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  • Why two subprocesses created by Java behave differently?

    - by Lily
    I use Java Runtime.getRuntime().exec(command) to create a subprocess and print its pid as follows: public static void main(String[] args) { Process p2; try { p2 = Runtime.getRuntime().exec(cmd); Field f2 = p2.getClass().getDeclaredField("pid"); f2.setAccessible(true); System.out.println( f2.get( p2 ) ); } catch (Exception ie) { System.out.println("Yikes, you are not supposed to be here"); } } I tried both C++ executable and Java executable (.jar file). Both executables will continuously print out "Hello World" to stdout. When cmd is the C++ executable, the pid is printed out to console but the subprocess gets killed as soon as main() returns. However, when I call the .jar executable in cmd, the subprocess does not get killed, which is the desired behavior. I don't understand why same Java code, with different executables can behave so differently. How should I modify my code so that I could have persistent subprocesses in Java. Newbie in this field. Any suggestion is welcomed. Lily

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  • Reading/Writing DataTables to and from an OleDb Database LINQ

    - by jsmith
    My current project is to take information from an OleDbDatabase and .CSV files and place it all into a larger OleDbDatabase. I have currently read in all the information I need from both .CSV files, and the OleDbDatabase into DataTables.... Where it is getting hairy is writing all of the information back to another OleDbDatabase. Right now my current method is to do something like this: OleDbTransaction myTransaction = null; try { OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection("PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + Database); conn.Open(); OleDbCommand command = conn.CreateCommand(); string strSQL; command.Transaction = myTransaction; strSQL = "Insert into TABLE " + "(FirstName, LastName) values ('" + FirstName + "', '" + LastName + "')"; command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; command.CommandText = strSQL; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); conn.close(); catch (Exception) { // IF invalid data is entered, rolls back the database myTransaction.Rollback(); } Of course, this is very basic and I'm using an SQL command to commit my transactions to a connection. My problem is I could do this, but I have about 200 fields that need inserted over several tables. I'm willing to do the leg work if that's the only way to go. But I feel like there is an easier method. Is there anything in LINQ that could help me out with this?

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  • Compiling code at runtime, loading into current appdomain.

    - by Richard Friend
    Hi Im compiling some code at runtime then loading the assembly into the current appdomain, however when i then try to do Type.GetType it cant find the type... Here is how i compile the code... public static Assembly CompileCode(string code) { Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider(); ICodeCompiler compiler = provider.CreateCompiler(); CompilerParameters compilerparams = new CompilerParameters(); compilerparams.GenerateExecutable = false; compilerparams.GenerateInMemory = false; foreach (Assembly assembly in AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()) { try { string location = assembly.Location; if (!String.IsNullOrEmpty(location)) { compilerparams.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(location); } } catch (NotSupportedException) { // this happens for dynamic assemblies, so just ignore it. } } CompilerResults results = compiler.CompileAssemblyFromSource(compilerparams, code); if (results.Errors.HasErrors) { StringBuilder errors = new StringBuilder("Compiler Errors :\r\n"); foreach (CompilerError error in results.Errors) { errors.AppendFormat("Line {0},{1}\t: {2}\n", error.Line, error.Column, error.ErrorText); } throw new Exception(errors.ToString()); } else { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Load(results.CompiledAssembly.GetName()); return results.CompiledAssembly; } } This bit fails after getting the type from the compiled assembly just fine, it does not seem to be able to find it using Type.GetType.... Assembly assem = RuntimeCodeCompiler.CompileCode(code); string typeName = String.Format("Peverel.AppFramework.Web.GenCode.ObjectDataSourceProxy_{0}", safeTypeName); Type t = assem.GetType(typeName); //This works just fine.. Type doesntWork = Type.GetType(t.AssemblyQualifiedName); Type doesntWork2 = Type.GetType(t.Name); ....

