Search Results

Search found 11784 results on 472 pages for 'move assignment'.

Page 399/472 | < Previous Page | 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406  | Next Page >

• Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

  - by Wilhelm Murdoch

  Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

  Read the article

• Strategy game programming in Java, how the map and unit classes should work/relate each other.

  - by Gabriel A. Zorrilla

  As a way of learning Java i'm doing a little strategy game. You have a game map and military units. The gamemap and the units are Jpanels which are binded together in another class called GameWindow, which has a JLayeredPane where the gamepap is below the units. Every time i click a unit (and therefore, the JPane) I can get the unit's information. The problem comes when i want to move a unit... each unit is self drawn inside it's Jpanel, how do i represent the change in position over the gamemap? I'm thinking about reloading the whole game window based on a position change of a unit (because the JPAnels that represent the units are created in the GameWindow, not drawn in the gamemap). Another more elegant option, should be repainting the whole map, with the units. But that way the units would lose it's status of objects (no more JPAnels, just being drawn in the gamemap paint() method), and how would i tell if one unit is clicked? I dont know how people with more experience in games handle the class structure in strategy games. I believe i have the right structure (map, game units, each one an object) but I'm having difficulties making it work together. Here is a snapshot of the map with a couple of units:

  Read the article

• Calculating distance from latitude, longitude and height using a geocentric co-ordinate system

  - by Sarge

  I've implemented this method in Javascript and I'm roughly 2.5% out and I'd like to understand why. My input data is an array of points represented as latitude, longitude and the height above the WGS84 ellipsoid. These points are taken from data collected from a wrist-mounted GPS device during a marathon race. My algorithm was to convert each point to cartesian geocentric co-ordinates and then compute the Euclidean distance (c.f Pythagoras). Cartesian geocentric is also known as Earth Centred Earth Fixed. i.e. it's an X, Y, Z co-ordinate system which rotates with the earth. My test data was the data from a marathon and so the distance should be very close to 42.26km. However, the distance comes to about 43.4km. I've tried various approaches and nothing changes the result by more than a metre. e.g. I replaced the height data with data from the NASA SRTM mission, I've set the height to zero, etc. Using Google, I found two points in the literature where lat, lon, height had been transformed and my transformation algorithm is matching. What could explain this? Am I expecting too much from Javascript's double representation? (The X, Y, Z numbers are very big but the differences between two points is very small). My alternative is to move to computing the geodesic across the WGS84 ellipsoid using Vincenty's algorithm (or similar) and then calculating the Euclidean distance with the two heights but this seems inaccurate. Thanks in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• Can I get rid of this read lock?

  - by Pieter

  I have the following helper class (simplified): public static class Cache { private static readonly object _syncRoot = new object(); private static Dictionary<Type, string> _lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(); public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.Add(type, value); } } public static string Lookup(Type type) { string result; lock (_syncRoot) { _lookup.TryGetValue(type, out result); } return result; } } Add will be called roughly 10/100 times in the application and Lookup will be called by many threads, many of thousands of times. What I would like is to get rid of the read lock. How do you normally get rid of the read lock in this situation? I have the following ideas: Require that _lookup is stable before the application starts operation. The could be build up from an Attribute. This is done automatically through the static constructor the attribute is assigned to. Requiring the above would require me to go through all types that could have the attribute and calling RuntimeHelpers.RunClassConstructor which is an expensive operation; Move to COW semantics. public static void Add(Type type, string value) { lock (_syncRoot) { var lookup = new Dictionary<Type, string>(_lookup); lookup.Add(type, value); _lookup = lookup; } } (With the lock (_syncRoot) removed in the Lookup method.) The problem with this is that this uses an unnecessary amount of memory (which might not be a problem) and I would probably make _lookup volatile, but I'm not sure how this should be applied. (John Skeets' comment here gives me pause.) Using ReaderWriterLock. I believe this would make things worse since the region being locked is small. Suggestions are very welcome.

  Read the article

• reload parent from within iframe

  - by Lauren

  I can't seem to reload the parent page from within an iframe... I've looked around at similar questions' answers but nothing has worked so far. The iframe I'm working with is here http://www.avaline.com/ R3000_3 once you log in, then hit the "order sample" button, and then hit "here" where it says "Your Third Party Shipper Numbers (To enter one, click here.)". I tried using javascript statements window.top.location.reload(),window.parent.location.reload(),window.parent.location.href=window.parent.location.href but none of those worked in FF 3.6 so I didn't move on to the other browsers although I am shooting for a cross-browser solution. I put the one-line javascript statements inside setTimeout("statement",2000) so people could read the content of the iframe (You have updated your shipper number(s). The page should refresh automatically. If not, please refresh and return to "order sample.") before the redirect happens, but that shouldn't affect the execution of the statements... I wish I could test and debug the statements with the Firebug console from within the Iframe but there doesn't seem to be any great way to test this out.

