have received the invalidation request for sharedVar caused by P1's assignment in main(). Therefore, it seems possible that myThread() could print 0. References These are the related articles and books I've been reading. (It wouldn't allow me to format these as links because I'm a new user - sorry.) Shared Memory Consistency Models: A Tutorial hpl.hp.com/techreports/Compaq-DEC/WRL-95-7.pdf Memory Barriers: a Hardware View for Software Hackers rdrop.com/users/paulmck/scalability/paper/whymb.2009.04.05a.pdf Linux Kernel Memory Barriers kernel.org/doc/Documentation/memory-barriers.txt Computer Architecture: A Quantitative Approach amazon.com/Computer-Architecture-Quantitative-Approach-4th/dp/0123704901/ref=dp_ob_title_bk

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  • .NET Thread.Abort again

    - by hoodoos
    Again I want to talk about safety of the Thread.Abort function. I was interested to have some way to abort operations which I can't control really and don't want actually, but I want to have my threads free as soon as possible to prevent thread thirsty of my application. So I wrote some test code to see if it's possible to use Thread.Abort and have the aborting thread clean up resources propertly. Here's code: int threadRunCount = 0; int threadAbortCount = 0; int threadFinallyCount = 0; int iterations = 0; while( true ) { Thread t = new Thread( () => { threadRunCount++; try { Thread.Sleep( Random.Next( 45, 55 ) ); } catch( ThreadAbortException ) { threadAbortCount++; } finally { threadFinallyCount++; } } ); t.Start(); Thread.Sleep( 45 ); t.Abort(); iterations++; } So, so far this code worked for about 5 mins, and threadRunCount was always equal to threadFinally and threadAbort was somewhat lower in number, because some threads completed with no abort or probably got aborted in finally. So the question is, do I miss something?

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  • Help passing reference to class subroutine in Perl.

    - by stephenmm
    I am trying to pass a routine to another subroutine within a Perl module. But when I pass the sub reference the passed in ref no longer has the object data. Maybe its not possible to do it this way. The line I have a question about is the "unless" lines below: sub get_flag_end { my $self = shift; return ( -e "$self->{file}" ); } sub wait_for_end { my $self = shift; my $timeout = shift; my $poll_interval = shift; # Is it even possible to pass the oject subroutine and retain the objects data? #unless ( $self->timeout( $timeout, $poll_interval, $self->get_flag_end ) ) { # does not work unless ( $self->timeout( $timeout, $poll_interval, \&get_flag_end ) ) { # call happens but members are empty die "!!!ERROR!!! Timed out while waiting for wait_for_end: timeout=$timeout, poll_interval=$poll_interval \n"; } } sub timeout { my $self = shift; my $timeout = shift; my $poll_interval = shift; my $test_condition = shift; until ($test_condition->() || $timeout <= 0) { $timeout -= $poll_interval; sleep $poll_interval; } return $timeout > 0; # condition was met before timeout } I know that I could change the "get_flag_end" routine to take the value as an argument to the subroutine but what if there was a bunch of stuff done in "get_flag_end" and I needed more members from the object. I simplified the code a bit to make it a little easier to follow.

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  • Simple way to embed an MP3 audio file in a (static) HTML file, starting to play at a specifc time?

    - by Marcel
    Hi all, I want to produce a simple, static HTML file, that has one or more embedded MP3 files in it. The idea is to have a simple mean of listening to specific parts of an mp3 file. On a single click on a visual element, the sound should start to play; However, not from the beginning of the file, but from a specified starting point in that file (and play to the end of the file). This should work all locally from the client's local filesystem, the HTML file and the MP3 files do not reside on a webserver. So, how to play the MP3 audio from a specific starting point? The solution I am looking for should be as simple as possible, while working on most browsers, including IE, Firefox and Safari. Note: I know the <embed> tag as described here, but this seems not to work with my target browsers. Also I have read about jPlayer and other Java-Script-based players, but since I have never coded some JavaScript, I would prefer a HTML-only solution, if possible.

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  • Use Lambda in Attribute constructor to get method's parameters

    - by Anthony Shaw
    I'm not even sure if this is possible, but I've exhausted all of my ideas trying to figure this out, so I figured I'd send this out to the community and see what you thought. And, if it's not possible, maybe you'd have some ideas as well. I'm trying to make an Attribute class that I can add to a method that would allow me to use a lambda expression to get each parameter of the method public ExampleAttribute : Attribute { public object Value { get; set; } public ExampleAttribute(--something here to make the lambda work--, object value) { Value = value; } } I'd like to be able to something like this below: [Example(x=x.Id, 4)] [Example(x=x.filter, "string value")] public ActionResult Index(int Id, string filter) { return View(); } I understand that I might be completely dreaming with this idea. I'm basically trying to write a model to allow for self-documenting REST API Documentation. In a recent project here at work we wrote a dozen or so services with 5 to 15 methods on each, I figure it's easier to write something to do this, than to hand code a documentation page for each. I would plan to eventually release this as an open-source project once I have it in a place that I feel it's releasable.