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  • Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • Android AES and init vector

    - by Donald_W
    I have an issue with AES encryptio and decryption: I can change my IV entirely and still I'm able to decode my data. public static final byte[] IV = { 65, 1, 2, 23, 4, 5, 6, 7, 32, 21, 10, 11, 12, 13, 84, 45 }; public static final byte[] IV2 = { 65, 1, 2, 23, 45, 54, 61, 81, 32, 21, 10, 121, 12, 13, 84, 45 }; public static final byte[] KEY = { 0, 42, 2, 54, 4, 45, 6, 7, 65, 9, 54, 11, 12, 13, 60, 15 }; public static final byte[] KEY2 = { 0, 42, 2, 54, 43, 45, 16, 17, 65, 9, 54, 11, 12, 13, 60, 15 }; //public static final int BITS = 256; public static void test() { try { // encryption Cipher c = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); SecretKeySpec keySpec = new SecretKeySpec(KEY, "AES"); c.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, keySpec, new IvParameterSpec(IV)); String s = "Secret message"; byte[] data = s.getBytes(); byte[] encrypted = c.doFinal(data); String encryptedStr = ""; for (int i = 0; i < encrypted.length; i++) encryptedStr += (char) encrypted[i]; //decryoption Cipher d_c = Cipher.getInstance("AES"); SecretKeySpec d_keySpec = new SecretKeySpec(KEY, "AES"); d_c.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, d_keySpec, new IvParameterSpec(IV2)); byte[] decrypted = d_c.doFinal(encrypted); String decryptedStr = ""; for (int i = 0; i < decrypted.length; i++) decryptedStr += (char) decrypted[i]; Log.d("", decryptedStr); } catch (Exception ex) { Log.d("", ex.getMessage()); } } Any ideas what I'm doing wrong? How can I get 256 bit AES encryption (only change key to 32-byte long array?) Encryption is a new topic for me so please for newbie friendly answers.

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  • When do instance variables get initialized and values assigned?

    - by AKh
    When doees the instance variable get initialized? Is it after the constructor block is done or before it? Consider this example: public abstract class Parent { public Parent(){ System.out.println("Parent Constructor"); init(); } public void init(){ System.out.println("parent Init()"); } } public class Child extends Parent { private Integer attribute1; private Integer attribute2 = null; public Child(){ super(); System.out.println("Child Constructor"); } public void init(){ System.out.println("Child init()"); super.init(); attribute1 = new Integer(100); attribute2 = new Integer(200); } public void print(){ System.out.println("attribute 1 : " +attribute1); System.out.println("attribute 2 : " +attribute2); } } public class Tester { public static void main(String[] args) { Parent c = new Child(); ((Child)c).print(); } } OUTPUT: Parent Constructor Child init() parent Init() Child Constructor attribute 1 : 100 attribute 2 : null When the memory for the atribute 1 & 2 are allocated in the heap ? Curious to know why is attribute 2 is NULL ? Are there any design flaws?

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  • C# : Forcing a clean run in a long running SQL reader loop?

    - by Wardy
    I have a SQL data reader that reads 2 columns from a sql db table. once it has done its bit it then starts again selecting another 2 columns. I would pull the whole lot in one go but that presents a whole other set of challenges. My problem is that the table contains a large amount of data (some 3 million rows or so) which makes working with the entire set a bit of a problem. I'm trying to validate the field values so i'm pulling the ID column then one of the other cols and running each value in the column through a validation pipeline where the results are stored in another database. My problem is that when the reader hits the end of handlin one column I need to force it to immediately clean up every little block of ram used as this process uses about 700MB and it has about 200 columns to go through. Without a full Garbage Collect I will definately run out of ram. Anyone got any ideas how I can do this? I'm using lots of small reusable objects, my thought was that I could just call GC.Collect() on the end of each read cycle and that would flush everything out, unfortunately that isn't happening for some reason.

