Search Results

Search found 6722 results on 269 pages for 'foo inc'.

Page 40/269 | < Previous Page | 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47  | Next Page >

  • Use of (non) qualified names

    - by AProgrammer
    If I want to use the name baz defined in package foo|bar|quz, I've several choices: provide fbq as a short name for foo|bar|quz and use fbq|baz use foo|bar|quz|baz import baz from foo|bar|quz|baz and then use baz (or an alias given in the import process) import all public symbols from foo|bar|quz|baz and then use baz For the languages I know, my perception is that the best practice is to use the first two ways (I'll use one or the other depending on the specific package full name and the number of symbols I need from it). I'd use the third only in a language which doesn't provide the first and hunt for supporting tools to write the import statements. And in my opinion the fourth should be reserved to package designed with than import in mind, for instance if all exported symbols start with a prefix or contains the name of the package. My questions: what is in your opinion the best practice for your favorite languages? what would you suggest in a new language? what would you suggest in an old language adding such a feature?

    Read the article

  • ruby send vs __send__

    - by jaydel
    I understand the concept of some_instance.send but I'm trying to figure out why you can call this both ways? The Ruby Koans imply that there is some reason beyond providing lots of different ways to do the same thing and I'm wrestling with figuring this out. Here are the two examples of usage more concretely class Foo def bar? true end end foo = Foo.new foo.send(:bar?) foo.send(:bar?) Anyone have any idea about this? thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Java generics SuppressWarnings("unchecked") mystery

    - by Johannes Ernst
    Why does code alternative(1) compile without warnings, and code alternative(2) produce an "unchecked cast" warning? Common for both: class Foo<T> { Foo( T [] arg ) { } } Alternative (1): class Bar<T> extends Foo<T> { protected static final Object [] EMPTY_ARRAY = {}; @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") Bar() { super( (T []) EMPTY_ARRAY ); } } Alternative (2): class Bar<T> extends Foo<T> { @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") Bar() { super( (T []) EMPTY_ARRAY ); } protected static final Object [] EMPTY_ARRAY = {}; } Alternative (2) produces: javac -Xlint:unchecked Foo.java Bar.java Bar.java:4: warning: [unchecked] unchecked cast super( (T []) EMPTY_ARRAY ); ^ required: T[] found: Object[] where T is a type-variable: T extends Object declared in class Bar 1 warning This is: java version "1.7.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_07-b10) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 23.3-b01, mixed mode)

    Read the article

  • Batch files - number of command line arguments

    - by pyko
    Just converting some shell scripts into batch files and there is one thing I can't seem to find...and that is a simple count of the number of command line arguments. eg. if you have: myapp foo bar In Shell: $# - 2 $* - foo bar $0 - myapp $1 - foo $2 - bar In batch ?? - 2 <---- what command?! %* - foo bar %0 - myapp %1 - foo %2 - bar So I've looked around, and either I'm looking in the wrong spot or I'm blind, but I can't seem to find a way to get a count of number of command line arguments passed in. Is there a command similar to shell's "$#" for batch files? ps. the closest i've found is to iterate through the %1s and use 'shift', but I need to refernece %1,%2 etc later in the script so that's no good.

    Read the article

  • How to access a field's value via reflection (Scala 2.8)

    - by soc
    Consider the following code: class Foo(var name: String = "bar") Now i try to get the value and the correct type of it via reflection: val foo = new Foo val field = foo.getDeclaredField("name") field.setAccessible(true) //This is where it doesn't work val value = field.get(????) I tried things like field.get(foo), but that just returns an java.lang.Object but no String. Basically I need the correct type, because I want to invoke a method on it (e. g. toCharArray). What is the suggested way to do that?