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  • My framework will utilise other frameworks, but I'd like this to be transparent to the end-user

    - by d11wtq
    I'm building a framework, which aims to provide a new development environment for the user, but I need to use things like RegexKit and almost certainly some other established frameworks in order to do this. Any functionality exposed from such frameworks would be abstracted through classes and methods in my own framework for maintenance reasons (allowing me to change my mind on which dependencies I want). In an ideal world I just want to ship a single .framework. However I'm aware that unlike with standard bundles and applications it is not possibile to embed a framework inside the framework bundle. Do I have any other option other than to tell the end user that they must also install RegexKit and any other dependencies? I have a feeling this lessens the appeal value of the easy to use embedded framework I'd envisaged building. Right now I'm feeling like I have some limited options: Force the user to install the dependencies. Write my own classes that provide the same functionality -- ugh! If at all possible, try to statically link the third party frameworks (is this possible??) My end-product is ideally a single .framework bundle that uses @rpath and so can be installed in the system or simply bundled with the app that uses it.

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  • How to implement menuitems that depend on current selection in WPF MVVM explorer-like application

    - by Doug
    I am new to WPF and MVVM, and I am working on an application utilizing both. The application is similar to windows explorer, so consider an app with a main window with menu (ShellViewModel), a tree control (TreeViewModel), and a list control (ListViewModel). I want to implement menu items such as Edit - Delete, which deletes the currently selected item (which may be in the tree or in the list). I am using Josh Smith's RelayCommand, and binding the menuitem to a DeleteItemCommand in the ShellViewModel is easy. It seems like implementing the DeleteItemCommand, however, requires some fairly tight coupling between the ShellViewModel and the two child view models (TreeViewModel and ListViewModel) to keep track of the focus/selection and direct the action to the proper child for implementation. That seems wrong to me, and makes me think I'm missing something. Writing a focus manager and/or selection manager to do the bookkeeping does not seem too hard, and could be done without coupling the classes together. The windowing system is already keeping track of which view has the focus, and it seems like I'd be duplicating code. What I'm not sure about is how I would route the command from the ShellViewModel down to either the ListViewModel or the TreeViewModel to do the actual work without making a mess of the code. Some day, the application will be extended to include more than two children, and I want the shell to be as ignorant of the children as possible to make that extension as painless as possible. Looking at some sample WPF/MVVM applications (Karl Shifflett's CipherText, Josh Smith's MVVM Demo, etc.), I haven't seen any code that does this (or I didn't understand it). Regardless of whether you think my approach is way off base or I'm just missing a small nuance, please share your thoughts and help me get back on track. Thanks!

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  • Non distinct Unique ID in MySQL database table.

    - by Geoff
    First of, a simplified version: I am wondering if I can create a trigger to activate during INSERT (it's actually LOAD DATA INFILE) and NOT enter records for an RMA already in my table? I have a table that has no records that are unique. Some may be duplicates but there is one field that I can use to know if the data has been entered or not. For instance RMA Op Days --------------------- 213 Repair 0.10 213 Test 0.20 213 Repair 0.10 So I could do an index on the three columns together but as you see it's possible for an RMA to be in a step for the same amount of time twice so it's possible to have duplicate records. This data comes from a report that I cannot edit and this is all it provides. The key is that an RMA's data is only in the report once so if my database already has that RMA in it's records I want to skip the loading of that RMA's records from the report. By all means please let me know if that didn't make sense, I'll Explain as needed. I'm sure it's not uncommon but I couldn't find anything on the net.

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  • Iframe in Tab Madness!