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  • Validation error while putting <h> tag inside <a> tag(document type does not allow element "h2")

    - by makmour
    when using this code: <div class="menu"> <ul id="mainnav"> <li><h2><a href="dir1/" >AAAAA</a></h2> <ul> <li><a href="dir1/xxx.php"><h3>xxx</h3></a></li> <li><a href="dir1/xxx2.php"><h3>xxx2</h3></a></li> <li><a href="dir1/hxxx3.php"><h3>hxxx3</h3></a></li> </ul> </li> I get an error while validating saying that I should put <h2> outside of <a>. document type does not allow element <h2> When I do this validation passes without any problems but my styling breaks. Is there a way to keep both validation and styling? This is styling for menu and <h2> .menu li a{ font: 100% Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif; display:inline-block; color: #fff; } .menu li a:hover{ color: #014661; background: url('../images/menu1.png') center left no-repeat; } .menu li a h2{ font-size: 92%; padding: 8px 18px; font-weight: bold; text-transform: uppercase; } .menu h3{ font-size: 87%; font-weight: bold; text-transform: uppercase; } .menu li a h2:hover{ background: url('../images/menu2.png') center right no-repeat; }

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  • Is Stream.Write thread-safe?

    - by Mike Spross
    I'm working on a client/server library for a legacy RPC implementation and was running into issues where the client would sometimes hang when waiting to a receive a response message to an RPC request message. It turns out the real problem was in my message framing code (I wasn't handling message boundaries correctly when reading data off the underlying NetworkStream), but it also made me suspicious of the code I was using to send data across the network, specifically in the case where the RPC server sends a large amount of data to a client as the result of a client RPC request. My send code uses a BinaryWriter to write a complete "message" to the underlying NetworkStream. The RPC protocol also implements a heartbeat algorithm, where the RPC server sends out PING messages every 15 seconds. The pings are sent out by a separate thread, so, at least in theory, a ping can be sent while the server is in the middle of streaming a large response back to a client. Suppose I have a Send method as follows, where stream is a NetworkStream: public void Send(Message message) { //Write the message to a temporary stream so we can send it all-at-once MemoryStream tempStream = new MemoryStream(); message.WriteToStream(tempStream); //Write the serialized message to the stream. //The BinaryWriter is a little redundant in this //simplified example, but here because //the production code uses it. byte[] data = tempStream.ToArray(); BinaryWriter bw = new BinaryWriter(stream); bw.Write(data, 0, data.Length); bw.Flush(); } So the question I have is, is the call to bw.Write (and by implication the call to the underlying Stream's Write method) atomic? That is, if a lengthy Write is still in progress on the sending thread, and the heartbeat thread kicks in and sends a PING message, will that thread block until the original Write call finishes, or do I have to add explicit synchronization to the Send method to prevent the two Send calls from clobbering the stream?

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  • Looping through a file in VB.NET

    - by Ousman
    I am writing a VB.NET program and I'm trying to accomplish the following: Read and loop through a text file line by line Show the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is pressed The loop will then stop on any number that happened to be at the loop event and When a button is pressed again the loop will continue. Code Imports System.IO Public Class Form1 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, _ FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", _ MsgBoxStyle.Information, _ MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, _ ByVal e As System.EventArgs) _ Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class Problem I'm able to read the text file but my label will only loop if I hit the start button. It goes to the next line, but I want it to continue to loop through the entire file until I hit a button telling it to stop.

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  • how to release object from thid party dll?

    - by Mohamed
    hi all, i'm developing a program to convert RTF to html i'm using the DLLs found here http://www.codeproject.com/KB/recipes/RtfConverter.aspx?fid=1458864&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3427424&fr=1#xx0xx this dll saves a jpg file from html to a specific folder, when i run the program, it cinverts the rtf for the first time and saves the images to the folder perfectly but when i try to convert it again i hace this error "error a generic error occured in GDI+" i think this dll use SaveImage method and to avoid this you must release the Image object you created but i can't modify the DLL, is there is any way to release the object i've created from this dll? this is my code RtfVisualImageAdapter imageAdapter = new RtfVisualImageAdapter( @Application.StartupPath + "\\Program Data\\temp\\{0}{1}", System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); RtfImageConvertSettings imageConvertSettings = new RtfImageConvertSettings(imageAdapter); RtfImageConverter imageConverter = new RtfImageConverter(imageConvertSettings); try { IRtfDocument rtfDocument = RtfInterpreterTool.BuildDoc( ConversionText, imageConverter); RtfHtmlConverter htmlConverter = new RtfHtmlConverter(rtfDocument); htmlConverter.Settings.ConvertVisualHyperlinks = true; htmlConverter.Settings.UseNonBreakingSpaces = true; this.richTextBoxPrintCtrl2.Text = htmlConverter.Convert(); } catch (Exception exception) { MessageBox.Show(this, "Error " + exception.Message, this.Text, MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); }

