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• Oracle Forms on-button-pressed trigger to solve three scenarios

  - by DBase486

  Hello, I'm writing a when-button-pressed trigger on a save button for an Oracle Forms 6i form, and it has to fulfill a couple of scenarios. Here's some background information: the fields we're primarily concerned with are: n_number, alert_id, end_date For all three scenarios we are comparing candidate records against the following records in the database (for the sake of argument, let's assume they're the only records in the database so far): alert_id|| n_number|| end_date ------------------------------------- 1|| 5|| _______ 2|| 6|| 10/25/2009 Scenario 1: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 5 end_date NULL Objective: prevent the user from committing duplicate rows Scenario 2: The user enters a new record: alert_id 1 n_number 10 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id already exists, but allow the user the ability to commit the row, if desired. Scenario 3: The user enters a new record: alert_id 2 n_number 6 end_date NULL Objective: Notify the user that this alert_id has occurred in the past (i.e. it has a not-null end_date), but allow the user to commit the row, if desired. I've written the code, which seems to comply with the first two scenarios, but prevents me from fulfilling the third. Issues: When I enter the third scenario case, I am prompted to commit the record, but when I attempt this, the "duplicate_stop" alert pops up, preventing me. Issues: I'm getting the following error: ORA-01843: not a valid month. While testing the code for the third scenario in Toad (hard-coding the values, etc) things seemed to be fine. Why would I encounter these problems at run-time? Help is very much appreciated. Thank you

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• Passing Values to Controllers

  - by Dru

  I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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• Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

  - by Martin Cox

  Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

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• write regex code in java for following data

  - by giri

  <table> <tr> <td style="width:180px"> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[java]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'java'">java</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;176</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[servlets]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'servlets'">servlets</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;25</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[jsp]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'jsp'">jsp</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;11</span><br> <a href="/search?q=user:240698+[core]" class="post-tag" title="show all posts by this user in 'core'">core</a><span class="item-multiplier">&times;&nbsp;9</span><br> </tr> </table> from the above code I need to fetch only java, servlets, jsp and core. Can anybody plz help me out to write a regex in java to fetch those? Thanks

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• Do entity collections and object sets implement IQueryable<T>?

  - by Chevex

  I am using Entity Framework for the first time and noticed that the entities object returns entity collections. DBEntities db = new DBEntities(); db.Users; //Users is an ObjectSet<User> User user = db.Users.Where(x => x.Username == "test").First(); //Is this getting executed in the SQL or in memory? user.Posts; //Posts is an EntityCollection<Post> Post post = user.Posts.Where(x => x.PostID == "123").First(); //Is this getting executed in the SQL or in memory? Do both ObjectSet and EntityCollection implement IQueryable? I am hoping they do so that I know the queries are getting executed at the data source and not in memory. EDIT: So apparently EntityCollection does not while ObjectSet does. Does that mean I would be better off using this code? DBEntities db = new DBEntities(); User user = db.Users.Where(x => x.Username == "test").First(); //Is this getting executed in the SQL or in memory? Post post = db.Posts.Where(x => (x.PostID == "123")&&(x.Username == user.Username)).First(); // Querying the object set instead of the entity collection. Also, what is the difference between ObjectSet and EntityCollection? Shouldn't they be the same? Thanks in advance!

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• ASP.NET MVC - ValidationSummary set from a different controller

  - by Rap

  I have a HomeController with an Index action that shows the Index.aspx view. It has a username/password login section. When the user clicks the submit button, it POSTs to a Login action in the AccountController. <% Html.BeginForm("Login", "Account", FormMethod.Post); %> In that action, it tests for Username/Password validity and if invalid, sends the user back to the Login page with a message that the credentials were bad. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginViewModel Model, string ReturnUrl) { User user = MembershipService.ValidateUser(Model.UserName, Model.Password); if (user != null) { //Detail removed here FormsService.SignIn(user.ToString(), Model.RememberMe); return Redirect(ReturnUrl); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("", "The user name or password provided is incorrect."); } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); // <-- Here is the problem. ModelState is lost. } But here's the problem: the ValidationSummary is always blank because we're losing the Model when we RedirectToAction. How do I send the user to the action on a different controller without a Redirect?