    Read the article

  • Using a Filter to serve a specific page?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I am using a class which implements Filter for my jsp stuff. It looks like this: public class MyFilter implements Filter { public void doFilter(ServletRequest request, ServletResponse response, FilterChain chain) throws IOException, ServletException { request.getRequestDispatcher("mypage.jsp").forward(request, response); } } So the target, "mypage.jsp", is just sitting in my top-level directory. The filter works fine if I'm entering urls like: http://www.mysite.com/foo http://www.mysite.com/boo but if I enter a trailing slash, I'll get a 404: http://www.mysite.com/foo/ http://www.mysite.com/boo/ HTTP ERROR: 404 /foo/mypage.jsp RequestURI=/foo/mypage.jsp it seems if I enter the trailing slash, then the filter thinks I want it to look for mypage.jsp in subfolder foo or boo, but I really always want it to just find it at: http://www.mysite.com/mypage.jsp how can I do that? Thank you

    Read the article

  • How to make this code compile?

    - by skydoor
    // File: foo.c static int var; void foo() { var++; } // end of file foo.c // File bar.c: static int var; void bar() { var++; } // end of file bar.c // file main.c static int var; void main() { foo(); bar(); printf("%d", var); } // end of file main.c Question: Will the above program compile ? If so what will be the result ? I tested the code and found it couldn't be compiled. I try to use extern in main.c to use the function foo() and bar() but it still couldn't be compiled.

    Read the article

  • How can I use a variable as a module name in Perl?

    - by mjn12
    I know it is possible to use a variable as a variable name for package variables in Perl. I would like to use the contents of a variable as a module name. For instance: package Foo; our @names =("blah1", "blah2"); 1; And in another file I want to be able be able to set the contents of a scalar to "foo" and then access the names array in Foo through that scalar. my $packageName = "Foo"; Essentially I want to do something along the lines of: @{$packageName}::names; #This obviously doesn't work. I know I can use my $names = eval '$'. $packageName . "::names" But only if Foo::names is a scalar. Is there another way to do this without the eval statement?

    Read the article

  • Create xml type with no body

    - by Pace
    Hopefully this is an easy question. How can I define an XML type such that the type doesn't have a body. As an example I can define the Foo type as follows... <xs:complexType name="Foo"> <xs:simpleContent> <xs:extension base="xs:string"> <xs:attribute name="id" type="xs:integer" use="required"/> </xs:extension> </xs:simpleContent> </xs:complexType> But that would allow the following... <Foo id="7">STUFF I DON'T WANT</Foo> Is there a way I can change the xsd so that the Foo element isn't allowed any body?

    Read the article

  • How to rewrite url to include subdirectory?

    - by Jason Roberts
    The following set of rewrite rules rewrite any urls formatted as foo.mydomain.com/bar to mydomain.com/mysubs/foo/bar.php. This all works fine except if I have a subdirectory named 'blah' in the original url such as foo.mydomain.com/blah/bar, then it will rewrite it as mydomain.com/mysubs/foo/bar (without the blah subdirectory) when what I need is the url to be rewritten as mydomain.com/mysubs/foo/blah/bar. So, what do I need to change to make this work correctly? Options +FollowSymLinks Options -Indexes RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !www.mydomain.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^./]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteRule !^mysubs/ mysubs/%1%{REQUEST_URI} [L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ $1.php

    Read the article

  • gcc problem with explicit template instantiation?

    - by steve jaffe
    It is my understanding that either a declaration or typedef of a specialization ought to cause a template class to be instantiated, but this does not appear to be happening with gcc. E.g. I have a template class, template class Foo {}; I write class Foo<double>; or typedef Foo<double> DoubleFoo; but after compilation the symbol table of the resulting object file does not contain the members of Foo. If I create an instance: Foo<double> aFoo; then of course the symbols are all generated. Has anyone else experienced this and/or have an explanation?