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  • Presentation Issue in an Unordered List

    - by phreeskier
    I'm having an issue with correctly presenting items in an unordered list. The labels are floating left and the related spans that are long in length are wrapping and showing below the label. I need a solution that keeps the related spans in their respective columns. In other words, I don't want long spans to show under the labels. What property can I take advantage of so that I get the desired layout in all of the popular browsers, including IE6? Thanks in advance for the help. My code is as follows: <ul> <li> <label>Name</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Name) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Entity</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Entity) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Phone</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Phone) %></span> </li> </ul> My CSS styling is as follows: ul { display:block; list-style-type:none; margin:0; padding:0; } ul li label { float:left; width:100px; }

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  • JSoup - Select only one listobject

    - by Zyril
    I'm trying to extract some certain data from a website using JSoup and Java. So far I've been successful in what I'm trying to achieve. <ul class="beverageFacts"> <li><span>Årgång</span><strong>**2009**&nbsp;</strong></li> I want to extract what is inside the ** in the above HTML. I can do this by using the code that follows in JSoup: doc.select("ul.beverageFacts li:lt(1) strong"); I'm using the lt(1) because there are several more list items following that I want to omit. Now to my problem; there's an optional information tab on the site I'm extracting data from, and it also has a class called "beverageFacts". My code will at the moment extract that data too, which I don't want it to do. The code is further down in the source of the website, and I've tried to use the indexer :lt(1) here aswell, but it wont work. <div id="beverageMoreFacts" style="display: block"> <ul class="beverageFacts"><li class="half"> <span> Färg</span><strong> Ljusgul färg.</strong> My overall result is that I extract "2009 Ljusgul färg." instead of only "2009". How can I write my code so it will only extract the first part, which it succesfully does, and omits the rest? EDIT: I get the same result using: doc.select("ul.beverageFacts li:eq(0) strong"); Thanks, Z

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  • Multiple UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward not only false but make inferring the actual url impossi

    - by SG1
    I have a UIWebView and a UITextField for the url. Naturally, I want the textField to always show the current document url. This works fine for urls directly input in the field, but I also have some buttons attached to the view for reload, back, and forward. So I've added all the UIWebViewDelegate methods to my controller, so it can listen to whenever the webView navigates and change the url in the textField as needed. Here's how I'm using the shouldStartLoadWithRequest: method: - (BOOL)webView:(UIWebView *)webView shouldStartLoadWithRequest:(NSURLRequest *)request navigationType:(UIWebViewNavigationType)navigationType { NSLog(@"navigated via %d", navigationType); //loads the user cares about if ( navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeLinkClicked || navigationType == UIWebViewNavigationTypeBackForward ) { //URL setting [self setUrlQuietly:request.URL]; } return YES; } Now, my problem here is that an actual click will generate a single navigation of type "LinkClicked" followed by a dozen type "Other" (redirects and ad loads I assume), which gets handled correctly by the code, but a back/forward action will generate all its requests as back/forward requests. In other words, a click calls setUrlQuietly: once, but a back/forward calls it multiple times. I am trying to use this method to determine if the user actually initiated the action (and I'd like to catch page redirects too). But if the method has no way of distinguishing between an actual "back" and a "load initiated as a result of a back", how can I make this assessment? Without this, I am completely stumped as to how I can only show the actual url and not intermediate urls. Thank you!

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  • ObjectOutputStream .writeObject

    - by bigbluedragon
    hey i have some problems with this code... This is a JDialogForm in which I have jTextField and button. I want to save data from this Jtextfield when i click button to use it in another window but i don't know why it doesn't work. I always get Exception ek and the message i have put there. private void jButton1ActionPerformed(java.awt.event.ActionEvent evt) { String sciezka = jTextField1.getText(); if (sciezka.length() > 0) { Zmienne_pomocnicze zp = new Zmienne_pomocnicze(); zp.setPrzechowaj(sciezka); try { ObjectOutputStream oos = new ObjectOutputStream (new FileOutputStream("danebaza")); oos.writeObject(zp); oos.close(); } catch(Exception ek) { JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null, "Nie mozna pobrac nazwy_przedmiotu: " + ek); } } this.setVisible(false); } where class Zmienne_pomocnicze looks like this public class Zmienne_pomocnicze { public String n; public void setPrzechowaj (String neew){ n = neew; } public String getPrzechowaj () { return n; } } i guess the problem is with oos.writeObject(zp); but i don't know why.