  Read the article

• svn+apache per directory access control: weird permissions issue (403 Forbidden error)

  - by gveda

  Hi, I had a perfectly working svn+apache install where I was using per directory access control to restrict access to various parts of the repository. In particular, no one had access to the top level in the repository [/]. People had access to folders like [/www] etc. I was specifying these permissions in a file (svn-access-file). I had to move to a new machine. So I installed subversion-1.6.3 and httpd-2.2.11 on it, and modified the conf file to mimic the conf file on the old machine (and I copied the svn-access-file and the svn-auth-file). Then I took an svn dump and did a load to put stuff back in the new repository. Now I can check stuff out, modify stuff, and commit. However, as soon as I try to do an 'svn up' on an already checked out copy of some sub-folder [/www/people], I get the following error: svn: Server sent unexpected return value (403 Forbidden) in response to OPTIONS request for 'https://[servername]/svn' It seems the problem is that it is trying to access the top level directory [/] even though really it should only be trying to access [/www]. If I temporarily give the user access to [/], it works. Can someone please tell me how to fix this? Everything worked on the old machine. Thanks! Gaurav

  Read the article

• Hibernate: Querying objects by attributes of inherited classes

  - by MichaelD

  Hi all, I ran into a problem with Hibernate concerning queries on classes which use inheritance. Basically I've the following class hierarchy: @Entity @Table( name = "recording" ) class Recording { ClassA attributeSet; ... } @Entity @Inheritance( strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED ) @Table( name = "classA" ) public class ClassA { String Id; ... } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB1" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB1 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P2000; } @Entity @Table( name = "ClassB2" ) @PrimaryKeyJoinColumn( name = "Id" ) public class ClassB2 extends ClassA { private Double P1300; private Double P3000; } The hierarchy is already given like this and I cannot change it easily. As you can see ClassB1 and ClassB2 inherit from ClassA. Both classes contain a set of attributes which sometimes even have the same names (but I can't move them to ClassA since there are possible more sub-classes which do not use them). The Recording class references one instance of one of this classes. Now my question: What I want to do is selecting all Recording objects in my database which refer to an instance of either ClassB1 or ClassB2 with e.g. the field P1300 == 15.5 (so this could be ClassB1 or ClassB2 instances since the P1300 attribute is declared in both classes). What I tried is something like this: Criteria criteria = session.createCriteria(Recording.class); criteria.add( Restrictions.eq( "attributeSet.P1300", new Double(15.5) ) ); criteria.list(); But since P1300 is not an attribute of ClassA hibernate throws an exception telling me: could not resolve property: P1300 of: ClassA How can I tell hibernate that it should search in all subclasses to find the attribute I want to filter? Thanks MichaelD

  Read the article

• invasive vs non-invasive ref-counted pointers in C++

  - by anon

  For the past few years, I've generally accepted that if I am going to use ref-counted smart pointers invasive smart pointers is the way to go -- However, I'm starting to like non-invasive smart pointers due to the following: I only use smart pointers (so no Foo* lying around, only Ptr) I'm starting to build custom allocators for each class. (So Foo would overload operator new). Now, if Foo has a list of all Ptr (as it easily can with non-invasive smart pointers). Then, I can avoid memory fragmentation issues since class Foo move the objects around (and just update the corresponding Ptr). The only reason why this Foo moving objects around in non-invasive smart pointers being easier than invasive smart pointers is: In non-invasive smart pointers, there is only one pointer that points to each Foo. In invasive smart pointers, I have no idea how many objects point to each Foo. Now, the only cost of non-invasive smart pointers ... is the double indirection. [Perhaps this screws up the caches]. Does anyone have a good study of expensive this extra layer of indirection is?

