Search Results

Search found 28948 results on 1158 pages for 'app showdown'.

Page 397/1158 | < Previous Page | 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404  | Next Page >

  • Android, FragmentActivity and prevent Swipe

    - by FIG-GHD742
    I use android.support.v4.app.FragmentActivity for create a app with multi fragment/panels that can be access by drag/swipe between different part of the app. In one of my fragment I has a zoomable view and my problem is in case I is on the zoomable view I will prevent the use for drag/swipe to a other fragment. I has try to hack into android.support.v4.view.ViewPager for get the action from on Touch event but not work. I has try all of this case but not work: (All code is a a part of subclass to android.support.v4.view.ViewPager) Case 1: // Not working @Override protected void onPageScrolled(int position, float offset, int offsetPixels) { if (isPreventDrag()) { super.onPageScrolled(position, 1, 0); } else { super.onPageScrolled(position, offset, offsetPixels); } } Case 2: // Work but stop all event include the event to the target image view. @Override public boolean onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent ev) { switch (ev.getAction()) { case MotionEvent.ACTION_DOWN: lastX = ev.getX(); // float lockScroll = false; return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(ev); case MotionEvent.ACTION_MOVE: this.lockScroll = this.isPreventDrag(); break; } if (lockScroll) { ev.setLocation(lastX, ev.getY()); return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(ev); } else { return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(ev); } } Case 3: // Work good, but by some unknown error I can drag the screen // some pixels before this stop the event. @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent ev) { if (this.isPreventDrag()) { return true; } else { return super.onTouchEvent(ev); } } I want a easy way to deactivate stop or deactivate if the use is allow to switch to a other Fragment. Here is a working code for me, I don't know what error I do before. // This work for me, @Override public boolean onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent ev) { if (this.isPreventDrag()) { return false; } else { return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(ev); } }

    Read the article

  • Serialization Performance and Google Android

    - by Jomanscool2
    I'm looking for advice to speed up serialization performance, specifically when using the Google Android. For a project I am working on, I am trying to relay a couple hundred objects from a server to the Android app, and am going through various stages to get the performance I need. First I tried a terrible XML parser that I hacked together using Scanner specifically for this project, and that caused unbelievably slow performance when loading the objects (~5 minutes for a 300KB file). I then moved away from that and made my classes implement Serializable and wrote the ArrayList of objects I had to a file. Reading that file into the objects the Android, with the file already downloaded mind you, was taking ~15-30 seconds for the ~100KB serialized file. I still find this completely unacceptable for an Android app, as my app requires loading the data when starting the application. I have read briefly about Externalizable and how it can increase performance, but I am not sure as to how one implements it with nested classes. Right now, I am trying to store an ArrayList of the following class, with the nested classes below it. public class MealMenu implements Serializable{ private String commonsName; private long startMillis, endMillis, modMillis; private ArrayList<Venue> venues; private String mealName; } And the Venue class: public class Venue implements Serializable{ private String name; private ArrayList<FoodItem> foodItems; } And the FoodItem class: public class FoodItem implements Serializable{ private String name; private boolean vegan; private boolean vegetarian; } IF Externalizable is the way to go to increase performance, is there any information as to how java calls the methods in the objects when you try to write it out? I am not sure if I need to implement it in the parent class, nor how I would go about serializing the nested objects within each object.

