Search Results

Search found 1256 results on 51 pages for 'explicit'.

Page 40/51 | < Previous Page | 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47  | Next Page >

• alternative in .Net to building Tables/TR/TD manually?

  - by egrunin

  I've got a pile of code here that looks like this: if (stateTax > 0) { tr = new TableRow(); tbl.Rows.Add(tr); td = new TableCell(); td.CssClass = "stdLabel"; td.Text = "NY State Tax"; tr.Cells.Add(td); td = new TableCell(); td.Text = string.Format("{0:C}", stateTax); td.CssClass = "justRight"; tr.Cells.Add(td); } This is a horrible hash of data and layout, but creating a special class or control every time something like this comes up seems almost as bad. What I usually do is write a helper function, which is concise but ugly: if (stateTax > 0) MakeRow(tbl, "NY State Tax", "stdLabel", string.Format("{0:C}", stateTax), "justRight"); And now I'm thinking: haven't I done this 100 times before? Isn't there a more modern way? Just to be explicit: it's a whole list of miscellaneous labels and values. They don't come from any particular data source, and the rules for when rows should be suppressed vary. This example has only two columns, but I have other places with more.

  Read the article

• Cannot understand the behaviour of dotnet compiler while instantiating a class thru interface(C#)

  - by Newbie

  I have a class that impelemnts an interface. The interface is public interface IRiskFactory { void StartService(); void StopService(); } The class that implements the interface is public class RiskFactoryService : IRiskFactory { } Now I have a console application and one window service. From the console application if I write the following code static void Main(string[] args) { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); objIRiskFactory.StartService(); Console.ReadLine(); objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } It is working fine. However, when I mwrite the same piece of code in Window service public partial class RiskFactoryService : ServiceBase { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = null; public RiskFactoryService() { InitializeComponent(); objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); <- ERROR } /// <summary> /// Starts the service /// </summary> /// <param name="args"></param> protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { objIRiskFactory.StartService(); } /// <summary> /// Stops the service /// </summary> protected override void OnStop() { objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } } It throws error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'RiskFactoryService' to 'IRiskFactory'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) When I type casted to the interface type, it started working objIRiskFactory = (IRiskFactory)new RiskFactoryService(); My question is why so? Thanks.(C#)

  Read the article

• can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

  Read the article

• Empty Datagrid problem in VB6

  - by Hybrid SyntaX

  Hello Recently, i encountered a problem; when I bind a recordset to datagrid ,and run the application the datagrid is not populated even though recordset has data I use the following code Option Explicit Dim conn As New ADODB.Connection Dim cmd As New ADODB.Command Dim recordset As New ADODB.recordset Private Sub InitializeConnection() Dim str As String str = _ "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" & _ "Data Source=" + App.Path + "\phonebook.mdb;" & _ "Persist Security Info=False" conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient conn.ConnectionString = str conn.Open (conn.ConnectionString) End Sub Private Sub AbandonConnection() If conn.State <> 0 Then conn.Close End If End Sub Private Sub Persons_Read() Dim qry_all As String ' qry_all = "select * from person,web,phone Where web.personid = person.id And phone.personid = person.id" qry_all = "SELECT * FROM person" Call InitializeConnection cmd.CommandText = qry_all cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set cmd.ActiveConnection = conn If conn.State = 1 Then Set recordset = cmd.Execute() End If Call BindDatagrid Call AbandonConnection End Sub Private Function Person_Add() End Function Private Function Person_Delete() End Function Private Function Person_Update() End Function Private Sub BindDatagrid() Set dg_Persons.DataSource = recordset dg_Persons.Refresh End Sub Private Sub cmd_Add_Click() Person_Add End Sub Private Sub cmd_Delete_Click() Person_Delete End Sub Private Sub cmd_Update_Click() Person_Update End Sub Private Sub Form_Load() Call Persons_Read End Sub Private Sub mnu_About_Click() frm_About.Show End Sub Thanks in advance

  Read the article

• CArray doesn't call copy constructors on memory reallocations, now what?

  - by MMx

  Suppose I have a class that requires copy constructor to be called to make a correct copy of: struct CWeird { CWeird() { number = 47; target = &number; } CWeird(const CWeird &other) : number(other.number), target(&number) { } void output() { printf("%d %d\n", *target, number); } int *target, number; }; Now the trouble is that CArray doesn't call copy constructors on its elements when reallocating memory (only memcpy from the old memory to the new), e.g. this code CArray<CWeird> a; a.SetSize(1); a[0].output(); a.SetSize(2); a[0].output(); results in 47 47 -572662307 47 I don't get this. Why is it that std::vector can copy the same objects properly and CArray can't? What's the lesson here? Should I use only classes that don't require explicit copy constructors? Or is it a bad idea to use CArray for anything serious?