  Read the article

• Convert date to string upon saving a doctrine record

  - by takteek

  Hi, I'm trying to migrate one of my PHP projects to Doctrine. I've never used it before so there are a few things I don't understand. In my current code, I have a class similar to this: class ScheduleItem { private Date start; //A PEAR Date object. private Date end; public function getStart() { return $this-start; } public function setStart($val) { $this-start = $val; } public function getEnd() { return $this-end; } public function setEnd($val) { $this-end= $val; } } I have a ScheduleItemDAO class with methods like save(), getByID(), etc. When loading from and saving to the database, the DAO class converts the Date objects to and from strings so they can be stored in a timestamp field. In my attempt to move to Doctrine, I created a new class like this: class ScheduleItem extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this-hasColumn('start', 'timestamp'); $this-hasColumn('end', 'timestamp'); } } I had hoped I would be able to use Date objects for the start and end times, and have them converted to strings when they are saved to the database. How can I accomplish this?

  Read the article

• .NET consumer of ActiveX throwing TargetParameterCountException

  - by DevSolo

  I have a .NET (3.5 w/ Dev Studio 2008) app that hosts a visual Active X (written in C++ w/ Dev Studio 2003). Have access to all sources, but can't easily move the Active X control up to 2008. This as worked fine in the past. Made some changes to the Active X control and now, when calling one method on the Active X, I'm getting a TargetParameterCountException 100% of the time. The signature of the Active X method is: LONG CMyActive::License(LPCTSTR string1, LPCTSTR string2, LONG long1, LPCTSTR string3, LPCTSTR string4); When viewing the method in object browser of reflector, .NET sees it as: public virtual int License(string string1, string string2, int long1, string string3, string string4) I renamed the parameters for demonstration purpose (boss gets twitchy about any code). I left the method name, as it could be relevant. There are method calls prior that work. I just can't seen to figure out why I'm all of a sudden getting this exception. The HRESULT is 0x8002000e and a quick search seems to indicate that's a general one. Thanks to all for reading.

  Read the article

• Component based web project directory layout with git and symlinks

  - by karlthorwald

  I am planning my directory structure for a linux/apache/php web project like this: Only www.example.com/webroot/ will be exposed in apache www.example.com/ webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp2/ component/ comp1/ comp1.class.php comp1.js comp2/ comp2.class.php comp2.css lib/ lib1/ lib1.class.php the component/ and lib/ directory will only be in the php path. To make the css and js files visible in the webroot directory I am planning to use symlinks. webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp1.js (symlinked) comp2/ comp2.css (symlinked) I tried following these principles: layout by components and libraries, not by file type and not by "public' or 'non public', index.php is an exception. This is for easier development. symlinking files that need to be public for the components and libs to a public location, but still mirroring the layout. So the component and library structure is also visible in the resulting html code in the links, which might help development. git usage should be safe and always work. it would be ok to follow some procedure to add a symlink to git, but after that checking them out or changing branches should be handled safely and clean How will git handle the symlinking of the single files correctly, is there something to consider? When it comes to images I will need to link directories, how to handle that with git? component/ comp3/ comp3.class.php img/ img1.jpg img2.jpg img3.jpg They should be linked here: webroot/ comp3/ img/ (symlinked ?) If using symlinks for that has disadvantages maybe I could move images to the webroot/ tree directly, which would break the first principle for the third (git practicability). So this is a git and symlink question. But I would be interested to hear comments about the php layout, maybe you want to use the comment function for this.

  Read the article

• Events and references pattern

  - by serhio

  In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

  Read the article

• How Do I Escape Apostrophes in Field Valued in SQL Server?

  - by Mikecancook

  I asked a question a couple days ago about creating INSERTs by running a SELECT to move data to another server. That worked great until I ran into a table that has full on HTML and apostrophes in it. What's the best way to deal with this? Lucking there aren't too many rows so it is feasible as a last resort to 'copy and paste'. But, eventually I will need to do this and the table by that time will probably be way too big to copy and paste these HTML fields. This is what I have now: select 'Insert into userwidget ([Type],[UserName],[Title],[Description],[Data],[HtmlOutput],[DisplayOrder],[RealTime],[SubDisplayOrder]) VALUES (' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Type)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Username)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Title)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Description)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),Data)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),HTMLOutput)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),DisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),RealTime)+'''','NULL') + ',' + ISNULL('N'''+Convert(varchar(8000),SubDisplayOrder)+'''','NULL') + ')' from userwidget Which is works fine except those pesky apostrophes in the HTMLOutput field. Can I escape them by having the query double up on the apostrophes or is there a way of encoding the field result so it won't matter?

