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• Speech recognition plugin Runtime Error: Unhandled Exception. What could possibly cause it?

  - by manuel

  I'm writing a plugin (dll file) for speech recognition, and I'm creating a WinForm as its interface/dialog. When I run the plugin and click a button to start the initialization, I get an unhandled exception. Below is the complete details of it. See the end of this message for details on invoking just-in-time (JIT) debugging instead of this dialog box. ***** Exception Text ******* System.ArgumentException: Value does not fall within the expected range. at System.Speech.Internal.SapiInterop.SapiProxy.MTAThread.Invoke2(VoidDelegate pfn) at System.Speech.Internal.SapiInterop.SapiRecognizer.SetInput(Object input, Boolean allowFormatChanges) at System.Speech.Recognition.RecognizerBase.SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice() at System.Speech.Recognition.SpeechRecognitionEngine.SetInputToDefaultAudioDevice() at gen_myplugin.Dialog.init() at gen_myplugin.Dialog.btnSpeak_Click(Object sender, EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnClick(EventArgs e) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) ***** Loaded Assemblies ******* mscorlib Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3603 (GDR.050727-3600) CodeBase: file:///c:/WINDOWS/Microsoft.NET/Framework/v2.0.50727/mscorlib.dll ---------------------------------------- gen_speechquery Assembly Version: 1.0.3755.878 Win32 Version: CodeBase: file:///C:/Program%20Files/Winamp/Plugins/gen_speechquery.dll ---------------------------------------- msvcm90 Assembly Version: 9.0.30729.1 Win32 Version: 9.00.30729.1 CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/WinSxS/x86_Microsoft.VC90.CRT_1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b_9.0.30729.1_x-ww_6f74963e/msvcm90.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Windows.Forms Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Windows.Forms/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.Windows.Forms.dll ---------------------------------------- System Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System/2.0.0.0__b77a5c561934e089/System.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Drawing Assembly Version: 2.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 2.0.50727.3053 (netfxsp.050727-3000) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Drawing/2.0.0.0__b03f5f7f11d50a3a/System.Drawing.dll ---------------------------------------- System.Speech Assembly Version: 3.0.0.0 Win32 Version: 3.0.6920.1109 (lh_tools_devdiv_wpf.071009-1109) CodeBase: file:///C:/WINDOWS/assembly/GAC_MSIL/System.Speech/3.0.0.0__31bf3856ad364e35/System.Speech.dll ***** JIT Debugging ******* To enable just-in-time (JIT) debugging, the .config file for this application or computer (machine.config) must have the jitDebugging value set in the system.windows.forms section. The application must also be compiled with debugging enabled. For example: When JIT debugging is enabled, any unhandled exception will be sent to the JIT debugger registered on the computer rather than be handled by this dialog box.

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• How Do I Prevent Rails From Treating Updated Nested Attributes Differently From New Nested Attribute

  - by James

  I am using rails3 beta3 and couchdb via couchrest. I am not using active record. I want to add multiple "Sections" to a "Guide" and add and remove sections dynamically via a little javascript. I have looked at all the screencasts by Ryan Bates and they have helped immensely. The only difference is that I want to save all the sections as an array of sections instead of individual sections. Basically like this: "sections" => [{"title" => "Foo1", "content" => "Bar1"}, {"title" => "Foo2", "content" => "Bar2"}] So, basically I need the params hash to look like that when the form is submitted. When I create my form I am doing the following: <%= form_for @guide, :url => { :action => "create" } do |f| %> <%= render :partial => 'section', :collection => @guide.sections %> <%= f.submit "Save" %> <% end %> And my section partial looks like this: <%= fields_for "sections[]", section do |guide_section_form| %> <%= guide_section_form.text_field :section_title %> <%= guide_section_form.text_area :content, :rows => 3 %> <% end %> Ok, so when I create the guide with sections, it is working perfectly as I would like. The params hash is giving me a sections array just like I would want. The problem comes when I want edit guide/sections and save them again because rails is inserting the id of the guide in the id and name of each form field, which is screwing up the params hash on form submission. Just to be clear, here is the raw form output for a new resource: <input type="text" size="30" name="sections[][section_title]" id="sections__section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[][content]" id="sections__content" cols="40"></textarea> And here is what it looks like when editing an existing resource: <input type="text" value="Foo1" size="30" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][section_title]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_section_title"> <textarea rows="3" name="sections[cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1][content]" id="sections_cd2f2759895b5ae6cb7946def0b321f1_content" cols="40">Bar1</textarea> How do I force rails to always use the new resource behavior and not automatically add the id to the name and value. Do I have to create a custom form builder? Is there some other trick I can do to prevent rails from putting the id of the guide in there? I have tried a bunch of stuff and nothing is working. Thanks in advance!

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• iPhone SDK 3/4 App will not run on a iPhone 2.x device even with deployment target set to 2.0!

  - by MarqueIV

  Ok... I know about the difference between the base/active SDKs and the deployment target. I have my base SDK set at 4.0 and the deployment target set at 2.0. I am not using any APIs post 2.x, conditional or otherwise. Since I can't debug on a 2.x device, after building it, I use the iPhone Configuration Utility to install the app on the device, which it does just fine. Problem is, it doesn't run! I just get a blank screen. The main window never comes up! Now before you ask... I had this same problem with the iPhone SDK 3.x. I upgraded to the 4.x hoping it would be solved. It wasn't. Yes the provisioning profile is installed. (Couldn't install the app if it wasn't.) This same compiled app works fine on 3.x devices. Same with 4.x devices. Just not 2.x devices. Again, no I am not using any post-2.x SDKs. To prove this I created a brand-new, window-based app from the 'New Project' dialog and the only changes I made was the background color of the window (to prove the XIB loaded) and I set the deployment target to 2.0 (It's still compiled against the 4.x SDK though.) Again, it runs fine on 3.x or 4.x devices, but just a black, blank screen on 2.x devices. I've tried this on three separate 2.x devices included one freshly restored. I've used three separate dev machines (MacBook Pro with the 3.x SDK, MacBook Pro with the 4.x SDK and a Mac Pro with the 3.x SDK.) Same result every time. I am stumped. The fact that even an unmodified project doesn't run really has me confused. Could it be the XIB file? Did they change the format from 2.x to something newer in the 3.x SDK? If so, how do I set it back to 2.x. (Again, this is just a complete guess.) But I'm really stumped! Mark

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• Efficiency of Java "Double Brace Initialization"?