    - by 404error
    I've searched all over and have found possible solutions but they don't quite work how i need them to. I am really new to jQuery but I'm trying :-) I have an iframe that sits in a Tab ( Tabs powered by jQuery) In the third tab sits an iframe that holds a slideshow My problem: When I click on the third tab which houses the iframe all the controls appear, the carousel seems to be working, but ...no pictures!!! Firefox helped me find what fixes the problem, now i just need to find a way to do fix it. In Firefox when i right click on the iframe and go to This frame - Reload Frame VOILA! Pictures are back! Question: Is it possible with jQuery to tell when the third tab is selected and to refresh a div which contains the iframe when that third tab is selected? Tab Code: <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(function () { var tabContainers = $('div.tabs > div'); tabContainers.hide().filter(':first').show(); $('div.tabs ul.tabNavigation a').click(function () { tabContainers.hide(); tabContainers.filter(this.hash).show(); $('div.tabs ul.tabNavigation a').removeClass('selected'); $(this).addClass('selected'); return false; }).filter(':first').click(); }); </script> Test page can be found here: http://artitechture.com/blah/tabs.html Any help would be appreciated...I want to learn!

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  • Fetching real time data from excel

    - by Umesh Sharma
    I am seriouly looking for your valuable help first time here. If possible, plese help me. I am developing a VB.NET app in which i read "real time data" from a excel sheet using "Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel" i.e. excel automation. All cells in excel sheet are fetching stock data from some LOCAL DDE Server like "=XYZ|Bid!GOLD", "=XYZ|Bid!SILVER", "=XYZ|Ask!SILVER" and so on... Some cells also having fixed values like "Symbol", "Bid Rate", "32.90" etc. Values of DDE mapped cells (i.e. =XYZ|xxxx!yyy) are continuously changing. THE PROBLEM is here..."FIXED values" from excel cells are coming quite ok to my app but all DDE mapped cells values are coming "-2146826246" (When datasource local dde server ON) or "-2146826265" (OFF). Although, if i use C#.NET, it's all ok but not with Vb.NET. I want to display range of excel (A1 to J50) into VB.NET ListView which are changing in every 200ms (5 times in every 1 second) ================ Important ====================================================== Is it possible to BIND "listview items/columns values" with "excel cells" or some local memory variables ?? Currently, i am reading excel "cell by cell" and trying to put values in .NET listview but CPU USES are very high as well as it's toooo slow process. If yes, then how please ? I am a VFP developer but new to .NET It's very easy in VFP then why not in .NET ?? Please guide me, if someone has the solution...

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  • using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

    - by craigmoliver
    In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

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  • Can I have two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain?

    - by Hamman359
    Is it possible to setup two separate projects, 1 WebForms and 1 ASP.NET MVC, to both point to the same domain? i.e. both point to different pages within www.somesite.com. Here's some background on the application and why I'm asking. This is a brownfield application that is currently 2.0 WebForms and is full of WebFormy 'goodness' (i.e. ObjectDataSources, FormView controls, UpdatePanels, etc...) There are lost of other 'fun' things in the code base like 600+ Stored Procedures and 200+ line methods in the business layer code that get data from the DB via stored proc, do some processing on the data, build an HTML string using string concatenation and then return that string to the UI layer. What we are planning on doing is developing new features in MVC and slowly converting the existing features over to MVC one at a time. As part of this transition, we will also be re-writing the layers below the UI to clean up the mess there and to do things like replace the stored procedures with NHibernate and introduce an IOC container. I know that you can run WebForms and MVC side-by-side in the same project, however, because we will be making wholesale changes to the way we do many things throughout our entire development stack, I'd like the new stuff to be a completely separate project within the solution. This should help serve as very visual reminder that this is a different way of doing things than before and make it easier to remove the old code as it is no longer needed. What I don't know is, is this even possible? Can two separate project point to the same domain? Here's an quick example of what I'm thinking: www.somesite.com/orders.aspx?id=123 (Orders page from existing WebForms project) www.somesite.com/customer/987 (Customer page from new MVC project)

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  • git clone fails with "index-pack" failed?

    - by gct
    So I created a remote repo that's not bare (because I need redmine to be able to read it), and it's set to be shared with the group (so git init --shared=group). I was able to push to the remote repo and now I'm trying to clone it. If I clone it over the net I get this: remote: Counting objects: 4648, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (2837/2837), done. error: git-upload-pack: git-pack-objects died with error.B/s fatal: git-upload-pack: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. remote: aborting due to possible repository corruption on the remote side. fatal: early EOF fatal: index-pack failed I'm able to clone it locally without a problem, and I ran "git fsck", which only reports some dangling trees/blobs, which I understand aren't a problem. What could be causing this? I'm still able to pull from it, just not clone. I should note the remote git version is 1.5.6.5 while local is 1.6.0.4 I tried cloning my local copy of the repo, stripping out the .git folder and pushing to a new repo, then cloning the new repo and I get the same error, which leads me to believe it may be a file in the repo that's causing git-upload-pack to fail... Edit: I have a number of windows binaries in the repo, because I just built the python modules and then stuck them in there so everyone else didn't have to build them as well. If I remove the windows binaries and push to a new repo, I can clone again, perhaps that gives a clue. Trying to narrow down exactly what file is causing the problem now.