    Read the article

  • Passing arguments to java vm from NSIS script

    - by CodeBuddy
    I'm developing my first java application using Eclipse. I've recently needed to adjust the amount of memory allocated by passing -Xmx256M to the JVM. The application is currently package up as a runnable jar and installed using the NSIS. I'm having a problem passing arguments to the jar file once its installed. What is the common practice for doing this? Here is what I'm currently doing in my nsi file: CreateShortcut "$SMPROGRAMS\$StartMenuGroup\$(^Name).lnk" "$SYSDIR\javaw.exe" "-jar -Xmx256M $INSTDIR\Foo.jar" This results in the following being created as the shortcut Target on windows: C:\WINDOWS\system32\javaw.exe -jar -Xmx256M C:\Program Files\Foo\Foo.jar Unfortunately this does not work due to the space in C:\Program Files, If I change the link created manually to include quotes all is well: C:\WINDOWS\system32\javaw.exe -jar -Xmx256M "C:\Program Files\Foo\Foo.jar"

    Read the article

  • accessing base class's method with derived class's object which has a method of same name.

    - by ashish yadav
    when accessing foo() of "base" using derived class's object. include class base { public: void foo() { std::cout<<"\nHello from foo\n"; } }; class derived : public base { public: void foo(int k) { std::cout<<"\nHello from foo with value = "< } how to access base class method having a method of same name in derived class. the error generated has been shown. i apologize if i am not clear but i feel i have made myself clear as water. thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Modifying association arrays on cloned ActiveRecord objects

    - by Craig Walker
    I have an ActiveRecord model class Foo that has_many Bar. I want to clone a Foo (to get duplicates of most of its attributes) and then modify its Bar instances. This is a problem because cloned ActiveRecord instances share the same associated array; changes to one affect the other. f1 = Foo.new b = Bar.new f1.bars << b f2 = f1.clone f2.bars.includes? b # true f1.bars.clear f2.bars.includes? b # now false The real problem is that I can't detach the bars arrays from either Foo: f1.bars << b f2.bars.includes? b # true f2.bars = [] f2.bars.includes? b # now false f1.bars.includes? b # now also false If I could do that, then I could replace the Bars as I wanted to. However, any change to one Foo seems to affect the other.

    Read the article

  • In Intellij, how can I get a List on the left hand side when I extract a variable that's an ArrayList?

    - by tieTYT
    As an example, if I extract a variable from this: return new ArrayList<CrudTestData<Foo>>(); It will turn the code into this: ArrayList<CrudTestData<Foo>> list = new ArrayList<CrudTestData<Foo>>(); return list; How can I automatically get a list on the left hand side like this? List<CrudTestData<Foo>> list = new ArrayList<CrudTestData<Foo>>(); return list; Theoretically, Intellij should know to use a List instead of a Collection because the method returns a List.

    Read the article

  • T-SQL Syntax Issue Else if style logic

    - by Yoda
    Hi guys, two questions today, I'm a busy bee and luckily I have an awesome community at my disposal! My issue here is this: I have a field i need to update based on existing field data. If Gender = F then foo = 1 If Gender = M then foo = 2 If Gender = Male then foo = 2 If Gender = Female then foo = 1 If Gender is not above then foo = 3 Here is what I have: update EmailAddresses set Priority1 = '1' where GENDER__C = 'Female' update EmailAddresses set Priority1 = '2' where GENDER__C = 'Male' update EmailAddresses set Priority1 = '1' where GENDER__C = 'F' update EmailAddresses set Priority1 = '2' where GENDER__C = 'M' update EmailAddresses set Priority1 = '3' where GENDER__C not in (select 'Female', 'Male', 'F', 'M') Any help much appreciated! And its Friday!! Whoo hoo

    Read the article

  • Is Dynamic Casting Possible in Java

    - by Tom Tucker
    So I have a class of overloaded methods like this: class Foo { public void test(Object value) { ... } public void test(String value) { ... } } I need to pass a property value of a bean to one of these methods depending on its type, but I don't know the actual property type until the runtime. e.g. public void run(Object bean, String propertyName) { Foo foo = new Foo(); foo.test(PropertyUtils.getProperty(bean, propertyName)); } BTW, PropertyUtils.getProperty() is a helper method that returns a value of the specified property on a bean. PropertyUtils.getProperty() returns an Object, so that test(Object value) will be always called and the actual property type will be ignored. I can figure out the propery type in the runtime, even if its value is null. Is there such a thing as dynamic casting in Java? If not, is there a way to have an overloaded method with the correct parameter type called?