  Read the article

• Disallow taking pointer/reference to const to a temporary object in C++ (no C++0X)

  - by KRao

  Hi, I am faced with the following issue. Consider the following class: //Will be similar to bost::reference_wrapper template<class T> class Ref { public: explicit Ref(T& t) : m_ptr(&t) {} private: T* m_ptr; }; and this function returning a double double fun() {return 1.0;} If we now have double x = 1.0; const double xc = 1.0; Ref<double> ref1(x); //OK Ref<const double> refc1(cx); //OK good so far, however: //Ref<double> ref2( fun() ); //Fails as I want it to Ref<const double> refc2( fun() ); //Works but I would like it not to Is there a way to modify Ref (the way you prefer) but not the function fun, so that the last line returns a compile-time error? Please notice you can modify the constructor signature (as long as I am able to initialise the Ref as intended). Thank you in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

  - by MainTank

  I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

  Read the article

• Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

  - by Shaun

  Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

  Read the article

• Magento - save quote_address on cart addAction using observer

  - by Byron

  I am writing a custom Magento module that gives rate quotes (based on an external API) on the product page. After I get the response on the product page, it adds some of the info from the response into the product view's form. The goal is to save the address (as well as some other things, but those can be in the session for now). The address needs to be saved to the quote, so that the checkout (onestepcheckout, free version) will automatically fill those values in (city, state, zip, country, shipping method [of which there are 3]) and load the rate quote via ajax (which it's already doing). I have gone about this by using an Observer, and watching for the cart events. I fill in the address and save it. When I end up on the cart page or checkout page ~4/5 times the data is lost, and the sql table shows that the quote_address is getting save with no address info, even though there is an explicit save. The observer method's I've used are: checkout_cart_update_item_complete checkout_cart_product_add_after The code saving is: (I've tried this with the address, quote and cart all not calling save() with the same results, as well as not calling setQuote() $quote->getShippingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->getBillingAddress() ->setCountryId($params['estimate_to_country']) ->setCity($params['estimate_to_city']) ->setPostcode($params['estimate_to_zip_code']) ->setRegionId($params['estimate_to_state_code']) ->setRegion($params['estimate_to_state']) ->setCollectShippingRates(true) ->setShippingMethod($params['carrier_method']) ->setQuote($quote) ->save(); $quote->save(); $cart->save(); I imagine there's a good chance this is not the best place to save this info, but I am not quite sure. I was wondering if there is a good place to do this without overriding a whole controller to save the address on the add to cart action. Thanks so much, let me know if I need to clarify

  Read the article

• C# language questions

  - by Water Cooler v2

  1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

  Read the article

• Hiding instantiated templates in shared library created with g++

  - by jchl

  I have a file that contains the following: #include <map> class A {}; void doSomething() { std::map<int, A> m; } When compiled into a shared library with g++, the library contains dynamic symbols for all the methods of std::map<int, A>. Since A is private to this file, there is no possibility that std::map will be instantiated in any other shared library with the same parameters, so I'd like to make the template instantiation hidden (for some of the reasons described in this document). I thought I should be able to do this by adding an explicit instantiation of the template class and marking it as hidden, like so: #include <map> class A {}; template class __attribute__((visibility ("hidden"))) std::map<int, A>; void doSomething() { std::map<int, A> m; } However, this has no effect: the symbols are still all exported. I even tried compiling with -fvisibility=hidden, but this also has no effect on the visibility of the methods of std::map<int, A> (although it does hide doSomething). The document I linked to above describes the use of export maps to restrict visibility, but that seems very tedious. Is there a way to do what I want in g++ (other than using export maps)? If so, what is it? If not, is there a good reason why these symbols must always be exported, or is this just a omission in g++?

  Read the article

• I just don't get the C++ Pointer/Reference system.

  - by gnm

  I've never had problems with references as in Python (implicit) or PHP (explicit &). In PHP you write $p = &$myvar; and you have $p as a reference pointing to $myVar. So I know in C++ you can do this: void setToSomething( int& var ) { var = 123; } int myInt; setToSomething( myInt ); Myint is now 123, why? Doesn't & mean "memory address of" x in C++? What do I do then if var is only the adress to myInt and not a pointer? void setToSomething( int* var ) { var* = 123; } int myInt; int* myIntPtr = &myInt; setToSomething( myIntPtr ); Does the above work as expected? I don't understand the difference between * and & in C++ fully. They tell you & is used to get the adress of a variable, but why IN GODS NAME does that help you in functions etc. like in the first example?