  - by Jim Ferrans

  In Hidden Features of Java the top answer mentions Double Brace Initialization, with a very enticing syntax: Set<String> flavors = new HashSet<String>() {{ add("vanilla"); add("strawberry"); add("chocolate"); add("butter pecan"); }}; This idiom creates an anonymous inner class with just an instance initializer in it, which "can use any [...] methods in the containing scope". Main question: Is this as inefficient as it sounds? Should its use be limited to one-off initializations? (And of course showing off!) Second question: The new HashSet must be the "this" used in the instance initializer ... can anyone shed light on the mechanism? Third question: Is this idiom too obscure to use in production code? Summary: Very, very nice answers, thanks everyone. On question (3), people felt the syntax should be clear (though I'd recommend an occasional comment, especially if your code will pass on to developers who may not be familiar with it). On question (1), The generated code should run quickly. The extra .class files do cause jar file clutter, and slow program startup slightly (thanks to coobird for measuring that). Thilo pointed out that garbage collection can be affected, and the memory cost for the extra loaded classes may be a factor in some cases. Question (2) turned out to be most interesting to me. If I understand the answers, what's happening in DBI is that the anonymous inner class extends the class of the object being constructed by the new operator, and hence has a "this" value referencing the instance being constructed. Very neat. Overall, DBI strikes me as something of an intellectual curiousity. Coobird and others point out you can achieve the same effect with Arrays.asList, varargs methods, Google Collections, and the proposed Java 7 Collection literals. Newer JVM languages like Scala, JRuby, and Groovy also offer concise notations for list construction, and interoperate well with Java. Given that DBI clutters up the classpath, slows down class loading a bit, and makes the code a tad more obscure, I'd probably shy away from it. However, I plan to spring this on a friend who's just gotten his SCJP and loves good natured jousts about Java semantics! ;-) Thanks everyone!

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• Svcutil generating bad config with multiple endpoints

  - by vfilby

  I have a WCF service that has exposed a soap and an xml endpoint. When I use svcutil to generate the proxy code on the client side the generated configuration contains two endpoints which causes the client to fail. If I edit the web.config file and remove the second endpoint (with the custom binding) all works as expected. Is there a way I can get svcutil to generate a config that just works so that I don't need to hand edit the file everytime? Client-side error: An endpoint configuration section for contract 'MyNamespace.ITestService' could not be loaded because more than one endpoint configuration for that contract was found. Please indicate the preferred endpoint configuration section by name. Svcutil command: svcutil http://api.local/Test.svc /reference:bin\MyNamespace.Interface.dll /config:web.config /mergeConfig /out:"Service References\TestService.cs" /n:*,MyNamespace Generated client config: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_ITestService" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" allowCookies="false" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferSize="65536" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" transferMode="Buffered" useDefaultWebProxy="true"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="None" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" algorithmSuite="Default" /> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> <customBinding> <binding name="CustomBinding_ITestService"> <textMessageEncoding maxReadPoolSize="64" maxWritePoolSize="16" messageVersion="Soap12" writeEncoding="utf-8"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> </textMessageEncoding> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://api2.local/Test.svc/soap" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_ITestService" contract="MyNamespace.ITestService" name="BasicHttpBinding_ITestService" /> <endpoint binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="CustomBinding_ITestService" contract="MyNamespace.ITestService" name="CustomBinding_ITestService" /> </client> </system.serviceModel>

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• Asp.net MVC VirtualPathProvider views parse error

  - by madcapnmckay

  Hi, I am working on a plugin system for Asp.net MVC 2. I have a dll containing controllers and views as embedded resources. I scan the plugin dlls for controller using StructureMap and I then can pull them out and instantiate them when requested. This works fine. I then have a VirtualPathProvider which I adapted from this post public class AssemblyResourceProvider : VirtualPathProvider { protected virtual string WidgetDirectory { get { return "~/bin"; } } private bool IsAppResourcePath(string virtualPath) { var checkPath = VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(virtualPath); return checkPath.StartsWith(WidgetDirectory, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase); } public override bool FileExists(string virtualPath) { return (IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) || base.FileExists(virtualPath)); } public override VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { return IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) ? new AssemblyResourceVirtualFile(virtualPath) : base.GetFile(virtualPath); } public override CacheDependency GetCacheDependency(string virtualPath, IEnumerable virtualPathDependencies, DateTime utcStart) { return IsAppResourcePath(virtualPath) ? null : base.GetCacheDependency(virtualPath, virtualPathDependencies, utcStart); } } internal class AssemblyResourceVirtualFile : VirtualFile { private readonly string path; public AssemblyResourceVirtualFile(string virtualPath) : base(virtualPath) { path = VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(virtualPath); } public override Stream Open() { var parts = path.Split('/'); var resourceName = Path.GetFileName(path); var apath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(Path.GetDirectoryName(path)); var assembly = Assembly.LoadFile(apath); return assembly != null ? assembly.GetManifestResourceStream(assembly.GetManifestResourceNames().SingleOrDefault(s => string.Compare(s, resourceName, true) == 0)) : null; } } The VPP seems to be working fine also. The view is found and is pulled out into a stream. I then receive a parse error Could not load type 'System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<dynamic>'. which I can't find mentioned in any previous example of pluggable views. Why would my view not compile at this stage? Thanks for any help, Ian EDIT: Getting closer to an answer but not quite clear why things aren't compiling. Based on the comments I checked the versions and everything is in V2, I believe dynamic was brought in at V2 so this is fine. I don't even have V3 installed so it can't be that. I have however got the view to render, if I remove the <dynamic> altogether. So a VPP works but only if the view is not strongly typed or dynamic This makes sense for the strongly typed scenario as the type is in the dynamically loaded dll so the viewengine will not be aware of it, even though the dll is in the bin. Is there a way to load types at app start? Considering having a go with MEF instead of my bespoke Structuremap solution. What do you think?

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• Safari/Chrome problem with ajaxsubmit?