  Read the article

• 3D Animation Rotating and Translating simultaneously in WPF

  - by sklitzz

  Hi, I have ModelVisual3D of a cube. I want to translate and rotate it at the same time. I wish the center of rotation to be in the middle of the cube(the cube rotates around its own axis). But when I try to do this applying both transformations the effect is not what you would expect. Since the object is translating the center of rotation is different thus making it move and rotate in a strange way. How do I get the desired effect? Transform3DGroup transGroup = new Transform3DGroup(); DoubleAnimation cardAnimation = new DoubleAnimation(); cardAnimation.From = 0; cardAnimation.To = 3; cardAnimation.Duration = new Duration(TimeSpan.FromSeconds(2)); Transform3D transform = new TranslateTransform3D(0,0,0); transGroup.Children.Add(transform); RotateTransform3D rotateTransform = new RotateTransform3D(); AxisAngleRotation3D rotateAxis = new AxisAngleRotation3D(new Vector3D(0, 1, 0), 180); Rotation3DAnimation rotateAnimation = new Rotation3DAnimation(rotateAxis, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(2)); rotateAnimation.DecelerationRatio = 0.8; transGroup.Children.Add(rotateTransform); Model.Transform = transGroup; transform.BeginAnimation(TranslateTransform3D.OffsetXProperty, cardAnimation); rotateTransform.BeginAnimation(RotateTransform3D.RotationProperty, rotateAnimation);

  Read the article

• iPhone TabbarController Switch Transition

  - by user269737

  I've implemented gestures (touchBegan-moved-ended) in order to allow for swiping through my tabs. It works. I'd like to add a slide-from-left and slide-from-right transition. It would be better if it could be part of the gesture if statement which tells me if the swipe is towards the right of left. Since I determine which tab is displayed from that, I could show that specific transition along with the new tab. So my question is this: what's the simplest way to simplement a slide transition at a specific instance. I don't want it to be for the whole tabbarcontrol since this is specifically for the swiping. Thanks for the help, much appreciated. For clarification purposes, this is snippet shows how I'm switching tabs: if(abs(diffx / diffy) > 2.5 && abs(diffx) > HORIZ_SWIPE_DRAG_MIN) { // It appears to be a swipe. if(isProcessingListMove) { // ignore move, we're currently processing the swipe return; } if (mystartTouchPosition.x < currentTouchPosition.x) { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:0]; return; } else { isProcessingListMove = YES; self.tabBarController.selectedViewController = [self.tabBarController.viewControllers objectAtIndex:1 ]; return; }

  Read the article

• Put together tiles in android sdk and use as background

  - by Jon

  In a feeble attempt to learn some Android development am I stuck at graphics. My aim here is pretty simple: Take n small images and build a random image, larger than the screen with possibility to scroll around. Have an animated object move around on it I have looked at the SDK examples, Lunar Lander especially but there are a few things I utterly fail to wrap my head around. I've got a birds view plan (which in my head seems reasonably sane): How do I merge the tiles into one large image? The background is static so I figure I should do like this: Make a 2d array with refs to the tiles Make a large Drawable and draw the tiles on it At init draw this big image as the background At each onDraw redraw the background of the previous spot of the moving object, and the moving object at its new location The problem is the hands on things. I load the small images with "Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1)", but then what? Should I make a canvas and draw the images on it with "canvas.drawBitmap (img1, x, y, null);"? If so how to get a Drawable/Bitmap from that? I'm totally lost here, and would really appreciate some hands on help (I would of course be grateful for general hints as well, but I'm primarily trying to understand the Graphics objects). To make you, dear reader, see my level of confusion will I add my last desperate try: Drawable drawable; Canvas canvas = new Canvas (); Bitmap img1 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img1); // 50 x 100 px image Bitmap img2 = BitmapFactory.decodeResource (res, R.drawable.img2); // 50 x 100 px image canvas.drawBitmap (img1, 0, 0, null); canvas.drawBitmap (img2, 50, 0, null); drawable.draw (canvas); // obviously wrong as draw == null this.setBackground (drawable); Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• SharePoint: Filtering a List that has Folders