  Read the article

• excel:mysql: rs.Update not working

  - by every_answer_gets_a_point

  i am updating a table using an ODBC connection from excel to mysql unfortunately the only column that gets updated is this one: .Fields("instrument") = "NA" where i am assigning variables to .Fields, it is putting NULL values!! what is going on here? here's the code Option Explicit Dim oConn As ADODB.Connection Private Sub ConnectDB() Set oConn = New ADODB.Connection oConn.Open "DRIVER={MySQL ODBC 5.1 Driver};" & _ "SERVER=localhost;" & _ "DATABASE=employees;" & _ "USER=root;" & _ "PASSWORD=pas;" & _ "Option=3" End Sub Function esc(txt As String) esc = Trim(Replace(txt, "'", "\'")) End Function Private Sub InsertData() Dim dpath, atime, rtime, lcalib, aname, rname, bstate, instrument As String Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset ConnectDB With wsBooks rs.Open "batchinfo", oConn, adOpenKeyset, adLockOptimistic, adCmdTable Worksheets.Item("Report 1").Select dpath = Trim(Range("B2").Text) atime = Trim(Range("B3").Text) rtime = Trim(Range("B4").Text) lcalib = Trim(Range("B5").Text) aname = Trim(Range("B6").Text) rname = Trim(Range("B7").Text) bstate = Trim(Range("B8").Text) ' instrument = GetInstrFromXML(wbBook.FullName) With rs .AddNew ' create a new record ' add values to each field in the record .Fields("datapath") = dpath .Fields("analysistime") = atime .Fields("reporttime") = rtime .Fields("lastcalib") = lcalib .Fields("analystname") = aname .Fields("reportname") = rname .Fields("batchstate") = bstate .Fields("instrument") = "NA" .Update ' stores the new record End With ' get the last id Set rs = oConn.Execute("SELECT @@identity", , adCmdText) 'MsgBox capture_id rs.Close Set rs = Nothing End With End Sub

  Read the article

• How do I convert c struct from dll to C#

  - by poco

  I am converting a application from c++ to C# and have a question about the proper way to handle importing structs. I am attempting to convert a struct from a c dll into c# The struct in c looks like this typedef struct card_info { ushort r; ushort s; enum_a a; usinged long ul; ushort n; ushort* b; ushort id; } CARD_INFO; when i use [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequentaial)] the size of the array is 20 bytes in c#. However, if take a look at my working c++ code it is 24 bytes. I changed my c# to look like this: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit)] public struct CardInfo { [FieldOffset(0) public ushort r; [FieldOffset(2) public ushort s; [FieldOffset(4) public EnumA a; [FieldOffset(8) public ushort ul; [FieldOffset(12) public ushort n; [FieldOffset(16) public UInt32 b; [FieldOffset(20) public ushort id; } This seems to compile but I'm not convinced this is the correct way to go about doing this. Please let me know if this is correct or if there is a better way. Thanks

  Read the article

• Cannot understand the behaviour of C# compiler while instantiating a class thru interface

  - by Newbie

  I have a class that implements an interface. The interface is public interface IRiskFactory { void StartService(); void StopService(); } The class that implements the interface is public class RiskFactoryService : IRiskFactory { } Now I have a console application and one window service. From the console application if I write the following code static void Main(string[] args) { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); objIRiskFactory.StartService(); Console.ReadLine(); objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } It is working fine. However, when I mwrite the same piece of code in Window service public partial class RiskFactoryService : ServiceBase { IRiskFactory objIRiskFactory = null; public RiskFactoryService() { InitializeComponent(); objIRiskFactory = new RiskFactoryService(); <- ERROR } /// <summary> /// Starts the service /// </summary> /// <param name="args"></param> protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { objIRiskFactory.StartService(); } /// <summary> /// Stops the service /// </summary> protected override void OnStop() { objIRiskFactory.StopService(); } } It throws error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'RiskFactoryService' to 'IRiskFactory'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) When I type cast to the interface type, it started working objIRiskFactory = (IRiskFactory)new RiskFactoryService(); My question is why so?

  Read the article

• How can I bind the same dependency to many dependents in Ninject?

  - by Mike Bantegui

  Let's I have three interfaces: IFoo, IBar, IBaz. I also have the classes Foo, Bar, and Baz that are the respective implementations. In the implementations, each depends on the interface IContainer. So for the Foo (and similarly for Bar and Baz) the implementation might read: class Foo : IFoo { private readonly IDependency Dependency; public Foo(IDependency dependency) { Dependency = dependency; } public void Execute() { Console.WriteLine("I'm using {0}", Dependency.Name); } } Let's furthermore say I have a class Container which happens to contain instances of the IFoo, IBar and IBaz: class Container : IContainer { private readonly IFoo _Foo; private readonly IBar _Bar; private readonly IBaz _Baz; public Container(IFoo foo, IBar bar, IBaz baz) { _Foo = foo; _Bar = bar; _Baz = baz; } } In this scenario, I would like the implementation class Container to bind against IContainer with the constraint that the IDependency that gets injected into IFoo, IBar, and IBaz be the same for all three. In the manual way, I might implement it as: IDependency dependency = new Dependency(); IFoo foo = new Foo(dependency); IBar bar = new Bar(dependency); IBaz baz = new Baz(dependency); IContainer container = new Container(foo, bar, baz); How can I achieve this within Ninject? Note: I am not asking how to do nested dependencies. My question is how I can guarantee that a given dependency is the same among a collection of objects within a materialized service. To be extremely explicit, I understand that Ninject in it's standard form will generate code that is equivalent to the following: IContainer container = new Container(new Foo(new Dependency()), new Bar(new Dependency()), new Baz(new Dependency())); I would not like that behavior.