    Read the article

  • Audio in xCode4.x is producing console warnings

    - by David DelMonte
    While the app works, I am seeing pages of console log warnings when I'm running my app on the simulator. Even Apple's "LoadPresetDemo" sample app produces the same warning messages. I don't want to reproduce them all here (about 500 lines), but here are few. I would appreciate any insight into what's going on... Expected in: /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator5.0.sdk/System/Library/Frameworks/CoreFoundation.framework/CoreFoundation in /System/Library/Frameworks/Security.framework/Versions/A/Security 2011-11-30 17:43:00.098 appname[4175:16c03] Error loading /System/Library/Extensions/AppleHDA.kext/Contents/PlugIns/AppleHDAHALPlugIn.bundle/Contents/MacOS/AppleHDAHALPlugIn: dlopen(/System/Library/Extensions/AppleHDA.kext/Contents/PlugIns/AppleHDAHALPlugIn.bundle/Contents/MacOS/AppleHDAHALPlugIn, 262): Symbol not found: ___CFObjCIsCollectable Referenced from: /System/Library/Frameworks/Security.framework/Versions/A/Security ... Referenced from: /System/Library/Frameworks/Security.framework/Versions/A/Security Expected in: /Developer/Platforms/iPhoneSimulator.platform/Developer/SDKs/iPhoneSimulator5.0.sdk/System/Library/Frameworks/CoreFoundation.framework/CoreFoundation in /System/Library/Frameworks/Security.framework/Versions/A/Security 2011-11-30 17:43:00.245 appname[4175:16c03] Cannot find function pointer NewPlugIn for factory C5A4CE5B-0BB8-11D8-9D75-0003939615B6 in CFBundle/CFPlugIn 0x7b6b0780 (bundle, not loaded) 2011-11-30 17:43:00.255 appname[4175:16c03] Error loading /Library/Audio/Plug-Ins/HAL/iSightAudio.plugin/Contents/MacOS/iSightAudio: dlopen(/Library/Audio/Plug-Ins/HAL/iSightAudio.plugin/Contents/MacOS/iSightAudio, 262): Symbol not found: ___CFObjCIsCollectable

    Read the article

  • Are there size limitations to the .NET Assembly format?

    - by McKAMEY
    We ran into an interesting issue that I've not experienced before. We have a large scale production ASP.NET 3.5 SP1 Web App Project in Visual Studio 2008 SP1 which gets compiled and deployed using a Website Deployment Project. Everything has worked fine for the last year, until after a check-in yesterday the app started critically failing with BadImageFormatException. The check-in in question doesn't change anything particularly special and the errors are coming from areas of the app not even changed. Using Reflector we inspected the offending methods to find that there were garbage strings in the code (which .NET Reflector humorously interpreted as Chinese characters). We have consistently reproduced this on several machines so it does not appear to be hardware related. Further inspection showed that those garbage strings did not exist in the Assemblies used as inputs to aspnet_merge.exe during deployment. aspnet_merge.exe / Web Deployment Project Output Assemblies Properties: Merge all outputs to a single assembly Merge each individual folder output to its own assembly Merge all pages and control outputs to a single assembly Create a separate assembly for each page and control output In the web deployment project properties if we set the merge options to the first option ("Merge all outputs to a single assembly") we experience the issue, yet all of the other options work perfectly! My question: does anyone know why this is happening? Is there a size-limit to aspnet_merge.exe's capabilities (the resulting merged DLL is around 19.3 MB)? Are there any other known issues with merging the output of WAPs? I would love it if any Assembly format / aspnet_merge.exe gurus know about any such limitations like this. Seems to me like a 25MB Assembly, while big, isn't outrageous.

    Read the article

  • Problem inserting android.text.format.Time.toMillis value into SQLite DB on droid

    - by schusselig
    I'm writing an app for Android OS, and I need to store some time values in the SQLite DB. I have been using android.text.format.Time to store the time values in the app, and then inserting the values as millis into the DB as REAL values. On the SDK emulator, everything works perfectly. On the sole phone I've had the opportunity to test my app (so far), my duration code doesn't work as expected. Some relevant code: private static final String DATABASE_CREATE = "create table " + DATABASE_TABLE + " (" + KEY_ROWID + " integer primary key autoincrement, " + KEY_START + " REAL, " + KEY_STOP + " REAL, " + KEY_DUR + " REAL );"; ... private SQLiteDatabase mDb; ContentValues timerValues = new ContentValues(); ... timerValues.put(KEY_START, stime.toMillis(false)); timerValues.put(KEY_STOP, etime.toMillis(false)); timerValues.put(KEY_DURATION, stime.toMillis(false)-etime.toMillis(false)); int result = mDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE, null, timerValues); I pull this data from two separate functions with slightly different bits of code, both using Time.set(long millis), both giving incorrect results: The start and stop values come back correct, but the duration comes out 17 hours too large. Am I missing something about calculating durations or does this just seem like there's something "special" about this particular droid? I'll have another droid to test on Monday, but any ideas are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Circular Dependency of Navigation Control in iPhone