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  • Objective C Enumerate Sentences in a paragraph

    - by Faz Ya
    I would like to write an enumerator that would go through a paragraph of text and gives me one sentence at a time. I tried using stringEnumerate with the NSStringEnumerationBySentences but that simply looks at the periods and fails. For example, lets say I have the following text Block: "Senator John A. Boehner decided not to move forward. He also decided not to call the congress. The news reporter said though...." I would like my function to break down the above paragraph in the following sentences: Senator John A. Boehner decided not to move forward He also decided not to call the congress (No third sentence because it's a half a sentence) The String Enumerator with the sentence optionjust looks at the periods and breaks down that way which is wrong: Senator John A. Boehner decided not to move forward He also decided not to call the congress The news reporter said though.... Is there any library or function that I can call that does a better job at this? Thanks - (NSMutableString *) getOnlyFullSentencesFromTextBlock:(NSMutableString *) textBlock{ [textBlock enumerateSubstringsInRange:NSMakeRange(0, [textBlock length]) options:NSStringEnumerationBySentences | NSStringEnumerationLocalized usingBlock:^(NSString *substring, NSRange substringRange, NSRange enclosingRange, BOOL *stop) { NSLog(@"Sentence Frag:%@", substring); }]; return textBlock; }

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  • Tower of Hanoi, stop sliding

    - by ArtWorkAD
    Hi, I developed a solution for the Tower of Hanoi problem: public static void bewege(int h, char quelle, char ablage, char ziel) { if(h > 0){ bewege(h - 1, quelle, ziel, ablage); System.out.println("Move "+ h +" from " + quelle + " to " + ziel); bewege(h - 1, ablage, quelle, ziel); } } It works fine. Now i want to limit the number of slides and throw an exception if a certain limit is reached. I tried it with a counter but it does not work: class HanoiNK{ public static void main(String args[]){ Integer n = Integer.parseInt(args[0]); Integer k = Integer.parseInt(args[1]); try{ bewege(k, n, 'A', 'B', 'C'); }catch(Exception e){ System.out.println(e); } } public static void bewege(int c, int h, char quelle, char ablage, char ziel) throws Exception{ if(h > 0){ if(counter != 0){ bewege(c, h - 1, quelle, ziel, ablage); c--; System.out.println("Move "+ h +" from " + quelle + " to " + ziel); bewege(c, h - 1, ablage, quelle, ziel); c--; }else{ throw new Exception("stop sliding"); } } } } The exception is never thrown. Any ideas?

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  • Alignment in assembly

    - by jena
    Hi, I'm spending some time on assembly programming (Gas, in particular) and recently I learned about the align directive. I think I've understood the very basics, but I would like to gain a deeper understanding of its nature and when to use alignment. For instance, I wondered about the assembly code of a simple C++ switch statement. I know that under certain circumstances switch statements are based on jump tables, as in the following few lines of code: .section .rodata .align 4 .align 4 .L8: .long .L2 .long .L3 .long .L4 .long .L5 ... .align 4 aligns the following data on the next 4-byte boundary which ensures that fetching these memory locations is efficient, right? I think this is done because there might be things happening before the switch statement which caused misalignment. But why are there actually two calls to .align? Are there any rules of thumb when to call .align or should it simply be done whenever a new block of data is stored in memory and something prior to this could have caused misalignment? In case of arrays, it seems that alignment is done on 32-byte boundaries as soon as the array occupies at least 32 byte. Is it more efficient to do it this way or is there another reason for the 32-byte boundary? I'd appreciate any explanation or hint on literature.