  Read the article

• Template Syntax in C++

  - by Crystal

  I don't understand templates really and was trying to run a simple find the minimum for ints, doubles, chars. First question, why is template<typename T> sometimes used, and other times template<>? Second question, I do not know what I am doing wrong with the following code below: #include <iostream> template <typename T> T minimum(T arg1, T arg2) { return arg1 < arg2 ? arg1 : arg2; } template <typename T> // first I tried template <> instd of above, but wasn't sure the difference T minimum<const char *>(const char *arg1, const char *arg2) { return strcmp(arg1, arg2) ? arg2 : arg1; } int main() { std::cout << minimum<int>(4, 2) << '\n'; std::cout << minimum<double>(2.2, -56.7) << '\n'; std::cout << minimum(2.2, 2) << '\n'; } Compile Errors: error C2768: 'minimum' : illegal use of explicit template arguments error C2783: 'T minimum(const char *,const char *)' : could not deduce template argument for 'T' : see declaration of 'minimum' : error C2782: 'T minimum(T,T)' : template parameter 'T' is ambiguous : see declaration of 'minimum' Third, in getting familiar with separating .h and .cpp files, if I wanted this minimum() function to be a static function of my class, but it was the only function in that class, would I have to have a template class as well? I originally tried doing it that way instead of having it all in one file and I got some compile errors as well that I can't remember right now and was unsure how I would do that. Thanks!

  Read the article

• VB Change Calulator

  - by BlueBeast

  I am creating a VB 2008 change calculator as an assignment. The program is to use the amount paid - the amount due to calculate the total.(this is working fine). After that, it is to break that amount down into dollars, quarters, dimes, nickels, and pennies. The problem I am having is that sometimes the quantity of pennies, nickels or dimes will be a negative number. For example $2.99 = 3 Dollars and -1 Pennies. SOLVED Thanks to the responses, here is what I was able to make work with my limited knowledge. Option Explicit On Option Strict Off Option Infer Off Public Class frmMain Private Sub btnClear_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnClear.Click 'Clear boxes lblDollarsAmount.Text = String.Empty lblQuartersAmount.Text = String.Empty lblDimesAmount.Text = String.Empty lblNickelsAmount.Text = String.Empty lblPenniesAmount.Text = String.Empty txtOwed.Text = String.Empty txtPaid.Text = String.Empty lblAmountDue.Text = String.Empty txtOwed.Focus() End Sub Private Sub btnExit_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnExit.Click 'Close application' Me.Close() End Sub Private Sub btnCalculate_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btnCalculate.Click ' Find Difference between Total Price and Total Received lblAmountDue.Text = Val(txtPaid.Text) - Val(txtOwed.Text) Dim intChangeAmount As Integer = lblAmountDue.Text * 100 'Declare Integers Dim intDollarsBack As Integer Dim intQuartersBack As Integer Dim intDimesBack As Integer Dim intNickelsBack As Integer Dim intPenniesBack As Integer ' Change Values Const intDollarValue As Integer = 100 Const intQuarterValue As Integer = 25 Const intDimeValue As Integer = 10 Const intNickelValue As Integer = 5 Const intPennyValue As Integer = 1 'Dollars intDollarsBack = CInt(Val(intChangeAmount \ intDollarValue)) intChangeAmount = intChangeAmount - Val(Val(intDollarsBack) * intDollarValue) lblDollarsAmount.Text = intDollarsBack.ToString 'Quarters intQuartersBack = CInt(Val(intChangeAmount \ intQuarterValue)) intChangeAmount = intChangeAmount - Val(Val(intQuartersBack) * intQuarterValue) lblQuartersAmount.Text = intQuartersBack.ToString 'Dimes intDimesBack = CInt(Val(intChangeAmount \ intDimeValue)) intChangeAmount = intChangeAmount - Val(Val(intDimesBack) * intDimeValue) lblDimesAmount.Text = intDimesBack.ToString 'Nickels intNickelsBack = CInt(Val(intChangeAmount \ intNickelValue)) intChangeAmount = intChangeAmount - Val(Val(intNickelsBack) * intNickelValue) lblNickelsAmount.Text = intNickelsBack.ToString 'Pennies intPenniesBack = CInt(Val(intChangeAmount \ intPennyValue)) intChangeAmount = intChangeAmount - Val(Val(intPenniesBack) * intPennyValue) lblPenniesAmount.Text = intPenniesBack.ToString End Sub End Class