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• Ruby-on-Rails: Multiple has_many :through possible?

  - by williamjones

  Is it possible to have multiple has_many :through relationships that pass through each other in Rails? I received the suggestion to do so as a solution for another question I posted, but have been unable to get it to work. Friends are a cyclic association through a join table. The goal is to create a has_many :through for friends_comments, so I can take a User and do something like user.friends_comments to get all comments made by his friends in a single query. class User has_many :friendships has_many :friends, :through => :friendships, :conditions => "status = #{Friendship::FULL}" has_many :comments has_many :friends_comments, :through => :friends, :source => :comments end class Friendship < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :friend, :class_name => "User", :foreign_key => "friend_id" end This looks great, and makes sense, but isn't working for me. This is the error I'm getting in relevant part when I try to access a user's friends_comments: ERROR: column users.user_id does not exist : SELECT "comments".* FROM "comments" INNER JOIN "users" ON "comments".user_id = "users".id WHERE (("users".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) When I just enter user.friends, which works, this is the query it executes: : SELECT "users".* FROM "users" INNER JOIN "friendships" ON "users".id = "friendships".friend_id WHERE (("friendships".user_id = 1) AND ((status = 2))) So it seems like it's entirely forgetting about the original has_many through friendship relationship, and then is inappropriately trying to use the User class as a join table. Am I doing something wrong, or is this simply not possible?

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• Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

  - by Vilx-

  I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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• jQuery: AJAX call isn't updating page

  - by Cortopasta

  Thought I had a simple AJAX call using $.POST(), but apparently my function isn't firing, and nothing is updating :-/ Here is the call: $(".answerVerse ul li").click(function(){ var rank = $(this).removeClass("star_empty star_full star_highlight").attr("class"); var verse_id = $(this).parent().parent().find(".verseId").html(); var answer_id = $(this).parent().parent().find(".answerId").html(); var place = this; $.post("rank.php", { rank: rank, verse_id: verse_id, answer_id: answer_id },function(data){ $(place).parent().removeClass().addClass(data.newVerseRank); for (i=0;i<=5;i++) { $(".answerVerse ul."+i).each(function(){ $(".answerVerse ul."+i+" li."+i).prevAll().andSelf().removeClass("star_empty").addClass("star_full"); }); } }, "json"); }); And here is the PHP (rank.php) that it calls: require_once("dbcon.php"); $user = new user(); $user->updateVerseRank($_POST['verse_id'], $_POST['rank']); $user->getVerse($_POST['verse_id']); $user->getAnswer($_POST['answer_id']; $arr = array ('newVerseRank'=>htmlspecialchars(round($user->verse[3])),'newVerseVotes'=>htmlspecialchars(round($user->verse[4])),'newAnswerRank'=>htmlspecialchars($user->answer[3])); echo json_encode($arr); Why am I not updating the page? I know it's something dumb I'm doing seeing as how this is my first attempt at AJAX and JSON :-/ Just trying to learn

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• Django ManyToMany Membership errors making associations

  - by jmitchel3

  I'm trying to have a "member admin" in which they have hundreds of members in the group. These members can be in several groups. Admins can remove access for the member ideally in the view. I'm having trouble just creating the group. I used a ManytoManyField to get started. Ideally, the "member admin" would be able to either select existing Users OR it would be able to Add/Invite new ones via email address. Here's what I have: #views.py def membership(request): group = Group.objects.all().filter(user=request.user) GroupFormSet = modelformset_factory(Group, form=MembershipForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = GroupFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES, queryset=group) if formset.is_valid(): formset.save(commit=False) for form in formset: form.instance.user = request.user formset.save() return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) else: formset= GroupFormSet(queryset=group) return render_to_response('formset.html', locals(), context_instance=RequestContext(request)) #models.py class Group(models.Model): name = models.CharField(max_length=128) members = models.ManyToManyField(User, related_name='community_members', through='Membership') user = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='community_creator', null=True) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class Membership(models.Model): member = models.ForeignKey(User, related_name='user_membership', blank=True, null=True) group = models.ForeignKey(Group, related_name='community_membership', blank=True, null=True) date_joined = models.DateField(auto_now=True, blank=True, null=True) class Meta: unique_together = ('member', 'group') Any ideas? Thank you for your help.