  - by Jan

  Hi I'm currently having some weird issues with ajaxsubmit (http://jquery.malsup.com/form/#ajaxSubmit), which I'm currently using in a project. I have a flow where I need to open a form into a modal window. I'm using fancybox for that and it works like a charm. When the form has been forced to open in the fancybox window there can happen two things. 1) If the user who is about to submit the form is logged in she should see a confirmation in the modal box, that her input was succesfully submitted 2)If the user is not logged in there should be loaded a login form once she hits the submit button 2.1) When the user has logged in she should receive a confirmation in the modal box. This is also working like a charm in Firefox, IE8 and IE7 but not in Safari or Chrome. The weird part is that it seems like safari and chrome are completely ignoring my ajaxsubmit form. To force the first form to be opened I use the follwoing script - this part is working in both Safari and Chrome. $(".klikEnPrisForm").ajaxForm({ success: function(data){ $.fancybox({'content':data}); } }); My ajaxsubmit form scrip looks like this var options = { url: '/?altTemplate=XmlProxyKlikEnPris', dataType: 'xml', data: $(this).serializeArray(), success: function(data) { if ($(data).find('loggetind').text() == 'true') { $("#klikenpris").hide(); $('<div id="fancybox-inner-klik"></div>').appendTo('#fancybox-inner'); $('#fancybox-inner-klik').load('/KlikEnPrisAccept?tilKvittering=1&sagsno=' + $(data).find('sagsnummer').text() + '&pris=' + $(data).find('pris').text() + '&klik-comment=' + $(data).find('kommentar').text() + '&klik-telefon=' + $(data).find('tlf').text() + '&klik-maeglerkontakt=' + $(data).find('maakontakte').text()).stop(true, true); } else { $("#klikenpris").hide(); $("#fancybox-wrap").css({ 'width': '480px', 'height': '220px' }); $("#fancybox-inner").css({ 'width': '460px', 'height': '220px' }); $('<div id="fancybox-inner-klik"></div>').appendTo('#fancybox-inner'); $('#fancybox-inner-klik').load('/login.aspx?loginklikpris=0&klikpris=1&sagsno=' + $(data).find('sagsnummer').text() + '&pris=' + $(data).find('pris').text() + '&klik-comment=' + $(data).find('kommentar').text() + '&klik-telefon=' + $(data).find('tlf').text() + '&klik-maeglerkontakt=' + $(data).find('maakontakte').text()).stop(true, true); } } }; // bind to the form's submit event $('#klikenprisform').submit(function() { // inside event callbacks 'this' is the DOM element so we first // wrap it in a jQuery object and then invoke ajaxSubmit $(this).ajaxSubmit(options); // !!! Important !!! // always return false to prevent standard browser submit and page navigation return false; }); I have tried inserting an alert in the succes callback function but it's never being called it seems. It seems like the default action is not being overruled by the link written in the "url" in ajaxsubmit. I'm really puzzled about this, since it's working nicely in other browsers and I'm completely lost on how I should approach the debugging in safari/chrome. I hope all the above makes sense and I'm looking forward to hear any suggestions. Cheers!

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• Google maps API - info window height and panning

  - by Tim Fountain

  I'm using the Google maps API (v2) to display a country overlay over a world map. The data comes from a KML file, which contains coords for the polygons along with a HTML description for each country. This description is displayed in the 'info window' speech bubble when that country is clicked on. I had some trouble initially as the info windows were not expanding to the size of the HTML content they contained, so the longer ones would spill over the edges (this seems to be a common problem). I was able to work around this by resetting the info window to a specific height as follows: GEvent.addListener(map, "infowindowopen", function(iw) { iw = map.getInfoWindow(); iw.reset(iw.getPoint(), iw.getTabs(), new GSize(300, 295), null, null); }); Not ideal, but it works. However now, when the info windows are opened the top part of them is sometimes obscured by the edges of the map, as the map does not pan to a position where all of the content can be viewed. So my questions: Is there any way to get the info windows to automatically use a height appropriate to their content, to avoid having to fix to a set pixel height? If fixing the height is the only option, is there any way to get the map to pan to a more appropriate position when the info windows open? I know that the map class has a panTo() method, but I can't see a way to calculate what the correct coords would be. Here's my full init code: google.load("maps", "2.x"); // Call this function when the page has been loaded function initialize() { var map = new google.maps.Map2(document.getElementById("map"), {backgroundColor:'#99b3cc'}); map.addControl(new GSmallZoomControl()); map.setCenter(new google.maps.LatLng(29.01377076013671, -2.7866649627685547), 2); gae_countries = new GGeoXml("http://example.com/countries.kmz"); map.addOverlay(gae_countries); GEvent.addListener(map, "infowindowopen", function(iw) { iw = map.getInfoWindow(); iw.reset(iw.getPoint(), iw.getTabs(), new GSize(300, 295), null, null); }); } google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize);

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• Haskell: how to get through 'no instance for' ?

  - by artemave

  I am learning Haskell. I am on the 8th chapter of this book. The main thing I've learned so far is that Haskell is very unfriendly to me and it bites my ass where possible. Moreover... Heck! Enough mourning, to business. Here is the code: module GlobRegex ( globToRegex, matchesGlob ) where import Text.Regex.Posix import Text.Regex.Posix.String import Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike data CaseOpt = Case | NoCase deriving (Eq) matchesGlob :: String -> String -> CaseOpt -> Bool matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) globToRegex :: String -> String ... And here is how it fails to compile: Prelude Text.Regex.Posix Text.Regex.Base.RegexLike> :load globtoregex\GlobRegex. hs [1 of 1] Compiling GlobRegex ( globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs, interpreted ) globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31: No instance for (RegexLike regex [Char]) arising from a use of `match' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:14:31-46 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexLike regex [Char]) In the expression: match regex name In the definition of `matchesGlob': matchesGlob name pat caseopt = match regex name where regex = case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex pat) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23: No instance for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) arising from a use of `makeRegex' at globtoregex\GlobRegex.hs:17:23-49 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (RegexMaker regex CompOption execOpt String) In the expression: makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In a case alternative: Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) In the expression: case caseopt of { NoCase -> makeRegexOpts (defaultCompOpt + compIgnoreCase) defaultExecOpt (globToRegex p at) Case -> makeRegex (globToRegex pat) } Failed, modules loaded: none. To my best understanding, Text.Regex.Posix.String provides instances for RegexLike Regex String and RegexMaker Regex CompOption ExecOption String, so it should work. On the other hand, I can see that regex in the error message is type variable, not a concrete type, so, perhaps not... Anyway, this is where I am stuck. May be there is a common pattern for resolving no instance for type of problems? Or, in Haskell terms, instance of SmartGuess typeclass for no instance for?