  Read the article

• Setting up a very mixed Active Directory network to work with PowerShell Remote Administration

  - by erictheavg

  Summary: I want to be able to monitor the computers on my network, but don't need it to be automated. We're too small to purchase anything like MOM, but too big to do anything manually (~100 machines in two locations). I just keep running into issues, and was wondering if there's a master list of Group Policy settings I can distribute to my environment to get Remote Powershell working. Environment: Our AD network is pretty mixed. The end users have XP SP3, Win 7, and Win 7 x64. The servers include Win2k3 SP2, Win2k8, Win2k8 x64, Win2k8 R2, and Win2k8 R2 x64. Details: I'm trying to get it to work with Remote Powershell, but I run into errors like the following: Connecting to remote server failed with the following error message : The WinRM client cannot process the request. Default authentication may be used with an IP address under the following conditions: the transport is HTTPS or the destination is in the TrustedHosts list, and explicit credentials are provided. Use winrm.cmd to configure TrustedHosts. Note that computers in the TrustedHosts list might not be authenticated. For more information on how to set TrustedHosts run the following command: winrm help config. For more information, see the about_Remote_Troubleshooting Help topic. + CategoryInfo : OpenError: (:) [], PSRemotingTransportException + FullyQualifiedErrorId : PSSessionStateBroken Then I go to the computer (Win2k3 SP2 server) and run winrm quickconfig per the recommendations via google, and it says: Make these changes [y/n]? y WinRM has been updated to receive requests. WinRM service started. WSManFault Message = The client cannot connect to the destination specified in the request. Verify that the service on the destination is running and is accepting requests. Consult the logs and documentation for the WS-Management service running on the destination, most commonly IIS or WinRM. If the destination is the WinRM service, run the following command on the destination to analyze and configure the WinRM service: "winrm quickconfig". Error number: -2144108526 0x80338012 The client cannot connect to the destination specified in the request. Verify that the service on the destination is running and is accepting requests. Consult the logs and documentation for the WS-Management service running on the destination, most commonly IIS or WinRM. If the destination is the WinRM service, run the following command on the destination to analyze and configure the WinRM service: "winrm quickconfig". That's right. It tells me to remedy my winrm quickconfig failure by running winrm quickconfig. I don't want to band-aid this project one google search at a time. I'm sure there is a step-by-step tutorial out there on how to set up a network for powershell remote administration. Does anyone know of one? Books are acceptable. Thanks in advance! I didn't think my question would get this long.

  Read the article

• What are some of the best wireless routers for a price-conscious home power-user?

  - by Alain

  I'm extremely dissatisfied with the 'popular' choice for routers in homes and small offices. They are expensive (upwards of 60$), lack a great deal of useful configuration options, and seem to need to be restarted quite often. (Linksys comes to mind). I've been on the market for a good router lately, and slowly collecting a set of requirements I feel good routers should meet. Maximum number of TCP/IP connections. - This isn't something I see any routers advertise, but in terms of supporting torrent applications, I've been screwed by routers that support less than 20 here. From what I understand a fairly standard number is 200, but there are not so expensive routers that support thousands. Router configuration menu - Most have standard menu's that let you set up basic things like your wireless network encryption settings, uPnP, and maybe even DMZ (demilitarized zones). An absolute requirement for me, however, are routers with good enough firmware to support: Explicit Port forwarding Assigning static local ips to specific mac addresses, or at least Port forwarding by MAC address Port, IP and MAC filtering Dynamic DNS service for home users who want to set up a server but have a dynamic IP Traffic shaping (ideally) - giving priority to packets from certain machines or over certain ports. Strong wireless signal - If getting a reliable signal requires me to be so close to the router that I can connect an Ethernet cable, it's not good enough. As many Ethernet ports as possible. - Because I want to be able to switch from console gaming to PC gaming without visiting my router. So far, the best thing I've stumbled upon (in the bargain bin at staples) was a 20$ retail plus router. It was meant to be the cheapest alternative until I could find something better to purchase online, but I was actually blown away by the firmware capabilities. It supports defining reserved bandwidth for certain network traffic, dynamic DNS, reserving local IPs for specific MAC addresses, etc. At 2 am when my roommate is killing our Internet with their torrents, I can limit their bandwidth without outright blacklisting them. I have, however, met serious limitations when it comes to network traffic between local machines. It claims a 300Mbps connection, but I have trouble streaming videos from my PC to my console or other laptops wirelessly. It has a meltdown and needs to be reset once in a while (no more than a couple times a month), and it's got a 200 connection limit. There 4 Ethernet ports in the back but I'm pretty sure the first doesn't work. So some great answers to this question would be: Any metrics you use to compare routers, and requirements you have for new candidates. The best routers you've found for supporting home servers, file management systems, high volume torrent traffic, good price/feature ratio, etc. Good configuration advice (aside from 'use Ethernet whenever possible') Thanks for your feedback and experiences!