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• Return value mapping on Stored Procedures in Entity Framework

  - by Yucel

  Hi, I am calling a stored procedure with EntityFramework. But custom property that i set in partial entity class is null. I have Entities in my edmx (I called edmx i dont know what to call for this). For example I have a "User" table in my database and so i have a "User" class on my Entity. I have a stored procedure called GetUserById(@userId) and in this stored procedure i am writing a basic sql statement like below "SELECT * FROM Users WHERE Id=@userId" in my edmx i make a function import to call this stored procedure and set its return value to Entities (also select User from dropdownlist). It works perfectly when i call my stored procedure like below User user = Context.SP_GetUserById(123456); But i add a custom new column to stored procedure to return one more column like below SELECT *, dbo.ConcatRoles(U.Id) AS RolesAsString FROM membership.[User] U WHERE Id = @id Now when i execute it from SSMS new column called RolesAsString appear in result. To work this on entity framework i added a new property called RolesAsString to my User class like below. public partial class User { public string RolesAsString{ get; set; } } But this field isnt filled by stored procedure when i call it. I look to the Mapping Detail windows of my SP_GetUserById there isnt a mapping on this window. I want to add but window is read only i cant map it. I looked to the source of edmx cant find anything about mapping of SP. How can i map this custom field?

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• Inversion of control domain objects construction problem

  - by Andrey

  Hello! As I understand IoC-container is helpful in creation of application-level objects like services and factories. But domain-level objects should be created manually. Spring's manual tells us: "Typically one does not configure fine-grained domain objects in the container, because it is usually the responsibility of DAOs and business logic to create/load domain objects." Well. But what if my domain "fine-grained" object depends on some application-level object. For example I have an UserViewer(User user, UserConstants constants) class. There user is domain object which cannot be injected, but UserViewer also needs UserConstants which is high-level object injected by IoC-container. I want to inject UserConstants from the IoC-container, but I also need a transient runtime parameter User here. What is wrong with the design? Thanks in advance! UPDATE It seems I was not precise enough with my question. What I really need is an example how to do this: create instance of class UserViewer(User user, UserService service), where user is passed as the parameter and service is injected from IoC. If I inject UserViewer viewer then how do I pass user to it? If I create UserViewer viewer manually then how do I pass service to it?

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• Encrypting XML Element

  - by Kanta

  I have created XML file called users.xml Looks like this: <Users> <user> <uin>"0012345"</uin> <name>black</name> <email>"[email protected]"</email> <created>"3/02/2010"</created> </user> <user> <uin>"123456780"</uin> <name>sam</name> <email>"[email protected]"</email> <created>"3/02/2010"</created> </user> <user> <uin>"123456799"</uin> <name>kblack</name> <email>"[email protected]"</email> <created>"3/02/2010"</created> </user> </Users> I want to encrypt the element. Using code like XmlElement uinelement = (XmlElement)xmldoc.SelectSingleNode("Users/user/uin"); ...encrypts only first UIN from the user.xml file. How can I Encrypt all UIN elements? Thank you Kanta

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• return Queryable<T> or List<T> in a Repository<T>