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• MooseX::Types declaration issue, tight test case :)

  - by TJ Thompson

  So after an embarrassing amount of time debugging, I've finally stripped this issue ([http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4621589/perl-moose-typedecorator-error-how-do-i-debug][1]) down to a simple test case. I would humbly request some help understanding why it's failing :) Here is the error message I'm getting: plxc16479 $h2/tmp/tmp18.pl This method [new] requires a single argument. at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/perl/5.12.2/lib64/site_perl/MooseX/Types/TypeDecorator.pm line 91 MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator::new('MooseX::Types::TypeDecorator=HASH(0x655b90)') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/projects/lib/Program-Plist-Pl/lib/Program/Plist/Pl.pm line 10 Program::Plist::Pl::BUILD('Program::Plist::Pl=HASH(0x63d478)', 'HASH(0x63d220)') called at generated method (unknown origin) line 29 Program::Plist::Pl::new('Program::Plist::Pl') called at /nfs/pdx/disks/nehalem.pde.077/tmp/tmp18.pl line 10 Wrapper test script: use strict; use warnings; BEGIN {push(@INC, split(':', $ENV{PERL_TEST_LIBS}))}; use Program::Plist::Pl; my $obj = Program::Plist::Pl->new(); Program::Plist::Pl file: package Program::Plist::Pl; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; use Program::Types qw(Pattern); # <-- Removing this fixes error use Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; sub BUILD { my $pattern_obj = Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern->new(); } __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Program::Types file: package Program::Types; use MooseX::Types -declare => [qw(Pattern)]; class_type Pattern, {class => 'Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern'}; 1; And the Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern file: package Program::Plist::Pl::Pattern; use Moose; use namespace::autoclean; __PACKAGE__->meta->make_immutable; 1; Notes: While I don't need the Pattern type from Program::Types in the above code, I do in other code that is stripped out. The PERL_TEST_LIBS env var I'm pulling INC paths from only contains paths to the project modules. There are no other modules loaded from these paths. It appears the MooseX::Types definition for Pattern is causing problems, but I'm not sure why. Documentation shows the syntax I am using, but it's possible I'm misusing class_type as there isn't much said about it. Intent is to be able to use Pattern for type checking via MooseX::Params::Validate to verify the argument is a 'Program::Plist::Pl::Program' object. I've found that removing the intervening class Program::Plist::Pl from the equation by directly calling Pattern-new from the tmp18.pl wrapper results in no error, even when the Program::Types Pattern type is imported.

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• Why are there connections open to my databases?

  - by Everett

  I have a program that stores user projects as databases. Naturally, the program should allow the user to create and delete the databases as they need to. When the program boots up, it looks for all the databases in a specific SQLServer instance that have the structure the program is expecting. These database are then loaded into a listbox so the user can pick one to open as a project to work on. When I try to delete a database from the program, I always get an SQL error saying that the database is currently open and the operation fails. I've determined that the code that checks for the databases to load is causing the problem. I'm not sure why though, because I'm quite sure that all the connections are being properly closed. Here are all the relevant functions. After calling BuildProjectList, running "DROP DATABASE database_name" from ExecuteSQL fails with the message: "Cannot drop database because it is currently in use". I'm using SQLServer 2005. private SqlConnection databaseConnection; private string connectionString; private ArrayList databases; public ArrayList BuildProjectList() { //databases is an ArrayList of all the databases in an instance if (databases.Count <= 0) { return null; } ArrayList databaseNames = new ArrayList(); for (int i = 0; i < databases.Count; i++) { string db = databases[i].ToString(); connectionString = "Server=localhost\\SQLExpress;Trusted_Connection=True;Database=" + db + ";"; //Check if the database has the table required for the project string sql = "select * from TableExpectedToExist"; if (ExecuteSQL(sql)) { databaseNames.Add(db); } } return databaseNames; } private bool ExecuteSQL(string sql) { bool success = false; openConnection(); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand(sql, databaseConnection); try { cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); success = true; } catch (SqlException ae) { MessageBox.Show(ae.Message.ToString()); } closeConnection(); return success; } public void openConnection() { databaseConnection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); try { databaseConnection.Open(); } catch(Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } public void closeConnection() { if (databaseConnection != null) { try { databaseConnection.Close(); } catch (Exception e) { MessageBox.Show(e.ToString(), "Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } } }

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• Set default form textfield value (webbrowser control)

  - by Khou

  Hi I would like my application to load a webpage and set default the form textfield value a predefine value. Requirements: -The application is a windows form, it is to use the web browser control, to load a web page. -Textfield values are define by within the application. -When textfield on the webpage matches the applications predefined elements, the predefine fixed value is set and can not be changed by the end user. Example If my application defines element "FirstName" equal to value "John", the text field for value for element "FirstName" will always equal "John" and this value can not be changed by the end user. Below is html/javascript code to perform this functionality, now how do I implement this in a windows form? (without having to modify the loaded webpage source code (if possible). HTML <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>page title</title> <script script type="text/javascript" src="demo1.js"></script> </head> <body onload="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"> <h2 style="color: #8e9182">test form title</h2> <form name="someform" id="someform_frm" action="#"> <table cellspacing="1"> <tr><td><label for="name">NameX: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name" onchange="def(document.someform, 'name', 'my default name value');"></td></tr> <tr><td><label for="name2">NameY: </label></td><td><input type="text" size="30" maxlength="155" name="name2"></td></tr> <tr><td colspan="2"><input type="button" name="submit" value="Submit" onclick="showFormData(this.form);" ></td></table> </form> </body> </html> JAVASCRIPT function def(oForm, element_name, def_txt) { oForm.elements[element_name].value = def_txt; }

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• Global Entity Framework Context in WPF Application