  Read the article

• Hybrid gmail MX + postfix for local accounts

  - by krunk

  Here's the setup: We have a domain, mydomain.com. Everything is on our own server, except general email accounts which are through gmail. Currently gmail is set as the MX record. The server also has various email aliases it needs to support for bug trackers and such. e.g. [email protected] |/path/to/issuetracker.script I'm struggling with a setup that allows the following, both locally and from user's email clients. guser1 - has a gmail account and a local account guser2 - only has a gmail account bugs - has a pipe alias in /etc/aliases for issue tracker Scenarios mail to [email protected] from local host (crons and such) needs to go to gmail account mail to [email protected] from local host mail to [email protected] needs to be piped to the local issue tracker script So, the first stab was creating a transport map. In this scenario, the our server would be set as teh MX and guser* destined emails are sent to gmail. Put the gmail users in a map like so: [email protected] smtp:gmailsmtp:25 [email protected] smtp:gmailsmtp:25 Problems: Ignores extensions such as [email protected] Only works if append_at_myorigin = no (if set to yes, gmail refuses to connect with: E4C7E3E09BA3: to=, relay=none, delay=0.05, delays=0.02/0.01/0.02/0, dsn=4.4.1, status=deferred (connect to gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com[209.85.222.57]:25: Connection refused)) since append_at_myorigin is set to no, all received emails have (unknown sender) The second stab was to set explicit localhost aliases in /etc/aliases and do a domain wide forward on mydomain. This too requires setting the local server as the MX: root: root@localhost # transport mydomain.com smtp:gmailsmtp:25 Problems: * If I create a transport map for a domain that matches "$myhostname", the aliases file is never parsed. So when a local user (or daemon) sends an email like: mail -s "testing" root < text.txt Postfix ignores the /etc/alias entry and maps to [email protected] and attempts to send it to the gmail transport mapping. Third stab: Create a subdomain for the bugs, something like bugs.mydomain.com. Set the MX for this domain to local server and leave the MX for mydomain.com to the Gmail server. Problems: * Does not solve the issue with local accounts. So when the bug tracker responds to an email from [email protected], it uses a local transport and the user never receives the email. % postconf -n alias_database = hash:/etc/aliases alias_maps = hash:/etc/aliases append_at_myorigin = no append_dot_mydomain = no biff = no config_directory = /etc/postfix inet_interfaces = all mailbox_command = procmail -a "$EXTENSION" mailbox_size_limit = 0 mydestination = $myhostname, localhost.$myhostname, localhost myhostname = mydomain.com mynetworks = 127.0.0.0/8 [::ffff:127.0.0.0]/104 [::1]/128 myorigin = /etc/mailname readme_directory = no recipient_delimiter = + relayhost = smtp_tls_cert_file = /etc/ssl/certs/kspace.pem smtp_tls_enforce_peername = no smtp_tls_key_file = /etc/ssl/certs/kspace.pem smtp_tls_note_starttls_offer = yes smtp_tls_scert_verifydepth = 5 smtp_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtp_scache smtp_use_tls = yes smtpd_banner = $myhostname ESMTP $mail_name (Debian/GNU) smtpd_recipient_restrictions = permit_mynetworks, reject_invalid_hostname, reject_non_fqdn_sender, reject_non_fqdn_recipient, reject_unknown_sender_domain, reject_unknown_recipient_domain, reject_unauth_destination smtpd_tls_ask_ccert = yes smtpd_tls_req_ccert = no smtpd_tls_session_cache_database = btree:${data_directory}/smtpd_scache tls_random_source = dev:/dev/urandom transport_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/transport