  - by Danny Chen

  Currently I'm building an windows application using sqlite. In the data base there is a table say User, and in my code there is a Repository<User> and a UserManager. I think it's a very common design. In the repository there is a List method: //Repository<User> class public List<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } This brings a problem, if I want to do something complex in UserManager.cs: //UserManager.cs public List<User> ListUsersWithBankAccounts() { var userRep = new UserRepository(); var bankRep = new BankAccountRepository(); var result = //do something complex, say "I want the users live in NY //and have at least two bank accounts in the system } You can see, returning List<User> brings performance issue, becuase the query is executed earlier than expected. Now I need to change it to something like a IQueryable<T>: //Repository<User> class public TableQuery<User> List(where, orderby, topN parameters and etc) { //query and return } TableQuery<T> is part of the sqlite driver, which is almost equals to IQueryable<T> in EF, which provides a query and won't execute it immediately. But now the problem is: in UserManager.cs, it doesn't know what is a TableQuery<T>, I need to add new reference and import namespaces like using SQLite.Query in the business layer project. It really brings bad code feeling. Why should my business layer know the details of the database? why should the business layer know what's SQLite? What's the correct design then?

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• Issue with the Entity Manager and phpunit in Symfony 2

  - by rgazelot

  I have an issue with my Entity Manager in phpunit. This is my test : public function testValidChangeEmail() { $client = self::createAuthClient('user','password'); $crawler = $client->request('GET', '/user/edit/30'); $crawler = $client->submit($crawler->selectButton('submit')->form(array( 'form[email]' => '[email protected]', ))); /* * With this em, this work perfectly * $em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); */ $user = self::$em->getRepository('MyBundle:User')->findUser('[email protected]'); die(var_dump($user->getEmail())); } and this is my WebTestCase which extends original WebTestCase : class WebTestCase extends BaseWebTestCase { static protected $container; static protected $em; static protected function createClient(array $options = array(), array $server = array()) { $client = parent::createClient($options, $server); self::$em = $client->getContainer()->get('doctrine.orm.entity_manager'); self::$container = $client->getContainer(); return $client; } protected function createAuthClient($user, $pass) { return self::createClient(array(), array( 'PHP_AUTH_USER' => $user, 'PHP_AUTH_PW' => $pass, )); } As you can see, I replace the self::$em when I created my client. My issue : In my test, the die() give me the old email and not the new email ([email protected]) which has registered in the test. However in my database, I have the [email protected] correctly saved. When I retrieve my user in the database, I use sefl::$em. If I use the $em in comments, I retrieve the right new email. I don't understand why in my WebTestCase, I can access to the new Entity Manager...

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• Many tables for many users?

  - by Seagull

  I am new to web programming, so excuse the ignorance... ;-) I have a web application that in many ways can be considered to be a multi-tenant environment. By this I mean that each user of the application gets their own 'custom' environment, with absolutely no interaction between those users. So far I have built the web application as a 'single user' environment. In other words, I haven't actually done anything to support multi-users, but only worked on the functionality I want from the app. Here is my problem... What's the best way to build a multi-user environment: All users point to the same 'core' backend. In other words, I build the logic to separate users via appropriate SQL queries (eg. select * from table where user='123' and attribute='456'). Each user points to a unique tablespace, which is built separately as they join the system. In this case I would simply generate ALL the relevant SQL tables per user, with some sort of suffix for the user. (eg. now a query would look like 'select * from table_ where attribute ='456'). In short, it's a difference between "select * from table where USER=" and "select * from table_USER".

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• Having troubles inheriting base class