  - by OffApps Cory

  Good day, I am in the middle of development of a WPF application that is using Entity Framework (.NET 3.5). It accesses the entities in several places throughout. I am worried about consistency throughout the application in regard to the entities. Should I be instancing separate contexts in my different views, or should I (and is a a good way to do this) instance a single context that can be accessed globally? For instance, my entity model has three sections, Shipments (with child packages and further child contents), Companies/Contacts (with child addresses and telephones), and disk specs. The Shipments and EditShipment views access the DiskSpecs, and the OptionsView manages the DiskSpecs (Create, Edit, Delete). If I edit a DiskSpec, I have to have something in the ShipmentsView to retrieve the latest specs if I have separate contexts right? If it is safe to have one overall context from which the rest of the app retrieves it's objects, then I imagine that is the way to go. If so, where would that instance be put? I am using VB.NET, but I can translate from C# pretty good. Any help would be appreciated. I just don't want one of those applications where the user has to hit reload a dozen times in different parts of the app to get the new data. Update: OK so I have changed my app as follows: All contexts are created in Using Blocks to dispose of them after they are no longer needed. When loaded, all entities are detatched from context before it is disposed. A new property in the MainViewModel (ContextUpdated) raises an event that all of the other ViewModels subscribe to which runs that ViewModels RefreshEntities method. After implementing this, I started getting errors saying that an entity can only be referenced by one ChangeTracker at a time. Since I could not figure out which context was still referencing the entity (shouldn't be any context right?) I cast the object as IEntityWithChangeTracker, and set SetChangeTracker to nothing (Null). This has let to the current problem: When I Null the changeTracker on the Entity, and then attach it to a context, it loses it's changed state and does not get updated to the database. However if I do not null the change tracker, I can't attach. I have my own change tracking code, so that is not a problem. My new question is, how are you supposed to do this. A good example Entity query and entity save code snipped would go a long way, cause I am beating my head in trying to get what I once thought was a simple transaction to work. Any help would elevate you to near god-hood.

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• Accessing an object's fields without an active session

  - by Dave

  I'm using Hibernate 4.0.1.Final. Is it possible to access an object's fields if that object has been loaded via the org.hibernate.Session.load(Class clazz, Serializable id) method and there is no active session? I use this code to access an object by id … protected Object find(Class clazz, Serializable id) { Object obj = null; try { startOperation(); obj = session.load(clazz, id); tx.commit(); } catch (HibernateException e) { handleException(e); } finally { session.close(); } return obj; } but if I have that object without an active session, like with this code … final Organization foundOrg = orgDao.findById(org.getOrganizationId()); System.out.println(foundOrg.getName()); I get this error on the "System.out" line … org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: could not initialize proxy - no Session at org.hibernate.proxy.AbstractLazyInitializer.initialize(AbstractLazyInitializer.java:149) at org.hibernate.proxy.AbstractLazyInitializer.getImplementation(AbstractLazyInitializer.java:195) at org.hibernate.proxy.pojo.javassist.JavassistLazyInitializer.invoke(JavassistLazyInitializer.java:185) at org.myco.myproject.orgsclient.model.Organization_$$_javassist_0.getName(Organization_$$_javassist_0.java) at org.myco.myproject.orgsclient.dao.OrganizationDAOTest.testInsertSchool(OrganizationDAOTest.java:43) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod$1.runReflectiveCall(FrameworkMethod.java:44) at org.junit.internal.runners.model.ReflectiveCallable.run(ReflectiveCallable.java:15) at org.junit.runners.model.FrameworkMethod.invokeExplosively(FrameworkMethod.java:41) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.InvokeMethod.evaluate(InvokeMethod.java:20) at org.junit.internal.runners.statements.RunBefores.evaluate(RunBefores.java:28) at org.junit.runners.BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.runChild(BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.java:76) at org.junit.runners.BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.runChild(BlockJUnit4ClassRunner.java:50) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner$3.run(ParentRunner.java:193) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner$1.schedule(ParentRunner.java:52) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.runChildren(ParentRunner.java:191) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.access$000(ParentRunner.java:42) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner$2.evaluate(ParentRunner.java:184) at org.junit.runners.ParentRunner.run(ParentRunner.java:236) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit4.runner.JUnit4TestReference.run(JUnit4TestReference.java:50) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.TestExecution.run(TestExecution.java:38) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:467) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.runTests(RemoteTestRunner.java:683) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.run(RemoteTestRunner.java:390) at org.eclipse.jdt.internal.junit.runner.RemoteTestRunner.main(RemoteTestRunner.java:197)

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• Superfish: How to keep sub menu open after it has been clicked

  - by Roland

  I'm having the following scenario. I have a menu and if one hovers over the menu a sub menu appears and if mouse moves out the sub menu disappears, now I want the following if I click on the on a item in the sub menu, I want the sub-menu to remain open, when the new page has been loaded. I'm using superfish Jquery plugin for this. Is this possible and if how. my code in html <div id="nav"> <div id="nav2"> <ul class="sf-menu sf-navbar "> <li> <a title="HOME" class="sf-with-ul " href="/index.php?r=site/index&amp;sid=1">HOME</a> </li> </ul> <ul class="sf-menu sf-navbar"> <li> <a href="?sid=2" id="gallery" class="sf-with-ul selected_main">GALLERY</a> <ul class="subs" id="sub1"><li class="arrow"><img src="images/arrow.gif" /></li><li><a title="Kitchens" href="/index.php?r=images/sddsd&amp;id=1">Kitchens</a></li><li><a title="Vanities" href="/index.php?r=images/sddsd&amp;id=2">Vanities</a></li></ul> </li> </ul> <ul class="sf-menu sf-navbar "> <li> <a href="?sid=3" class="sf-with-ul " >ACCESSORIES</a> <ul class="subs" id=""><li class="arrow"><img src="images/arrow.gif" /></li><li><a title="Door Handles" href="/index.php?r=images/sddsd&amp;id=2">Door Handles</a></li><li><a title="Spanners" href="/index.php?r=images/sddsd&amp;id=1">Spanners</a></li></ul> </li> </ul> <ul class="sf-menu sf-navbar "> <li> <a title="CONTACT US" class="sf-with-ul " href="/index.php?r=site/contact&amp;sid=4">CONTACT US</a> </li> </ul> </div> </div> and then the superfish code $(function(){ $("ul.sf-menu").superfish({ delay: 0, speed: 'fast', autoArrows: false, dropShadows: false }); }); I've also noticed that the following css code is used to display the item left: 0; top: 2.5em; z-index: 99;

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• Best way to handle multiple tables to replace one big table in Rails? (e.g. 'Books1', 'Books2', etc.