  - by Gary McGill

  I have a SharePoint document library that has a folder structure used for organizing the documents (but also for controlling access, via permissions on the folders). The documents in the library are updated every month, and we store every month's version of the document in the same folder; there's a "month" column used for filtering that will contain values like Jan 09, Feb 09, etc. It looks like this: Title Month ----- ----- SubFolder 1 SubFolder 2 [] Interesting Facts Jan 09 [] Interesting Facts Feb 09 [] Interesting Facts Mar 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Jan 09 [] Fascinating Numbers Feb 09 ... Now, because users will generally be most interested in the 'current' month, I'd like them to be able to apply a filter, and select (say) Mar 09. However, if they do this using the built-in filtering, it also filters out the folders, and they can no longer navigate the folder hierarchy. This is no good - I want them to be able to move between folders with the filter intact, so that they don't need to keep switching it off and on again. I figured I might be able to use a custom view (selecting where type=folder or month=[month]), and to an extent that does work. However, I can only get it to work for a fixed month, whereas I need the user to be able to select the month - perhaps via a drop-down control on the page (and I don't want to create 60 views for 5 years' worth of months, nor do I want to have to create a new view every month). I thought it might be possible to create a view in code (rather than via the UI), but I've not been able to figure out how to get a dynamic value (a user-specific setting) into the CAML query. Any pointers gratefully appreciated! And by the way, I am aware of the dogma that folders are bad, and that everything should just be a list. However, having considered the alternatives, I still favour using folders - if I can solve this problem. Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

  - by David Stratton

  I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

  Read the article

• Syncing magento database froms development to production

  - by ringerce

  I use git for version control. I have a development, staging and production environment. When I finish in development I push to staging for review by the client. When approved, I push changes from staging to production. That works fine as long as there is no database changes. What happens if I install modules via Magento connect on local development and it makes database modifications. How would I push those changes up to the production server since the production server is always changing? Edit: I wrote two shell scripts. One that pulls the production database down to my development server, replaces base url with develpment url and updates my development db accordingly. It also leaves the production sql dump behind to be added to my git repo. I'm not really sure if it's beneficial to keep the raw dumps in source control but I'm going to try it out. The second scripts moves the development database up to staging and essentially performs the same operations as the first. Now when it comes time to move to production I pull the updated production repo into the production server and allow magento to do it's thing. I also started using SQLYog recently and it has a database comparison wizard which will give me the differences in my development and production databases and allow me to merge the changes in selectively. It always creates a migration script that I added to source control as well. If anything goes wrong I can run the comparison to see if anything was missed. Does this sounds like a decent workflow to you guys?

  Read the article

• WPF/MVVM - keep ViewModels in application component or separate?

  - by Anders Juul

  Hi all, I have a WPF application where I'm using the MVVM pattern. I get the VM activated for actions that require user input and thus need to activate views from the VM. I've started out separating the VMs into a separate component/assembly, partly because I see them as the unit testable part, partly because views should rely on VM, not the other way round. But when I then need to bring up a window, the window is not known by the VM. All introductions I find place the VM in the WPF/App component, thus eliminating the problem. This article recommends keeping them in separate layers : http://waf.codeplex.com/wikipage?title=Architecture%20-%20Get%20The%20Big%20Picture&referringTitle=Home As I see it, I have the following choices Move VMs to the WPF/App assembly to allow VMs to access the windows directly. Place interfaces of views in VM-assembly, implement views in WPF/App assembly and register the connection through IOC or alternative ways. File a 'request' from the VM into some mechanism/bus that routes the request (but which mechanism!? E.g something in Prism?!) What's the recommendation? Thanks for any comments, Anders, Denmark

  Read the article

• Why doesn't my test run tearDownAfterTestClass when it fails

  - by Memor-X

  in a test i am writing the setUpBeforeTests creates a new customer in the database who is then used to perform the tests with so naturally when i finish the test i should get rid of this test customer in tearDownAfterTestClass so that i can create then anew when i rerun the test and not get any false positives how when the tests all run fine i have no problem but if a test fails and i go to rerun it my setUpBeforeTests fails because i check for mysql errors in it like this try { if(!mysqli_query($connection,$query)) { $this->assertTrue(false); } } catch (Exception $exc) { $msg = '[tearDownAfterTestClass] Exception Error' . PHP_EOL . PHP_EOL; $msg .= 'Could not run query - '.mysqli_error($connection). PHP_EOL;; $this->fail($msg); } the error i get is that there is a primary key violation which is expected cause i'm trying to create a new customer using the same data (primary key is on email which is also used to log in) however that means when the test failed it didn't run tearDownAfterTestClass now i could just move everything in tearDownAfterTestClass to the start of setUpBeforeTests however to me that seems like bad programming since it defeates the purpose of even have tearDownAfterTestClass so i am wondering, why isn't my tearDownAfterTestClass running when a test fails NOTE: the database is a fundamental part of the system i'm testing and the database and system are on a separate development environment not the live one, the backup files for the database are almost 2 GBs and takes almost 1/2 an hour to restore, the purpose of the tear down is to remove any data we have added because of the test so that we don't have to restore the database every time we run the tests

  Read the article

• [Delphi] How would you refactor this code?