  - by Nick

  When I inherit the base class, it's telling me there is no such class This is enhanced.h: class enhanced: public changeDispenser // <--------where error is occuring { public: void changeStatus(); // Function: Lets the user know how much of each coin is in the machine enhanced(int); // Constructor // Sets the Dollar amount to what the User wants void changeLoad(int); // Function: Loads what change the user requests into the Coin Machine int dispenseChange(int); // Function: Takes the users amount of cents requests and dispenses it to the user private: int dollar; }; This is enhanced.cpp: #include "enhanced.h" #include <iostream> using namespace std; enhanced::enhanced(int dol) { dollar = dol; } void enhanced::changeStatus() { cout << dollar << " dollars, "; changeDispenser::changeStatus(); } void enhanced::changeLoad(int d) { dollar = dollar + d; //changeDispenser::changeLoad; } This is changeDispenser.h: class changeDispenser { public: void changeStatus(); // Function: Lets the user know how much of each coin is in the machine changeDispenser(int, int, int, int); // Constructor // Sets the Quarters, Dimes, Nickels, and Pennies to what the User wants void changeLoad(int, int, int, int); // Function: Loads what change the user requests into the Coin Machine int dispenseChange(int); // Function: Takes the users amount of cents requests and dispenses it to the user private: int quarter; int dime; int nickel; int penny; }; I didn't include the driver file or the changeDispenser imp file, but in the driver, these are included #include "changeDispenser.h" #include "enhanced.h"

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• sending specific data into a collection partial

  - by mikeglaz

  I have a User class with a has_many :messages and a Message class which belongs_to :user. In the Message controller's show action has the corresponding view: <% if @messages.any? %> <ol class="microposts"> <%= render partial: 'shared/message', collection: @messages %> </ol> <% end %> And the shared/_message.html.erb template looks like this: <li id="<%= message.id %>"> <span class="content"><%= message.body %></span> <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> From: <%= user.name %> </li> I feel like the following two lines should be done in the Messages controller from what I read in tutorials on Rails: <% user_id = message.from %> <% user = User.find(user_id) %> But how would I pass each message's corresponding from value (which stores user.id) into the partial? thanks, mike

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• Get current node's local-name in XSL

  - by green67

  Here's the structure of my XML <FileRoot> <UserSet1> <User> <FirstName></FirstName> <LastName></LastName> </User> <User> <FirstName></FirstName> <LastName></LastName> </User> ... </UserSet1> <InactiveUsers> <User> <FirstName></FirstName> <LastName></LastName> </User> <User> <FirstName></FirstName> <LastName></LastName> </User> ... </InactiveUsers> </FileRoot> In my XSL template <xsl:template match="/*/*"> <File> <xsl attribute name="Name"> <xsl:value-of select="local-name(/*/*)"/> </xsl:attribute> </File> </xsl> After transforming, for both UserSet1 and InactiveUsers, gave me "UserSet1". The expected results should be "UserSet1" for UserSet1, and "InactiveUsers" for InactiveUsers. How do I correctly retrieve the value? Thanks

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• global variables doesn't change value in Javascript

  - by user1856906

  My project is composed by 2 html pages: 1)index.html, wich contains the login and the registration form. 2)user_logged.html, wich contains all the features of a logged user. Now, what I want to do is a control if the user is really logged, to avoid the case where a user paste a url in the browser and can see the pages of another user. hours as now, if a user paste this url in the browser: www.user_loggato.html?user=x#profile is as if logged in as user x and this is not nice. My html pages both use js files that contains scripts. I decided to create a global variable called logged inizialized to false and change the variable to true when the login is succesfull. The problem is that the variable, remains false. here is the code: var logged=false; (write in the file a.js) while in the file b.js I have: function login() { //if succesfull logged=true; window.location.href = "user_loggato.html?user="+ JSON.parse(str).username + #profilo"; Now with some alerts I found that my variable logged is always false. Why? if I have not explained well or if there is not some information in order to respond to my question let me know.

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• CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

  - by PaulJ

  I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

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• How to enforce jsf to create new instance of bean instead of throwing NullPointerException?

  - by Roman

  I'm almost sure that I do something wrong and thus the question's title is a bit incorrect. I have a form with several fields for creating a new User-objects (fields like login, password, birthday etc). And I have 2 buttons - Cancel and Create. I didn't finish Create yet :) , but when I press Cancel I see NullPointerException. Here is simplified code: <f:view> <h:form> <h:panelGroup layout="block"> <h:inputText id="add_login" value="#{userSupport.user.login}"/> <h:inputSecret id="add_password" value="#{userSupport.user.password}"/> <h:inputText id="add_name" value="#{userSupport.user.name}"/> <h:inputText id="add_surname" value="#{userSupport.user.surname}"/> <h:commandButton value="Cancel" action="cancel"/> </h:panelGroup> </h:form> </f:view> UserSupport class has field user with getter and setter and some other methods. It's a Spring bean with Session scope. When I press cancel, I see NPE because jsf tries to save values from inputs in user-object, but user-object is null. What is the correct way of doing this?