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  • Colorizing as SAS Map

    - by user601828
    I'm trying to generate a map in SAS where I would like to to make gradual color changes which correspond to my results. So the higher the counts the more intense the color changes. Also I would like to add state labels to the map. Here is my code, so far it produces a white map with varying degress of blue blocks. I'd like the states colored in intense colors, like red, bright pink,brilliant, blues and greens. Can anyone please help me modify the code to add state labels and colorize the map, and below the map add a table summarizing the statistics, like counts and percentages. Thanks in advance. goptions gunit=pct cback=white htitle=4 htext=3 colors=(PAGY LIY STY DEGY dark_yellow very_dark_yellow ) ; title "My Map Results"; proc gmap map=maps.us data=My_data all; id state; block person_per_event/levels=6; choro person_per_event/levels=6; run; quit; I looked at his page before for example if I wanted to make a map like this one http://robslink.com/SAS/democd61/election_2012.htm with my data. I tried modifying the code that he gives on the link, but wasnt very successful. I would like to use that map along with the state labels and keep the colors and represent my data with blocks in the corresponding locations with city and state, and high level counts. The rest of the summary statistics I would like to summarize in a colorful table next to the map, like a dashboard of sorts. Appreciate any help in advance. Thanks, -rachel

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  • Where do I put javaassist code?

    - by DutrowLLC
    I have an application running on google app engine. I'm using restlets and I have a couple of layers set up including the restlet layer, the model layer, the business layer, and the data layer. I'm attempting to use javaassist to modify some classes, but I'm unsure where to actually put the code. I tried to put the code in the static initialization block: public class Person { String firstName; String getFirstName(){return null;} static{ ClassPool pool = ClassPool.getDefault(); try { CtClass CtPerson = pool.get("Person"); CtMethod CtGetFirstName = CtPerson.getDeclaredMethod("GetFirstName"); CtGetFirstName.setBody("return firstName;"); CtPerson.toClass(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } ...but that resulted in this error: javassist.CannotCompileException:.....attempted duplicate class definition...". I guess it makes sense that I can't edit the class file in the middle of its generation. I know the code works because I was able to run it correctly by simply putting it in a location that would run when I sent the program a command. (accessed a Restlet resource). The code ran fine if an instance of the class had not already been instantiated, however once I instantiated an instance of the affected class, the javaassist code failed. I assume I need to put this code somewhere that it will only run either: once after the program starts, directly before a class is instantiated for the first time, or even better, during compile time.

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  • Changing html content of a div before and after ajax request

    - by R27
    I am trying to change the button "ADD" (in a div) to some text/img as soon as it is clicked. And after the ajax request is processed, in the success block , I want the div to get the button back. I see the ajax request is itself not getting processed. Can someone explain whats my mistake. I just removed the jsfiddle link and pasting the script here to avoid confusion about the dependencies. JS script var ajax_load = "Please wait..."; jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("#add_button").click(function(event){ var st = $("#add_div").html(); $("#add_div").html(ajax_load); $("#sform").validate({ errorClass: "error", submitHandler: function (form) { alert('inside submit'); $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: 'form.cgi', data: $("#sform").serialize(), success: function (msg) { alert('msg'); $("#add_div").html(st); $("#sform")[0].reset(); } }); } }); }); }); And the html piece is <form id=sform>LABEL <input id=field1 type=text> <div id="add_div"> <input type="button" value="ADD" id="add_button"> </div> </form> I have jquery.validate.min.js script included.

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  • A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detected: Dealing with these errors proactively, or a

    - by Albert
    I'm noticing this error more and more in my error logs. I've read through the questions here talking about this error, but they don't address what I would like to do (see below). I'm considering three options, in the order of preference: 1) When submitting a form (I use formviews almost exclusively, if that helps), if potentially dangerous characters are detected, automatically strip them out and submit. 2) When submitting a form, if potentially dangerous characters are detected, alert the user and let them fix it before trying again. 3) After the exception is generated, deal with it and alert the user. I'm hoping one of the first two options might be able to do somewhat globally...I know for the 3rd I'd have to alter a TON of Try-Catch blocks I already have in place. Doable, but labor intensive. I'd rather be proactive about it if at all possible and avoid the exception all together. Perhaps one approach to #1 would be to write a block of code that could loop through all text entry fields in a formview, during the insert/update event, and strip the characters out. I'm ok with that, but I'd rather not have to heavily alter all my Insert/Update events to accomplish this. Or maybe I just create a different class to do the text checking/deleting, and only insert 1 line of code in each Insert/Update event. If anyone can come up with some example code of any of these approaches that would be a help. Thanks for any ideas or information. I'm definitely open to other solutions too; these are only the 3 that came to mind. I can say that I don't want to turn request validation off though.