    - by Taimur Hamza
    Hi everyone , In my view this is one of the strangest problem i have ever come across in iPhone app development. Let me explain the scenario , i have main screen 'A' on which i have a Button that directs me to another Screen say 'B'. Now on Screen 'B' i have a feature in which user can send a mail to his friend for promotion purpose e.g a user wishes to tell a frnd about this app so i used MFMailComposeViewController and a view is generated where the user types the address and click send ( subject and body of mail is automatically generated ). After sending the mail a new view opens say screen 'C' and here i want to give the user the options . 1. Go to Screen 'A' ( which is main screen of the app ) 2. Go back to Screen 'B' ( from where the user requested to send a mail to his frnd ). Now the strange part i cannot declare the variables ( Screen 'A' and 'B' ) of both these files here at in header file of screen 'C' . Even when i declare the header file at the top it generates an error. The variables can be easily be declared and used for other screens but not for these 2 screens. Can anybody please explain wats the problem.? this the text of the error "/Users/admin/Documents/AppName/Classes/A.h:42: error: expected specifier-qualifier-list before 'B'" Thanks Guys ! Taimur

    Read the article

  • Android - Clicking on notification in status bar binds the intent with the target activity

    - by araja
    I have created an activity which sends a number of notifications to status bar. Each notification contains an intent with a bundle. Here is the code: String ns = Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE; NotificationManager mNotificationManager = (NotificationManager) getSystemService(ns); int icon = R.drawable.icon; long when = System.currentTimeMillis(); Notification notification = new Notification(icon, "Test Notification", when); Context context = getApplicationContext(); Bundle bundle = new Bundle(); bundle.putString("action", "view"); Intent notificationIntent = new Intent(this, MainActivity.class); notificationIntent.putExtras(bundle); PendingIntent contentIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, notificationIntent, Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); notification.setLatestEventInfo(context, contentTitle, contentText, contentIntent); mNotificationManager.notify(1, notification); When user clicks this notifications, I read the bundle string "action" and performs that action. Here is the code: Bundle bundle = this.getIntent().getExtras(); if(bundle != null) { String action = bundle.getString("action"); performAction(action) } Everything works as expected. But, when I minimize the app using "arrow" button on device and then press and hold home button and clicks on my app icon the application starts and performs the same last action which have been performed by clicking the last notification. I figured out that when we click the app icon the application starts with last intent triggered by the notification. Can anyone help in this?

    Read the article

  • WPF not applying default styles defined in MergedDictionaries?

    - by Burgberger
    In a WPF application I defined default control styles in separate resource dictionaries (e.g. "ButtonStyle.xaml"), and added them as merged dictionaries to a resource dictionary named "ResDictionary.xaml". If I refer this "ResDictionary.xaml" as merged dictionary in my App.xaml, the default styles are not applied. However, if I refer the "ButtonStyle.xaml", it works correctly. If I recompile the same code in .NET 3.5 or 3.0, it recognizes and applies the default styles referred in "App.xaml" through "ResDictionary.xaml", but not in .NET 4.0. At runtime if I check the Application.Current.Resources dictionary, the default styles are there, but they are not applied, only if I specify the Style property explicitly in the Button control. Are there any solutions to refer a resource dictionary (containig default styles) this way in .NET 4.0? App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles/ResDictionary.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> ResDictionary.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Default/ButtonStyle.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> ButtonStyle.xaml: <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <Style TargetType="Button"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Yellow"/> </Style> </ResourceDictionary>

    Read the article

  • Does DefaultAppPool run with special elevated privilegs on IIS?