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  • Adding a ServiceReference programmatically during async postback

    - by Oliver
    Is it possible to add a new ServiceReference instance to the ScriptManager on the Page during an asynchronous postback so that subsequently I can use the referenced web service through client side script? I'm trying to do this inside a UserControl that sits inside a Repeater, that's why adding the ScriptReference programmatically during Page_Load does not work here. EDIT 2: This is the code I call from my UserControl which does not do what I expect (adding the ServiceReference to the ScriptManager during the async postback): private void RegisterWebservice(Type webserviceType) { var scm = ScriptManager.GetCurrent(Page); if (scm == null) throw new InvalidOperationException("ScriptManager needed on the Page!"); scm.Services.Add(new ServiceReference("~/" + webserviceType.Name + ".asmx")); } My goal is for my my UserControl to be as unobtrusive to the surrounding application as possible; otherwise I would have to statically define the ServiceReference in a ScriptManagerProxy on the containing Page, which is not what I want. EDIT: I must have been tired when I wrote this post... because I meant to write ServiceReference not ScriptReference. Updated the text above accordingly. Now I have: <asp:ScriptManagerProxy runat="server" ID="scmProxy"> <Services> <asp:ServiceReference Path="~/UsefulnessWebService.asmx" /> </Services> </asp:ScriptManagerProxy> but I want to register the webservice in the CodeBehind.

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  • Python socket error on UDP data receive. (10054)

    - by Charles
    I currently have a problem using UDP and Python socket module. We have a server and clients. The problem occurs when we send data to a user. It's possible that user may have closed their connection to the server through a client crash, disconnect by ISP, or some other improper method. As such, it is possible to send data to a closed socket. Of course with UDP you can't tell if the data really reached or if it's closed, as it doesn't care (atleast, it doesn't bring up an exception). However, if you send data and it is closed off, you get data back somehow (???), which ends up giving you a socket error on sock.recvfrom. [Errno 10054] An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host. Almost seems like an automatic response from the connection. Although this is fine, and can be handled by a try: except: block (even if it lowers performance of the server a little bit). The problem is, I can't tell who this is coming from or what socket is closed. Is there anyway to find out 'who' (ip, socket #) sent this? It would be great as I could instantly just disconnect them and remove them from the data. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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  • Skip Checkout in Magento for a downloadable product

    - by Aaron Newton
    Hello Magento boffins. I am using Magento to build an eBooks site. For the release, we plan to have a number of free downloadable books. We were hoping that it would be possible to use the normal Magento 'catalog' functionality to add categories with products underneath. However, since these are free downloadable products, it doesn't really make sense to send users through the checkout when they try to download. Does anyone know of a way to create a free downloadable product which bypasses the checkout altogether? I have noticed that there is a 'free sample' option for downloadable products, but I would prefer not to use this if I can as I plan to use this field for its intended purpose when I add paid products. [EDIT] I have noticed that some of you have voted this question down for 'lack of question clarity'. For clarity, I want: to know if it is possible to create a downloadable product in Magento which doesn't require users to go through the usual checkout process (since it is free) and which is not the 'Free Sample' field of a downloadable product Unfortunately I don't think I can ask this any more eloquently. [/EDIT]

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  • android dynamical binding

    - by yoav.str
    I want to work dynamically therefore I want to bind text views dynamically I think an example would explain me the best assuming I want to bind 7 image views i can do it like this : Country = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.CountryEditText); City = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.CityEditText); LivinigCreture = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.LivingCretureE); Nature =(EditText)findViewById(R.id.NatureEditText); Inanimate = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.InanimateEditText); KnowenPersonality = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.KnowenPersonalityEditText); Occupation = (EditText)findViewById(R.id.OccupationEditText); but lets change 7 with NUMOFFILEDS as a final where i want to do the previous ? myImages = new ImageView [7]; for (int i = 0; i<7;i++,????) myImages[i] = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.initialImageView01); notice : in my R file the R.id.initialImageView01 - R.id.initialImageView07 are not generate in a cont gap between them therefore I don't know how to make this architecture possible . and if there's a way can someone show me an example how to work dynmiclly (like using jsp on android combined way or something ?) id its possiable to do so constant times is it possible to build an the same xml constant num of times like jsp does thank u pep:)

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