  - by mikep

  Hello, I've decided to use multiple tables for an entity (e.g. Books1, Books2, Books3, etc.), instead of just one main table which could end up having a lot of rows (e.g. just Books). I'm doing this to try and to avoid a potential future performance drop that could come with having too many rows in one table. With that, I'm looking for a good way to handle this in Rails, mainly by trying to avoid loading a bunch of unused associations. (I know that I could use a partition for this, but, for now, I've decided to go the 'multiple tables' route.) Each user has their books placed into a specific table. The actual book table is chosen when the user is created, and all of their books go into the same table. I'm going to split the adds across the tables. The goal is to try and keep each table pretty much even -- but that's a different issue. One thing I don't particularly want to have is a bunch of unused associations in the User class. Right now, it looks like I'd have to do the following: class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :books1, :books2, :books3, :books4, :books5 end class Books1 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books2 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end class Books3 < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user end I'm assuming that the main performance hit would come in terms of memory and possibly some method call overhead for each User object, since it has to load all of those associations, which in turn creates all of those nice, dynamic model accessor methods like User.find_by_. But for each specific user, only one of the book tables would be usable/applicable, since all of a user's books are stored in the same table. So, only one of the associations would be in use at any time and any other has_many :bookX association that was loaded would be a waste. For example, with a user.id of 2, I'd only need books3.find_by_author('Author'), but the way I'm thinking of setting this up, I'd still have access to Books1..n. I don't really know Ruby/Rails does internally with all of those has_many associations though, so maybe it's not so bad. But right now I'm thinking that it's really wasteful, and that there may just be a better, more efficient way of doing this. So, a few questions: 1) Is there's some sort of special Ruby/Rails methodology that could be applied to this 'multiple tables to represent one entity' scheme? Are there any 'best practices' for this? 2) Is it really bad to have so many unused has_many associations for each object? Is there a better way to do this? 3) Does anyone have any advice on how to abstract the fact that there's multiple book tables behind a single books model/class? For example, so I can call books.find_by_author('Author') instead of books3.find_by_author('Author'). Thank you!

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• Is this asking too much of a browser?

  - by Matt Ball

  I'm embedding a large array in <script> tags in my HTML, like this (nothing surprising): <script> var largeArray = [/* lots of stuff in here */]; </script> In this particular example, the array has 210,000 elements. That's well below the theoretical maximum of 231 - by 4 orders of magnitude. Here's the fun part: if I save JS source for the array to a file, that file is 44 megabytes (46,573,399 bytes, to be exact). If you want to see for yourself, you can download it from my Dropbox. (All the data in there is canned, so much of it is repeated. This will not be the case in production.) Now, I'm really not concerned about serving that much data. My server gzips its responses, so it really doesn't take all that long to get the data over the wire. However, there is a really nasty tendency for the page, once loaded, to crash the browser. I'm not testing at all in IE (this is an internal tool). My primary targets are Chrome 8 and Firefox 3.6. In Firefox, I can see a reasonably useful error in the console: Error: script stack space quota is exhausted In Chrome, I simply get the sad-tab page: Cut to the chase, already Is this really too much data for our modern, "high-performance" browsers to handle? Is there anything I can do* to gracefully handle this much data? Incidentally, I was able to get this to work (read: not crash the tab) on-and-off in Chrome. I really thought that Chrome, at least, was made of tougher stuff, but apparently I was wrong... Edit 1 @Crayon: I wasn't looking to justify why I'd like to dump this much data into the browser at once. Short version: either I solve this one (admittedly not-that-easy) problem, or I have to solve a whole slew of other problems. I'm opting for the simpler approach for now. @various: right now, I'm not especially looking for ways to actually reduce the number of elements in the array. I know I could implement Ajax paging or what-have-you, but that introduces its own set of problems for me in other regards. @Phrogz: each element looks something like this: {dateTime:new Date(1296176400000), terminalId:'terminal999', 'General___BuildVersion':'10.05a_V110119_Beta', 'SSM___ExtId':26680, 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___Valid':'false', 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___PngAttempt':0} @Will: but I have a computer with a 4-core processor, 6 gigabytes of RAM, over half a terabyte of disk space ...and I'm not even asking for the browser to do this quickly - I'm just asking for it to work at all! ? *other than the obvious: sending less data to the browser

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• WPF Choppy Animation

  - by Chris Dunaway

  WPF Windows-XP SP3 I'm having a problem with a simple WPF animation. I use the following Xaml code (in XamlPad and also in a WPF project): <Page xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:sys="clr-namespace:System;assembly=mscorlib" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" > <Border Name="MyBorder" BorderThickness="10" BorderBrush="Blue" CornerRadius="10" Background="DarkRed" > <Rectangle Name="MyRectangle" Margin="10" StrokeDashArray="2.0,1.0" StrokeThickness="10" RadiusX="10" RadiusY="10" Stroke="Black" StrokeDashOffset="0"> <Rectangle.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Rectangle.Loaded"> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="MyRectangle" Storyboard.TargetProperty="StrokeDashOffset" From="0.0" To="3.0" Duration="0:0:1" RepeatBehavior="Forever" Timeline.DesiredFrameRate="30" /> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </EventTrigger> </Rectangle.Triggers> </Rectangle> </Border> </Page> It has the effect of causing the border to animate around the rectangle. After a fresh reboot of the machine, this animation is nice and smooth. However, I tend to leave my machine on all the time and after a period time elapses (I don't know how long), the animation starts stuttering and becomes choppy. I thought that it may be memory or resource issues, but after shutting down all other apps and any services that seem unnecessary, the stuttering still continues. However, after a system reboot, the animation is smooth again! I get the same symptoms in a WPF app or in XamlPad. In the case of the app, it doesn't seem to make any difference whether I run in the debugger or if I run the executable directly. I applied the patch at this link: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/981741 and I thought that it had taken care of the issue, but it seems not to have. I have seen some posts that might indicate that using transparency might affect animation, but as you can see, my xaml does not use transparency. Can anyone give me some suggestions on how to determine what the problem is? Are there any WPF diagnostic tools that might help? UPDATE: I have checked my video drivers and they are the latest version. (nVidia GeForce 8400 GS)

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• ASP.NET MVC, Webform hybrid