    - by Leeks and Leaks
    I'm running a piece of code within a web page that queries the IIS metabase using ADSI. The code is as simple as this: DirectoryEntry iisNode = new DirectoryEntry("/LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128886021498831845"); foreach (DirectoryEntry de in iisNode.Parent.Children) { System.Console.WriteLine(de.Name); } This works fine when I run the page/site under the DefaultAppPool on IIS7/W2K8. However when I create my own app pool and leave the properties the same as the default app pool, this code fails with the following error: Caught: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException Failed to parse virtual directory: /LM/W3SVC/1/ROOT/MyAspWebsite-1-128889542757187500 System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException (0x80070005): Access is denied. What special privileges does the DefaultAppPool have? I don't see any documented. I need this to work in non default app pools, but without giving the entire worker process elevated privileges. I've also tried using the username and password parameters of the DirectoryEntry constructor, by using the Admin on the machine that IIS7 is running on, but that didn't change anything. I'll also note that this works fine on IIS6 and W2K3. Any help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Terminal / Panel PC - Single Server Solution: Client/Server or RDP?

    - by StillLearning
    Hi, Our current setup involves a touch screen panel pc with embedded windows, that is connected via network to a server / dedicated pc, within the same physical location. Each of our 'units' has this hardware setup. For a quick resolution we deploy our application to the dedicated pc, and have the panel pc remote desktop to an account which then activates the application. This works but seems a little clunky / rough approach. We did this because the panel pc is rather limited. Now that we have more time, I was wondering if I should separate the application into a gui / application. Deploy the gui logic on the panel pc, and the business/database logic on the dedicated pc. The app is in Java so I was wondering what technology would be best? I was thinking of using RMI, but its not really a client/server app, as there is only one client. Should I stick with RMI, or use Sockets or something else? It will be easy to implement as the application is old, and manually wraps and unwraps data which passes through one class / method call to remote services. All I would have to do is 'RMI' this one method call, and the app will do its own stuff. Cheers.

    Read the article

  • WPF compile error "IDictionary must have a Key attribute"

    - by the empirical programmer
    I've created control styles I want to use among multiple xaml pages in my WPF app. To do this I created a Resources.xaml and added the styles there. Then in my pages I add this code <Grid.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="pack://application:,,,/SampleEventTask;component/Resources.xaml" /> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Grid.Resources> On two pages this works fine, but on the 3rd page I get a compile error that says: All objects added to an IDictionary must have a Key attribute or some other type of key associated with them. If I add a key to this, as such ResourceDictionary x:Key="x", then the compile error goes but on running the app it errors finding the style. I can make the compile error go away and have the app run by just moving original (no key specified) "ResourceDictionary" xaml from the top level Grid into a contained Grid on that page. But I don't understand what is going on here. Any suggestions as to what the problem is, I'm just missing something or doing something incorrectly. Is there a better way to share styles? thanks

    Read the article

  • Restrict access to connection pool in Weblogic?

    - by Andrew White
    In short, how can I restrict access to connection pool X based on application name or JAR name? A simple use case might help... A business web-app (call it WEB_APP_A) uses pool Y to do basic look-up SQL. Some users of this web-app have access to also update some sensitive data in the database. This code is provided by a JAR file (call it HR_JAR) that can be dropped in where needed. This JAR uses pool X for all of it's connections. We don't want developers of WEB_APP_A using pool X. We only want HR_JAR using pool X. This is to keep devs of WEB_APP_A from accidentally or intentionally abusing the access pool X provides. Some considerations: This is legacy code so HR_JAR is here to stay We are running on Weblogic 9.2 We can not keep passwords in any from in the source code We have researched weblogic user level authn/authz for JDBC resources but then this begs the question; how do we secure the user creds we use to become a user per app/jar? Ideas? Thoughts? I can elaborate more on what I have tried, but I wanted fresh ideas.