  - by Al C

  This hypothetical example illustrates several problems I can't seem to get past, even though I keep trying!! ... Suppose the original code is a long event handler, coded in the UI, triggered when a user clicks a cell in a grid. Expressed as pseudocode it's: if Condition1=true then begin //loop through every cell in row, //if aCell/headerCellValue>1 then //color aCell red end else if Condition2=true then begin //do some other calculation adding cell and headerCell values, and //if some other product>2 then //color the whole row green end else show an error message I look at this and say "Ah, refactor to the strategy pattern! The code will be easier to understand, easier to debug, and easier to later extend!" I get that. And I can easily break the code into multiple procedures. The problem is ultimately scope related. Assume the pseudocode makes extensive use of grid properties, values displayed in cells, maybe even built-in grid methods. How do you move all that to another unit, without referencing the grid component in the UI--which would break all the "rules" about loose coupling that make OOP valuable? ... I'm really looking forward to responses. Thanks, as always -- Al C.

  Read the article

• document.write Not working when loading external Javascript source

  - by jadent

  I'm trying to load an external JavaScript file dynamically into an HTML element to preview an ad tag. The script loads and executes but the script contains "document.write" which has an issue executing properly but there are no errors. <html> <head> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/2.0.3/jquery.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { source = 'http://ib.adnxs.com/ttj?id=555281'; // DOM Insert Approach // ----------------------------------- var script = document.createElement('script'); script.setAttribute('type', 'text/javascript'); script.setAttribute('src', source); document.body.appendChild(script); }); </script> </head> <body> </body> </html> I can get it to work if If i move the the source to the same domain for testing If the script was modified to use document.createElement and appendChild instead of document.write like the code above. I don't have the ability to modify the script since it being generated and hosted by a 3rd party. Does anyone know why the document.write will not work correctly? And is there a way to get around this? Thanks for the help!

  Read the article

• Vim: yank and replace -- the same yanked input -- multiple times, and two other questions

  - by Hassan Syed

  Now that I am using vim for everything I type, rather then just for configuring servers, I wan't to sort out the following trivialities. I tried to formulate Google search queries but the results didn't address my questions :D. Question one: How do I yank and replace multiple times ? Once I have something in the yank history (if that is what its called) and then highlight and use the 'p' char in command mode the replaced text is put at the front of the yank history; therefore subsequent replace operations do not use the the text I intended. I imagine this to be a usefull feature under certain circumstances but I do not have a need for it in my workflow. Question two: How do I type text without causing the line to ripple forward ? I use hard-tab stops to allign my code in a certain way -- e.g., FunctionNameX ( lala * land ); FunctionNameProto ( ); When I figure out what needs to go into the second function, how do I insert it without move the text up ? Question three Is there a way of having a uniform yank history across gvim instances on the same machine ? I have 1 monitors. Just wondering, atm I am using highlight + mouse middle click.

  Read the article

• Postgres error with Sinatra/Haml/DataMapper on Heroku

  - by sevennineteen

  I'm trying to move a simple Sinatra app over to Heroku. Migration of the Ruby app code and existing MySQL database using Taps went smoothly, but I'm getting the following Postgres error: PostgresError - ERROR: operator does not exist: text = integer LINE 1: ...d_at", "post_id" FROM "comments" WHERE ("post_id" IN (4, 17,... ^ HINT: No operator matches the given name and argument type(s). You might need to add explicit type casts. It's evident that the problem is related to a type mismatch in the query, but this is being issued from a Haml template by the DataMapper ORM at a very high level of abstraction, so I'm not sure how I'd go about controlling this... Specifically, this seems to be throwing up on a call of p.comments from my Haml template, where p represents a given post. The Datamapper models are related as follows: class Post property :id, Serial ... has n, :comments end class Comment property :id, Serial ... belongs_to :post end This works fine on my local and current hosted environment using MySQL, but Postgres is clearly more strict. There must be hundreds of Datamapper & Haml apps running on Postgres DBs, and this model relationship is super-conventional, so hopefully someone has seen (and determined how to fix) this. Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406  | Next Page >