  Read the article

• Force caching of handler output which actively resists caching

  - by deceze

  I'm trying to force caching of a very obnoxious piece of PHP script which actively tries to resist caching for no good reason by actively setting all the anti-cache headers: Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0 Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Date: Thu, 22 May 2014 08:43:53 GMT Expires: Thu, 19 Nov 1981 08:52:00 GMT Last-Modified: Pragma: no-cache Set-Cookie: ECSESSID=...; path=/ Vary: User-Agent,Accept-Encoding Server: Apache/2.4.6 (Ubuntu) X-Powered-By: PHP/5.5.3-1ubuntu2.3 If at all avoidable I do not want to have to modify this 3rd party piece of code at all and instead just get Apache to cache the page for a while. I'm doing this very selectively to only very specific pages which have no real impact on session cookies or the like, i.e. which do not contain any personalised information. CacheDefaultExpire 600 CacheMinExpire 600 CacheMaxExpire 1800 CacheHeader On CacheDetailHeader On CacheIgnoreHeaders Set-Cookie CacheIgnoreCacheControl On CacheIgnoreNoLastMod On CacheStoreExpired On CacheStoreNoStore On CacheLock On CacheEnable disk /the/script.php Apache is caching the page alright: [cache:debug] AH00698: cache: Key for entity /the/script.php?(null) is http://example.com:80/the/script.php? [cache_disk:debug] AH00709: Recalled cached URL info header http://example.com:80/the/script.php? [cache_disk:debug] AH00720: Recalled headers for URL http://example.com:80/the/script.php? [cache:debug] AH00695: Cached response for /the/script.php isn't fresh. Adding conditional request headers. [cache:debug] AH00750: Adding CACHE_SAVE filter for /the/script.php [cache:debug] AH00751: Adding CACHE_REMOVE_URL filter for /the/script.php [cache:debug] AH00769: cache: Caching url: /the/script.php [cache:debug] AH00770: cache: Removing CACHE_REMOVE_URL filter. [cache_disk:debug] AH00737: commit_entity: Headers and body for URL http://example.com:80/the/script.php? cached. However, it is always insisting that the "cached response isn't fresh" and is never serving the cached version. I guess this has to do with the Expires header, which marks the document as expired (but I don't know whether that's the correct assumption). I've tried to overwrite and unset headers using mod_headers, but this doesn't help; whatever combination I try the cache is not impressed at all. I'm guessing that the order of operation is wrong, and headers are being rewritten after the cache sees them. early header processing doesn't help either. I've experimented with CacheQuickHandler Off and trying to set explicit filter chains, but nothing is helping. But I'm really mostly poking in the dark, as I do not have a lot of experience with configuring Apache filter chains. Is there a straight forward solution for how to cache this obnoxious piece of code?

  Read the article

• Kernel-mode Authentication: 401 errors when accessing site from remote machines

  - by CJM

  I have several Classic ASP sites that use Integrated Windows Authentication and Kerberos delegation. They work OK on the live servers (recently moved to a Server 2008/IIS7 servers), but do not work fully on my development PC or my development server. The IIS on both machines were configured through an IIS web deployment tool package which was exported from an old machine; the deployment didn't work perfectly, and I had to tinker a bit to get the sites working. When accessing the apps locally on either machine, they work fine; when accessing from another machine, the user is prompted by a username/password dialog, and regardless of what you enter, ultimately it results in a 401 (Unauthorised) error. I've tried comparing the configuration of these machines against similar live servers (that all work fine), and they seem generally comparable (given that none of the live servers are yet on IIS7.5 (Windows 7/Server 2008 R2). These applications run in a common application pool which uses a special domain user as it's identity - this user has similar permissions on the live and development machines. On IIS6 platforms, to enable kerberos delegation, I needed to set up some SPNs for this user, and they are still in place (even though I don't believe they are needed any longer for IIS7+ due to kernel-mode authentication), Furthermore, this account is enabled for Kerberos delegation in Active Directory, as is each machine I am dealing with. I'm considering the possibility that the deployment might have made changes/failed to make changes to the IIS configuration thus causing this problem. Perhaps a complete rebuild (minus another web deployment attempt) would solve the problem, but I'd rather fix (thus understand) the current problem. Any ideas so far? I've just had another attempt at fixing this issue, and I've made some progress, but I don't have a complete fix...yet. I've discovered that if I access the sites via IP address (than via NetBIOS name), I get the same dialog, except that it accepts my credentials and thus the application works - not quite a fix, but a useful step. More interestingly, I discovered that if I disable Kernel-mode authentication (in IIS Manager Website Authentication Advanced Settings), the applications work perfectly. My foggy understanding is that this is effectively working in the pre-IIS7 way. A reasonable short-term solution, but consider the following explicit advice from IIS on this issue: By default, IIS enables kernel-mode authentication, which may improve authentication performance and prevent authentication problems with application pools configured to use a custom identity. As a best practice, do not disable this setting if Kerberos authentication is used in your environment and the application pool is configured to use a custom identity. Clearly, this is not the way my applications should be working. So what is the issue?

  Read the article

• What happens to missed writes after a zpool clear?