  - by Greg Ogle

  We (me and my team) have a ASP.NET MVC application and we are integrating a page or two that are Web Forms. We are trying to reuse the Master Page from our MVC part of the app in the WebForms part. We have found a way of rendering an MVC partial view in web forms, which works great, until we try and do a postback, which is the reason for using a WebForm. The Error: Validation of viewstate MAC failed. If this application is hosted by a Web Farm or cluster, ensure that configuration specifies the same validationKey and validation algorithm. AutoGenerate cannot be used in a cluster. The Code to render the partial view from a WebForm (credited to "How to include a partial view inside a webform"): public static class WebFormMVCUtil { public static void RenderPartial(string partialName, object model) { //get a wrapper for the legacy WebForm context var httpCtx = new HttpContextWrapper(System.Web.HttpContext.Current); //create a mock route that points to the empty controller var rt = new RouteData(); rt.Values.Add("controller", "WebFormController"); //create a controller context for the route and http context var ctx = new ControllerContext( new RequestContext(httpCtx, rt), new WebFormController()); //find the partial view using the viewengine var view = ViewEngines.Engines.FindPartialView(ctx, partialName).View; //create a view context and assign the model var vctx = new ViewContext(ctx, view, new ViewDataDictionary { Model = model }, new TempDataDictionary()); //ERROR OCCURS ON THIS LINE view.Render(vctx, System.Web.HttpContext.Current.Response.Output); } } My only experience with this error is in context of a web farm, which is not the case. Also, I understand that the machine key is used for decrypting the ViewState. Any information on how to diagnose this issue would be appreciated. A Work-around: So far the work-around is to move the header content to a PartialView, then use an AJAX call to call a page with just the Partial View from the WebForms, and then using the PartialView directly on the MVC Views. Also, we are still able to share non-tech-specific parts of the Master Page, i.e. anything that is not MVC specific. Still yet, this is not an ideal solution, a server-side solution is still desired. Also, this solutino has issues when working with controls that have more sophisticated controls, using JavaScript, particularly dynamically generated script as used by 3rd party controls.

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• How to eager load sibling data using LINQ to SQL?

  - by Scott

  The goal is to issue the fewest queries to SQL Server using LINQ to SQL without using anonymous types. The return type for the method will need to be IList<Child1>. The relationships are as follows: Parent Child1 Child2 Grandchild1 Parent Child1 is a one-to-many relationship Child1 Grandchild1 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) Parent Child2 is a one-to-n relationship (where n is zero to infinity) I am able to eager load the Parent, Child1 and Grandchild1 data resulting in one query to SQL Server. This query with load options eager loads all of the data, except the sibling data (Child2): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; I need to load the sibling data as well. One approach I have tried is splitting the query into two LINQ to SQL queries and merging the result sets together (not pretty), however upon accessing the sibling data it is lazy loaded anyway. Adding the sibling load option will issue a query to SQL Server for each Grandchild1 and Child2 record (which is exactly what I am trying to avoid): DataLoadOptions loadOptions = new DataLoadOptions(); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.GrandChild1List); loadOptions.LoadWith<Child1>(o => o.Parent); loadOptions.LoadWith<Parent>(o => o.Child2List); dataContext.LoadOptions = loadOptions; IQueryable<Child1> children = from child in dataContext.Child1 select child; exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=1 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=2 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=3 exec sp_executesql N'SELECT * FROM [dbo].[Child2] AS [t0] WHERE [t0].[ForeignKeyToParent] = @p0',N'@p0 int',@p0=4 I've also written LINQ to SQL queries to join in all of the data in hopes that it would eager load the data, however when the LINQ to SQL EntitySet of Child2 or Grandchild1 are accessed it lazy loads the data. The reason for returning the IList<Child1> is to hydrate business objects. My thoughts are I am either: Approaching this problem the wrong way. Have the option of calling a stored procedure? My organization should not be using LINQ to SQL as an ORM? Any help is greatly appreciated. Thank you, -Scott

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• jquery sortable item cached? #sortable items: '.class1' filter is not working when class is changed

  - by liz

  hello everyone, i came across a weird problem today: i created a sortable list of divs. each div has a class="class1" and items is set to 'class1' (see below simplified code). each div has an a href link that calls a function toggleLock. this function replaces class="class1" with class="locked" for that div. for example: will become the problem is: even though #sortable is set to "make" only items with class="class1" sortable, replacing the class still allows to be sortable. seems like item class is cached at some point. i've tried to refresh #sortable ($('#sortable').sortable("refreshPosition") and $('#sortable').sortable("");), but that didn't work. i've tried both ways of replacing the class: attr('class','lock') and removeClass(), then addClass(). still is sortable. if class is not changed dynamically, but loads into DOM as , then it's not sortable as expected. why wouldn't replacement of the class from class1 to locked prevent that div from being sortable? am i missing something? sample code: <div id="sortable"> <div class="class1" id="1"> <div class="sortHandle">....</div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R1">lock</a> <p>This is item 1</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="2"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R2">lock</a> <p>This is item 2</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="3"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R3">lock</a> <p>This is item 3</p> </div> </div> js: $(function() { $("#sortable").sortable({ items: '.class1', handle: '.sortHandle', cursor: 'move', start: function(e,ui) { el = e.target; startPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; }, update: function(event, ui) { data = $('.class1').sortable('toArray'); newPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; alert("position: "+startPos+"; newposition: "+newPos); } }).disableSelection(); });

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• WPF Using commands to slow to update UI controls