    Read the article

  • Pressing back button in ActivityGroup causes it to pause, and then continue shutting down the next t

    - by synic
    Pressing the back button causes onPause to be called, and the app stays paused until it is re-launched by clicking on the icon, at which point, onDestroy gets called, and the main activity continues to shut down. Simple class to demonstrate. Note, as far as I can tell, this only happens on the Nexus One. I can't reproduce it in the emulator or on my Droid. package com.vimtips.testshutdown; import android.app.ActivityGroup; import android.os.Bundle; import android.util.Log; import android.view.KeyEvent; public class MainActivity extends ActivityGroup { private static final String TAG = "MainActivity"; private int counter = 3; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); } public boolean onKeyDown(int keyCode, KeyEvent event) { if(keyCode == KeyEvent.KEYCODE_BACK) { if(counter-- > 0) return true; } return super.onKeyDown(keyCode, event); } @Override public void onPause() { super.onPause(); Log.d(TAG, "onPause called"); } @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); if(isFinishing()) { Log.d(TAG, "Shutting down"); } } } And here's the log: I/ActivityManager( 132): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cat=[android.intent.category.LAUNCHER] flg=0x10100000 cmp=com.vimtips.testshutdown/.MainActivity } I/ActivityManager( 132): Displayed activity com.vimtips.testshutdown/.MainActivity: 305 ms (total 305 ms) D/MainActivity( 1393): onPause called I/ActivityManager( 132): Displayed activity com.vimtips.testshutdown/.MainActivity: 302 ms (total 302 ms) D/MainActivity( 1393): Shutting down This doesn't appear to happen on a normal Activity, just an Activity group, though looking at Android's sourcecode, I can't figure out why. It's causing some serious problems with my app. Anyone know why this would happen?

    Read the article

  • Using MinHash to find similiarities between 2 images

    - by Sung Meister
    I am using MinHash algorithm to find similar images between images. I have run across this post, How can I recognize slightly modified images? which pointed me to MinHash algorithm. Being a bit mathematically challenged, I was using a C# implementation from this blog post, Set Similarity and Min Hash. But while trying to use the implementation, I have run into 2 problems. What value should I set universe value to? When passing image byte array to HashSet, it only contains distinct byte values; thus comparing values from 1 ~ 256. What is this universe in MinHash? And what can I do to improve the C# MinHash implementation? Since HashSet<byte> contains values upto 256, similarity value always come out to 1. Here is the source that uses the C# MinHash implementation from Set Similarity and Min Hash: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { var imageSet1 = GetImageByte(@".\Images\01.JPG"); var imageSet2 = GetImageByte(@".\Images\02.TIF"); //var app = new MinHash(256); var app = new MinHash(Math.Min(imageSet1.Count, imageSet2.Count)); double imageSimilarity = app.Similarity(imageSet1, imageSet2); Console.WriteLine("similarity = {0}", imageSimilarity); } private static HashSet<byte> GetImageByte(string imagePath) { using (var fs = new FileStream(imagePath, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read)) using (var br = new BinaryReader(fs)) { //List<int> bytes = br.ReadBytes((int)fs.Length).Cast<int>().ToList(); var bytes = new List<byte>(br.ReadBytes((int) fs.Length).ToArray()); return new HashSet<byte>(bytes); } } }

    Read the article

  • running scala apps with java -jar

    - by paintcan
    Yo dawgs, I got some problems with the java. Check it out. sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar:target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar scaaalaaa.App Hello World! That's cool, right, but how bout this: sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar -jar target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: scala/Application at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(ClassLoader.java:632) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:616) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:141) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:283) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:58) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:197) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) at scaaalaaa.App.main(App.scala) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: scala.Application at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) ... 13 more Wat the heck? Any idea why the first works and not the 2nd? How do I -jar my scala?? Thanks in advance bro.

    Read the article

  • iPhone: understanding field crash reports: unrecognized selector?