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• Add new element in existing object

  - by user3094292

  I am using node.js. I have to add new elements in the object before to send a response to client. user.getMatch(req.user, function(err, match){ for( k=0; k<match.length; k++){ var userId = { id : match[k].match_id }; var user = new User(userId); console.log('k: ' + k); user.getUserInfo(function(err2, info){ console.log('k here: ' + k); if(info){ match[k].foo = info[0].foo; } }); } var response = { data : match }; res.json(response); }); I want to add an element "foo" from user.getUserInfo to the object "match" that was returned by user.getMatch. And then send all the data as response to the client. But it got an error because "k" inside of user.getUserInfo is not equal to the "k" outside. I do not know why the both "k" are not equal. And how will I send a response to the client after performing the loop. Thanks for your help!

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• IIS 7.5 Basic authorization issue

  - by Alsin

  When I log on using correct user name\password (I always copy-paste them) I get 401.1 error. User name and password are correct (user is created on server locally, not a domain one). I can run program as this user (runas /noprofile /user:tmp notepad.exe). Basic authorization's default domain is a server name, realm is empty. I've saved FailedReqLogFile. AUTH_BASIC_LOGON_FAILED shows ErrorCode="Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. (0x8007052e)" and MODULE_SET_RESPONSE_ERROR_STATUS shows ModuleName="BasicAuthenticationModule", Notification="AUTHENTICATE_REQUEST", HttpStatus="401", HttpReason="Unauthorized", HttpSubStatus="1", ErrorCode="Logon failure: unknown user name or bad password. (0x8007052e)", ConfigExceptionInfo="" And one more thing - if I use my domain login\password it woks! Basic Authentications is only enabled authentication in application... Could you please suggest me how I can troubleshoot and fix this issue? Maybe somebody hit it before... Best regards, Alex UPDATE: I get 401.1 when I trying to access site from local host. I can actually access files from remote host.

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• Windows Authentication behaves oddly when VPN'd

  - by Dan F

  Hi all We've got a few apps that rely on windows authentication - a couple of web apps with AD auth turned on and we usually connect to our SQL servers with windows auth. This normally runs without a hitch. It doesn't work so well if we're VPN'd to a client site though. SSMS Opening SSMS normally from the start menu, then picking a server that normally accepts windows auth, results in a message saying: Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication. (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) If I drop to a command prompt and use runas /user:domain\user to launch SSMS I can successfully windows auth to our SQL server instances with that ssms process. If I look in task manager, both copies of ssms.exe (start menu vs runas) have the same user, and I can see no discernible differences between the processes in procexp. AD Auth websites If I open IE and browse to any of our websites that require an authenticated windows user, I get the "who are you" prompt, and that dialog thinks I'm whoever the VPN user is. I can click "Use another account" and authenticate that way though. Outlook Even Outlook prompts for a username when we are VPN'd! It's affecting our Win7 and Vista machines. It's been a while since we had an XP box, but I don't recall having this issue on XP for what it's worth. The VPN connections are just using the built in windows VPN connections, they're not fancy cisco VPNs or anything of that nature. Does anyone know how to tell windows that I'd like to be my normal old primary domain user rather than the VPN user when authenticating to resources in our domain? Heck, I'd be happy with a solution that prompted me with the "who are you" if I was trying to access windows auth requiring resources on the client's VPN. Thanks! Apologies if this is more a superuser question, I wasn't sure which site it best suited. It's about networking and infrastructure and plagues all of our developers here, so I hope it's a serverfault Q.

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