  - by toni

  Hi, I bind a command to a button through command property and doing a command binding in the page it is placed. In execute method I create an instance of a class that contains the background worker and I start it (this is a long task). The background worker (bw) class contains a variable isRunning that it is set to true before DoWork method is executed and to false when RunWorkerCompleted is executed. So from the code behind of the page where button is placed, in CanExecute method I set e.canExecute to true if bw is no running (isRunning = false), and e.canExecute to false if isRunning = true. WHen I press the button, it launch bw process for a long time and the button gets disabled. Ok this is correct, but when background worker (bw) finishes, the button doesn't returns to enabled until I press it again. When it is disabled and I press (when bw is finished) it gets enabled. Why the button is not returning automatically to enabled at the end of the bw? my code snippet: <Page x:Class="GParts.Pages.MyPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:Microsoft_Windows_Themes="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Windows.Themes; assembly=PresentationFramework.Aero" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:GParts" Loaded="Page_Loaded" Unloaded="Page_Unloaded" Height="Auto"> <Page.CommandBindings> <CommandBinding Command="{x:Static local:Pages.MyPage.rcmd}" Executed="CommandBinding_Executed" CanExecute="CommandBinding_CanExecute"/> </Page.CommandBindings> <...> <Button Command="{x:Static local:Pages.MyPage.rcmd}" /> <...> </Page> The code behind of the page: namespace GParts.Pages { public partial class MyPage : Page { public static RoutedCommand rcmd = new RoutedCommand(); private cBgWorker bw; <...> // ExecutedRoutedEventHandler for the custom button remove all command. private void CommandBinding_Executed(object sender, ExecutedRoutedEventArgs e) { // get an isntance of the background worker class bw = new cBgWorker(); // start the long task bw.StartTask(); } // CanExecuteRoutedEventHandler for the custom button remove all command. private void CommandBinding_CanExecute(object sender, CanExecuteRoutedEventArgs e) { // bw is the instance of background worker class if (bw == null) { e.CanExecute = true; } else { e.CanExecute = !bw.isRunning;// isRunning indicates if bw is //executing now } } <...> } // end class } // end namespace

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• Linq-to-sql Compiled Query returning object NOT belonging to submitted DataContext

  - by Vladimir Kojic

  Compiled query: public static class Machines { public static readonly Func<OperationalDataContext, short, Machine> QueryMachineById = CompiledQuery.Compile((OperationalDataContext db, short machineID) => db.Machines.Where(m => m.MachineID == machineID).SingleOrDefault() ); public static Machine GetMachineById(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, short id) { Machine machine; // Old code (working) //var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); //machine = machineRepository.Find(m => m.MachineID == id).SingleOrDefault(); // New code (making problems) machine = QueryMachineById(unitOfWork.DataContext, id); return machine; } It looks like compiled query is caching Machine object and returning the same object even if query is called from new DataContext (I’m disposing DataContext in the service but I’m getting Machine from previous DataContext). I use POCOs and XML mapping. Revised: It looks like compiled query is returning result from new data context and it is not using the one that I passed in compiled-query. Therefore I can not reuse returned object and link it to another object obtained from datacontext thru non compiled queries. [TestMethod] public void GetMachinesTest() { // Test Preparation (not important) using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // PASS !!!! } using (var unitOfWork = IoC.Get<IUnitOfWork>()) { var machineRepository = unitOfWork.GetRepository<Machine>(); // GET ALL List<Machine> list = machineRepository.FindAll().ToList<Machine>(); VerifyIntegratedMachine(list[2], 3, "Machine 3", "333333", "G300PET", "MachineIconC.xaml", false, true, LicenseType.Licensed, "10.0.97.3", "10.0.97.3", 0); var machine = Machines.GetMachineById(unitOfWork, 3); Assert.AreSame(list[2], machine); // FAIL !!!! } } If I run other (complex) unit tests I'm getting as expected: An attempt has been made to Attach or Add an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext.

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• Updating Checked Checkboxes using CodeIgniter + MySQL

  - by Tim

  Hello I have about 8 check boxes that are being generated dynamically from my database. This is the code in my controller //Start Get Processes Query $this->db->select('*'); $this->db->from('projects_processes'); $this->db->where('process_enabled', '1'); $data['getprocesses'] = $this->db->get(); //End Get Processes Query //Start Get Checked Processes Query $this->db->select('*'); $this->db->from('projects_processes_reg'); $this->db->where('project_id', $project_id); $data['getchecked'] = $this->db->get(); //End Get Processes Query This is the code in my view. <?php if($getprocesses->result_array()) { ?> <?php foreach($getprocesses->result_array() as $getprocessrow): ?> <tr> <td><input <?php if($getchecked->result_array()) { foreach($getchecked->result_array() as $getcheckedrow): if($getprocessrow['process_id'] == $getcheckedrow['process_id']) { echo 'checked'; } endforeach; }?> type="checkbox" name="progresscheck[]" value="<?php echo $getprocessrow['process_id']; ?>"><?php echo $getprocessrow['process_name']; ?><br> </td> </tr> <?php endforeach; ?> This generates the checkboxes into the form and also checks the appropriate ones as specified by the database. The problem is updating them. What I have been doing so far is simply deleting all checkbox entries for the project and then re-inserting all the values into the database. This is bad because 1. It's slow and horrible. 2. I lose all my meta data of when the check boxes were checked. So I guess my question is, how do I update only the checkboxes that have been changed? Thanks, Tim

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• DoubleAnimation in ScaleTransform

  - by Adam S

  I'm trying, as an exhibition, to use a DoubleAnimation on the ScaleX and ScaleY properties of a ScaleTransform. I have a rectangle (144x144) which I want to make rectangular over five seconds. My XAML: <Window x:Class="ScaleTransformTest.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300" Loaded="Window_Loaded"> <Grid> <Rectangle Name="rect1" Width="144" Height="144" Fill="Aqua"> <Rectangle.RenderTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1" /> </Rectangle.RenderTransform> </Rectangle> </Grid> </Window> My C#: private void Window_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1, 1); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; Duration mytime = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5)); Storyboard sb = new Storyboard(); DoubleAnimation danim1 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 1.5, mytime); DoubleAnimation danim2 = new DoubleAnimation(1, 0.5, mytime); sb.Children.Add(danim1); sb.Children.Add(danim2); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim1, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim1, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleXProperty)); Storyboard.SetTarget(danim2, scaly); Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(danim2, new PropertyPath(ScaleTransform.ScaleYProperty)); sb.Begin(); } Unfortunately, when I run this program, it does nothing. The rectangle stays at 144x144. If I do away with the animation, and just ScaleTransform scaly = new ScaleTransform(1.5, 0.5); rect1.RenderTransform = scaly; it will elongate it instantly, no problem. There is a problem elsewhere. Any suggestions? I have read the discussion at http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29220878/how-to-animate-tofrom-an.aspx in which someone seems to have gotten a pure-XAML version working, but the code is not shown there. EDIT: At http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2131797/applying-animated-scaletransform-in-code-problem it seems someone had a very similar problem, I am fine with using his method that worked, but what the heck is that string thePath = "(0).(1)[0].(2)"; all about? What are those numbers representing?

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