    Read the article

  • Regex and unicode

    - by dbr
    I have a script that parses the filenames of TV episodes (show.name.s01e02.avi for example), grabs the episode name (from the www.thetvdb.com API) and automatically renames them into something nicer (Show Name - [01x02].avi) The script works fine, that is until you try and use it on files that have Unicode show-names (something I never really thought about, since all the files I have are English, so mostly pretty-much all fall within [a-zA-Z0-9'\-]) How can I allow the regular expressions to match accented characters and the likes? Currently the regex's config section looks like.. config['valid_filename_chars'] = """0123456789abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyzABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ!@£$%^&*()_+=-[]{}"'.,<>`~? """ config['valid_filename_chars_regex'] = re.escape(config['valid_filename_chars']) config['name_parse'] = [ # foo_[s01]_[e01] re.compile('''^([%s]+?)[ \._\-]\[[Ss]([0-9]+?)\]_\[[Ee]([0-9]+?)\]?[^\\/]*$'''% (config['valid_filename_chars_regex'])), # foo.1x09* re.compile('''^([%s]+?)[ \._\-]\[?([0-9]+)x([0-9]+)[^\\/]*$''' % (config['valid_filename_chars_regex'])), # foo.s01.e01, foo.s01_e01 re.compile('''^([%s]+?)[ \._\-][Ss]([0-9]+)[\.\- ]?[Ee]([0-9]+)[^\\/]*$''' % (config['valid_filename_chars_regex'])), # foo.103* re.compile('''^([%s]+)[ \._\-]([0-9]{1})([0-9]{2})[\._ -][^\\/]*$''' % (config['valid_filename_chars_regex'])), # foo.0103* re.compile('''^([%s]+)[ \._\-]([0-9]{2})([0-9]{2,3})[\._ -][^\\/]*$''' % (config['valid_filename_chars_regex'])), ]

    Read the article

  • Is it safe to call a function to intialize a class in a ctor list?

    - by Michael Dorgan
    I have Angle class that I want initialized to a random value. The Angle constructor can accept an int from a random() function. Is it safe to place this call in the ctor list: foo::foo() : Angle(random(0xFFFF)) {...} or do I have to do it in the body of the constructor? foo::foo() { Angle = Angle(random(0xFFFF)); ...} If it matters, the foo class is derived from another class and does have virtual methods. In addition, no exception handling is allowed in our app.

    Read the article

  • Problem passing a reference as a named parameter to a variadic function

    - by Michael Mrozek
    I'm having problems in Visual Studio 2003 with the following: void foo(const char*& str, ...) { va_list args; va_start(args, str); const char* foo; while((foo = va_arg(args, const char*)) != NULL) { printf("%s\n", foo); } } When I call it: const char* one = "one"; foo(one, "two", "three", NULL); I get: Access violation reading location 0xcccccccc on the printf() line -- va_arg() returned 0xcccccccc. I finally discovered it's the first parameter being a reference that breaks it -- if I make it a normal char* everything is fine. It doesn't seem to matter what the type is; being a reference causes it to fail at runtime. Is this a known problem with VS2003, or is there some way in which that's legal behavior? It doesn't happen in GCC; I haven't tested with newer Visual Studios to see if the behavior goes away

    Read the article

  • Array::include? on ActiveRecord collection not calling op== ?