    - by quixoto
    Hi all, A user of my app out in the field seems to having bad crash-at-app-start issues. I got him to send me the .crash files from his PC. After "symbolicating" them according to this article, I get what looks from the stack like a unrecognized selector fail. But the top line of code corresponding to my process is an unambiguous message send that gets executed hundreds of times without issue in my app normally. Needless to say, I never repro this issue myself. Can the crash report lie? Could this stack indicate anything besides unrecognized selector? Thanks for any insight. Exception Type: EXC_CRASH (SIGABRT) Exception Codes: 0x00000000, 0x00000000 Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000790a0 __kill + 8 1 libSystem.B.dylib 0x00079090 kill + 4 2 libSystem.B.dylib 0x00079082 raise + 10 3 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0008d20a abort + 50 4 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00044a1c __gnu_cxx::__verbose_terminate_handler() + 376 5 libobjc.A.dylib 0x000057c4 _objc_terminate + 104 6 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042dee __cxxabiv1::__terminate(void (*)()) + 46 7 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042e42 std::terminate() + 10 8 libstdc++.6.dylib 0x00042f12 __cxa_throw + 78 9 libobjc.A.dylib 0x000046a4 objc_exception_throw + 64 10 CoreFoundation 0x00094174 -[NSObject doesNotRecognizeSelector:] + 108 11 CoreFoundation 0x00093afa ___forwarding___ + 482 12 CoreFoundation 0x000306c8 _CF_forwarding_prep_0 + 40 13 MyAppProcess 0x000147c6 -[ImageLoader imageSmallForColor:style:] (ImageLoader.m:180) .... /* many more frames... */

    Read the article

  • printf and Console.WriteLine - problems with Console.SetOut?

    - by Matt Jacobsen
    i have a bunch of Console.WriteLines in my code that I can observe at runtime. I communicate with a native library that I also wrote. I'd like to stick some printf's in the native library and observe them too. I don't see them at runtime however. I've created a convoluted hello world app to demonstrate my problem. When the app runs, I can debug into the native library and see that the hello world is called. The output never lands in the textwriter though. Note that if the same code is run as a console app then everything works fine. C#: [DllImport("native.dll")] static extern void Test(); StreamWriter writer; public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); writer = new StreamWriter(@"c:\output.txt"); writer.AutoFlush = true; System.Console.SetOut(writer); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } and the native part: __declspec(dllexport) void Test() { printf("Hello World"); } Despite my earlier ramblings (see edits) I actually think this is a problem in C# (or rather my understanding of it).

    Read the article

  • Why do i get exc bad access in cases when object is not nil?

    - by DixieFlatline
    I have an app that receives remote notifications. My view controller that is shown after push has a tableview. App crashes very randomly (1 in 20 tries) at line setting frame: if (!myTableView) { NSLog(@"self.myTableView is nil"); } myTableView.frame=CGRectMake(0, 70, 320, 376); This only happens when i open the app, then open some other apps and then receive the push notification. I guess it has something to do with memory. I use ARC (ios 5). The strange thing is that nslog is not displayed, so tableview is not nil. Crash log: Exception Type: EXC_BAD_ACCESS (SIGSEGV) Exception Codes: KERN_INVALID_ADDRESS at 0x522d580c Crashed Thread: 0 Thread 0 name: Dispatch queue: com.apple.main-thread Thread 0 Crashed: 0 libobjc.A.dylib 0x352b1f7e objc_msgSend + 22 1 Foundation 0x37dc174c NSKVOPendingNotificationCreate + 216 2 Foundation 0x37dc1652 NSKeyValuePushPendingNotificationPerThread + 62 3 Foundation 0x37db3744 NSKeyValueWillChange + 408 4 Foundation 0x37d8a848 -[NSObject(NSKeyValueObserverNotification) willChangeValueForKey:] + 176 5 Foundation 0x37e0ca14 _NSSetPointValueAndNotify + 76 6 UIKit 0x312af25a -[UIScrollView(Static) _adjustContentOffsetIfNecessary] + 1890 7 UIKit 0x312cca54 -[UIScrollView setFrame:] + 548 8 UIKit 0x312cc802 -[UITableView setFrame:] + 182 9 POViO 0x000913cc -[FeedVC viewWillAppear:] (FeedVC.m:303) Dealloc is not called because it is not logged: - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"dealloc"); }