  - by Kevin

  I am trying to understand ZFS' behaviour under a specific condition, but the documentation is not very explicit about this so I'm left guessing. Suppose we have a zpool with redundancy. Take the following sequence of events: A problem arises in the connection between device D and the server. This causes a large number of failures and ZFS therefore faults the device, putting the pool in degraded state. While the pool is in degraded state, the pool is mutated (data is written and/or changed.) The connectivity issue is physically repaired such that device D is reliable again. Knowing that most data on D is valid, and not wanting to stress the pool with a resilver needlessly, the admin instead runs zpool clear pool D. This is indicated by Oracle's documentation as the appropriate action where the fault was due to a transient problem that has been corrected. I've read that zpool clear only clears the error counter, and restores the device to online status. However, this is a bit troubling, because if that's all it does, it will leave the pool in an inconsistent state! This is because mutations in step 2 will not have been successfully written to D. Instead, D will reflect the state of the pool prior to the connectivity failure. This is of course not the normative state for a zpool and could lead to hard data loss upon failure of another device - however, the pool status will not reflect this issue! I would at least assume based on ZFS' robust integrity mechanisms that an attempt to read the mutated data from D would catch the mistakes and repair them. However, this raises two problems: Reads are not guaranteed to hit all mutations unless a scrub is done; and Once ZFS does hit the mutated data, it (I'm guessing) might fault the drive again because it would appear to ZFS to be corrupting data, since it doesn't remember the previous write failures. Theoretically, ZFS could circumvent this problem by keeping track of mutations that occur during a degraded state, and writing them back to D when it's cleared. For some reason I suspect that's not what happens, though. I'm hoping someone with intimate knowledge of ZFS can shed some light on this aspect.

  Read the article

• Excel 2010: dynamic update of drop down list based upon datasource validation worksheet changes

  - by hornetbzz

  I have one worksheet for setting up the data sources of multiple data validation lists. in other words, I'm using this worksheet to provide drop down lists to multiple other worksheets. I need to dynamically update all worksheets upon any of a single or several changes on the data source worksheet. I may understand this should come with event macro over the entire workbook. My question is how to achieve this keeping the "OFFSET" formula across the whole workbook ? Thx To support my question, I put the piece of code that I'm trying to get it working : Provided the following informations : I'm using such a formula for a pseudo dynamic update of the drop down lists, for example : =OFFSET(MyDataSourceSheet!$O$2;0;0;COUNTA(MyDataSourceSheet!O:O)-1) I looked into the pearson book event chapter but I'm too noob for this. I understand this macro and implemented it successfully as a test with the drop down list on the same worksheet as the data source. My point is that I don't know how to deploy this over a complete workbook. Macro related to the datasource worksheet : Option Explicit Private Sub Worksheet_Change(ByVal Target As Range) ' Macro to update all worksheets with drop down list referenced upon ' this data source worksheet, base on ref names Dim cell As Range Dim isect As Range Dim vOldValue As Variant, vNewValue As Variant Dim dvLists(1 To 6) As String 'data validation area Dim OneValidationListName As Variant dvLists(1) = "mylist1" dvLists(2) = "mylist2" dvLists(3) = "mylist3" dvLists(4) = "mylist4" dvLists(5) = "mylist5" dvLists(6) = "mylist6" On Error GoTo errorHandler For Each OneValidationListName In dvLists 'Set isect = Application.Intersect(Target, ThisWorkbook.Names("STEP").RefersToRange) Set isect = Application.Intersect(Target, ThisWorkbook.Names(OneValidationListName).RefersToRange) ' If a change occured in the source data sheet If Not isect Is Nothing Then ' Prevent infinite loops Application.EnableEvents = False ' Get previous value of this cell With Target vNewValue = .Value Application.Undo vOldValue = .Value .Value = vNewValue End With ' LOCAL dropdown lists : For every cell with validation For Each cell In Me.UsedRange.SpecialCells(xlCellTypeAllValidation) With cell ' If it has list validation AND the validation formula matches AND the value is the old value If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Validation.Formula1 = "=" & OneValidationListName And .Value = vOldValue Then ' Debug ' MsgBox "Address: " & Target.Address ' Change the cell value cell.Value = vNewValue End If End With Next cell ' Call to other worksheets update macros Call Sheets(5).UpdateDropDownList(vOldValue, vNewValue) ' GoTo NowGetOut Application.EnableEvents = True End If Next OneValidationListName NowGetOut: Application.EnableEvents = True Exit Sub errorHandler: MsgBox "Err " & Err.Number & " : " & Err.Description Resume NowGetOut End Sub Macro UpdateDropDownList related to the destination worksheet : Sub UpdateDropDownList(Optional vOldValue As Variant, Optional vNewValue As Variant) ' Debug MsgBox "Received info for update : " & vNewValue ' For every cell with validation For Each cell In Me.UsedRange.SpecialCells(xlCellTypeAllValidation) With cell ' If it has list validation AND the validation formula matches AND the value is the old value ' If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Value = vOldValue Then If .Validation.Type = 3 And .Value = vOldValue Then ' Change the cell value cell.Value = vNewValue End If End With Next cell End Sub

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47  | Next Page >