    - by tribalvibes
    Given a collection of named Foos from ActiveRecord, why does Array.include? not seem to call Foo.== but yet index does? class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base def ==(s) self.name == s end end class Bar < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :foos end bar.foos << Foo.new( :name = 'hmm' ) bar.foos.all.include?('hmm') # does select all from db every time = true bar.foos.include?('hmm') # does not go to db, but does not find the Foo! = false bar.foos.index('hmm') # does not go to db, but does find the Foo[0] ! = 0 bar.foos.index('eh') # no such object = nil I understand shallow about the proxies, but (without a detour into the AR source) why is index seemingly behaving correctly but include? is not !? Is this a bug in the proxy behavior, and/or is this behavior documented somewhere ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • In Javascript, by what mechanism does setting an Image src property trigger an image load?

    - by brainjam
    One of the things you learn early on when manipulating a DOM using Javascript is the following pattern: var img = new Image(); // Create new Image object img.onload = function(){ // execute drawImage statements here } img.src = 'myImage.png'; // Set source path As far as I know, in general when you set an object property there are no side effects. So what is the mechanism for triggering an image load? Is it just magic? Or can I use a similar mechanism to implement a class Foo that supports a parallel pattern? var foo = new Foo(); // Create new object foo.barchanged = function(){ // execute something after side effect has completed } foo.bar = 'whatever'; // Assign something to 'bar' property I'm vaguely aware of Javascript getters and setters. Is this how Image.src triggers a load?

    Read the article

  • C++ Passing `this` into method by reference

    - by David
    I have a class constructor that expects a reference to another class object to be passed in as an argument. I understand that references are preferable to pointers when no pointer arithmetic will be performed or when a null value will not exist. This is the header declaration of the constructor: class MixerLine { private: MIXERLINE _mixerLine; public: MixerLine(const MixerDevice& const parentMixer, DWORD destinationIndex); ~MixerLine(); } This is the code that calls the constructor (MixerDevice.cpp): void MixerDevice::enumerateLines() { DWORD numLines = getDestinationCount(); for(DWORD i=0;i<numLines;i++) { MixerLine mixerLine( this, i ); // other code here removed } } Compilation of MixerDevice.cpp fails with this error: Error 3 error C2664: 'MixerLine::MixerLine(const MixerDevice &,DWORD)' : cannot convert parameter 1 from 'MixerDevice *const ' to 'const MixerDevice &' But I thought pointer values could be assigned to pointers, e.g. Foo* foo = new Foo(); Foo& bar = foo;

    Read the article

  • Catching an error for a child resource in Ruby on Rails

    - by randombits
    What is the best way to add errors to render if a child resource is really what's having issues and not the parent resource? In english what I mean is the following.. imagine the following code: @foo = Foo.new foochild = Foochild.new // break foochild somehow @foo << foochild @foo.save now when I do: format.xml { render :xml => @foo.errors } I don't get anything about how foochild broke, meaning the error message is useless to the user. How does one go about fixing this?

    Read the article

  • How to specify a different column for a @Inheritance JPA annotation

    - by Cue
    @Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public class Foo @Entity @Inheritance(strategy = InheritanceType.JOINED) public class BarFoo extends Foo mysql> desc foo; +---------------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +---------------+-------------+ | id | int | +---------------+-------------+ mysql> desc barfoo; +---------------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +---------------+-------------+ | id | int | | foo_id | int | | bar_id | int | +---------------+-------------+ mysql> desc bar; +---------------+-------------+ | Field | Type | +---------------+-------------+ | id | int | +---------------+-------------+ Is it possible to specify column barfo.foo_id as the joined column? Are you allowed to specify barfoo.id as BarFoo's @Id since you are overriding the getter/seeter of class Foo? I understand the schematics behind this relationship (or at least I think I do) and I'm ok with them. The reason I want an explicit id field for BarFoo is exactly because I want to avoid using a joined key (foo _id, bar _id) when querying for BarFoo(s) or when used in a "stronger" constraint. (as Ruben put it)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47  | Next Page >