    Read the article

  • AJAX - querying a search engine and returning the number of results

    - by Moddy
    Right, so basically I need to query a selection of search engines in an AJAX app. As there is a number of different search engines - there's no search engine specific API I can use either. My main problem is getting the number of results returned by the search. So far, I have decided it is probably best to use a regexp from the returned search query HTML, and then convert the string of characters to an integer. However, this method just doesn't feel.. clean to me. It seems a bit rough around the edges and I think it could do with improving! I guess not being 100% confident with regular expressions doesn't help; but it just feels like it could be improved. Any ideas on how to implement this would be great cheers! It doesn't seem like that an exotic thing to do, so I was wondering if perhaps any of you guys have done this before and would have a few tips? Note: This is an AJAX app at the moment, but I may be re-writing this functionality in a different app soon - which won't be AJAX. I'm confident I can transfer any AJAX implementation to the other language though.

    Read the article

  • PHP-SDK too many redirects

    - by Roel Veldhuizen
    I'm using the PHP-SDK for Facebook and got the example to work on my localhost. However, when building a script on a server the script stays quite busy with redirecting from my script to facebook and back. (Error: Fout 310 (net::ERR_TOO_MANY_REDIRECTS):) It seems that many more people have got this issue (here, here, here, here). Though, I can't find a clear answer what goes wrong. Redirect to facebook (response 302): https://www.facebook.com/dialog/oauth?client_id=166958180001271&redirect_uri=http%3A%2F%2Fdomain.com%2Fscripts%2FGateway.php%3Faction%3DAllowFacebookAccessAction%26app%3D14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e#_=_ Redirect to mydomain (response 302): http://domain.com/scripts/Gateway.php?action=AllowFacebookAccessAction&app=14&state=0dbc178a375595da4751265a7147c01e&code=AQD-dTeyns0OWpGb_PzfHxUy2iRmpc1XgP6Q24DDRX8MiRTE10lV-b-aSNIlOLVHk576vRs3H8Pf9n0kGwU827MrkzUCUoQGFGEQBkkOJnCy9zb6hZs7TVBsKL2iSuZIhDjLsCOPeKy3zfb37Q6LGhtMICCdB_IQAvU0uRvAkSAX8tdVJ65PEv8imx-2yvLaMoGJleZwKogh7m03vlhV8hJk#_=_ Part of the code that creates this issue ... $facebook = new FacebookApi(array( 'appId' => $app->getProperty('apiKey'), 'secret' => $app->getProperty('secretKey'), )); $user = $facebook->getUser(); if (!$user) { header('location: ' . $facebook->getLoginUrl()); exit; } ... UPDATE: I ruled out that its a server setting. I was able to run the original example script on that server.

    Read the article

  • How to terminate all [grand]child processes using C# on WXP (and newer MSWindows)

    - by NVRAM
    Question: How can I determine all processes in the child's Process Tree to kill them? I have an application, written in C# that will: Get a set of data from the server, Spawn a 3rd party utility to process the data, then Return the results to the server. This is working fine. But since a run consumes a lot of CPU and may take as long as an hour, I want to add the ability to have my app terminate its child processes. Some issues that make the simple solutions I've found elsewhere are: My app's child process "A" (InstallAnywhere EXE I think) spawns the real processing app "B" (a java.exe), which in turns spawns more children "C1".."Cn" (most of which are also written in Java). There will likely be multiple copies of my application (and hence, multiple sets of its children) running on the same machine. The child process is not in my control so there might be some "D" processes in the future. My application must run on 32-bit and 64-bit versions of MSWindows. On the plus side there is no issue of data loss, a "clean" shutdown doesn't matter as long as the processes end fairly quickly.

    Read the article

  • how to push different local git branches to heroku/master

    - by lsiden
    Heroku has a policy of ignoring all branches but 'master'. While I'm sure Heroku's designers have excellent reasons for for this policy (I'm guessing for storage and performance optimization), the consequence to me as a developer is that whatever local topic branch I may be working on, I would like an easy way to switch Heroku's master to that local topic branch and do a "git push heroku -f" to over-write master on Heroku. What I got from reading the "Pushing Refspecs" section of http://progit.org/book/ch9-5.html is git push -f heroku local-topic-branch:refs/heads/master What I'd really like is a way to set this up in the config file so that "git push heroku" always does the above, replacing local-topic-branch with the name of whatever my current branch happens to be. If anyone knows how to accomplish that, please let me know! The caveat for this, of course, is that this is only sensible if I am the only one who can push to that Heroku app/repository. A test or QA team might manage such a repository to try out different candidate branches, but they would have to coordinate so that they all agree on what branch they are pushing to it on any given day. Needless to say, it would also be a very good idea to have a separate remote repository (like Github) without this restriction for backing everything up to. I'd call that one "origin" and use "heroku" for Heroku so that "git push" always backs up everything to origin, and "git push heroku" pushes whatever branch I'm currently on to Heroku's master branch, overwriting it if necessary. Can anybody tell me if this would work? [remote "heroku"] url = [email protected]:my-app.git push = +refs/heads/*:refs/heads/master I'd like to hear from someone more experienced before I begin to experiment, although I suppose I could create a dummy app on Heroku and experiment with that. As for fetching, I don't really care if the Heroku repository is write-only. I still have a separate repository, like Github, for backup and cloning of all my work. Footnote: This question is similar to, but not quite the same as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1489393/good-git-deployment-using-branches-strategy-with-heroku

    Read the article

  • Need some advice on Core Data modeling strategy

    - by Andy
    I'm working on an iPhone app and need a little advice on modeling the Core Data schema. My idea is a utility that allows the user to speed-dial their contacts using user-created rules based on the time of day. In other words, I would tell the app that my wife is commuting from 6am to 7am, at work from 7am to 4pm, commuting from 4pm to 5pm, and home from 5pm to 6am, Monday through Friday. Then, when I tap her name in my app, it would select the number to dial based on the current day and time. I have the user interface nearly complete (thanks in no small part to help I've received here), but now I've got some questions regarding the persistent store. The user can select start- and stop-times in 5-minute increments. This means there are 2,016 possible "time slots" in week (7 days * 24 hours * 12 5-minute intervals per hour). I see a few options for setting this up. Option #1: One array of time slots, with 2,016 entries. Each entry would be a dictionary containing a contact identifier and an associated phone number to dial. I think this means I'd need a "Contact" entity to store the contact information, and a "TimeSlot" entity for each of the 2,016 possible time slots. Option #2: Each Contact has its own array of time slots, each with 2,016 entries. Each array entry would simply be a string indicating which phone number to dial. Option #3: Each Contact has a dictionary of time slots. An entry would only be added to the dictionary for time slots with an active rule. If a search for, say, time slot 1,299 (Friday 12:15pm) didn't find a key @"1299" in the dictionary, then a default number would be dialed instead. I'm not sure any of these is the "right" way or the "best" way. I'm not even sure I need to use Core Data to manage it; maybe just saving arrays would be simpler. Any input you can offer would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Using Active Directory to authenticate users in a WWW facing website

    - by Basiclife
    Hi, I'm looking at starting a new web app which needs to be secure (if for no other reason than that we'll need PCI accreditation at some point). From previous experience working with PCI (on a domain), the preferred method is to use integrated windows authentication which is then passed all the way through the app to the database. This allows for better auditing as well as object-level permissions (ie an end user can't read the credit card table). There are advantages in that even if someone compromises the webserver, they won't be able to glean any additional information from the database. Also, the webserver isn't storing any database credentials (beyond perhaps a simple anonymous user with very few permissions) So, now I'm looking at the new web app which will be on the public internet. One suggestion is to have a Active Directory server and create windows accounts on the AD for each user of the site. These users will then be placed into the appropriate NT groups to decide which DB permissions they should have (and which pages they can access). ASP already provides the AD membership provider and role provider so this should be fairly simple to implement. There are a number of questions around this - Scalability, reliability, etc... and I was wondering if there is anyone out there with experience of this approach or, even better, some good reasons why to do it / not to do it. Any input appreciated Regards Basiclife

    Read the article

  • Sort on DataView does not work if DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid insode a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { var dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404  | Next Page >