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  • Problem when get pageContent of URL in java ?

    - by tiendv
    Hi all ! i have a code for get pagecontent from a URL here is code ! import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStreamReader; import java.net.URL; import java.net.URLConnection; public class GetPageFromURLAction extends Thread { public String stringPageContent; public String targerURL; public String getPageContent(String targetURL) throws IOException { String returnString=""; URL urlString = new URL(targetURL); URLConnection openConnection = urlString.openConnection(); String temp; BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(openConnection.getInputStream())); while ((temp = in.readLine()) != null) { returnString += temp + "\n"; } in.close(); // String nohtml = sb.toString().replaceAll("\\<.*?>",""); return returnString; } public String getStringPageContent() { return stringPageContent; } public void setStringPageContent(String stringPageContent) { this.stringPageContent = stringPageContent; } public String getTargerURL() { return targerURL; } public void setTargerURL(String targerURL) { this.targerURL = targerURL; } @Override public void run() { try { this.stringPageContent=this.getPageContent(targerURL); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } The problem is : 1 Some time i receive a error lik 405 ,or 403 HTTP error ... and result string is null . To repair i check permission to connect URL but it usualy return null URLConnection openConnection = urlString.openConnection(); openConnection.getPermission( ) is mean that i don't have permission to acess link ? To get resultString without HTML Tag ? i do like that String nohtml = sb.toString().replaceAll("\<.*?",""); Para sb is Stringbulder , but it can't remove all HTML Tab in string return ? I use thread here because i must get page alot of url , so how can i cread a multi thread to impro speed of program ! Thanks

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  • How to get the coordinates of an image mouse click in the event handler?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    In the following WPF app, I have an Image in a ContentControl. When the user clicks on the image, how can I get the x/y coordinates of where the mouse clicked on the image? XAML: <Window x:Class="TestClick828374.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel Margin="10"> <ContentControl Content="{Binding TheImage}" MouseDown="ContentControl_MouseDown"/> </StackPanel> </Window> Code-Behind: using System; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.ComponentModel; namespace TestClick828374 { public partial class Window1 : Window, INotifyPropertyChanged { #region ViewModelProperty: TheImage private Image _theImage; public Image TheImage { get { return _theImage; } set { _theImage = value; OnPropertyChanged("TheImage"); } } #endregion public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = this; TheImage = new Image(); TheImage.Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\test\rectangle.png")); TheImage.Stretch = Stretch.None; TheImage.HorizontalAlignment = HorizontalAlignment.Left; } #region INotifiedProperty Block public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; protected void OnPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { PropertyChangedEventHandler handler = PropertyChanged; if (handler != null) { handler(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } #endregion private void ContentControl_MouseDown(object sender, System.Windows.Input.MouseButtonEventArgs e) { //how to get the coordinates of the mouse click here on the image? } } }

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  • Is it possible for a function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope?

    - by Elliot Bonneville
    I can't think of a way to explain what I'm after more than I've done in the title, so I'll repeat it. Is it possible for an anonymous function called from within an object to have access to that object's scope? The following code block should explain what I'm trying to do better than I can: function myObj(testFunc) { this.testFunc = testFunc; this.Foo = function Foo(test) { this.test = test; this.saySomething = function(text) { alert(text); }; }; var Foo = this.Foo; this.testFunc.apply(this); } var test = new myObj(function() { var test = new Foo(); test.saySomething("Hello world"); }); When I run this, I get an error: "Foo is not defined." How do I ensure that Foo will be defined when I call the anonymous function? Here's a jsFiddle for further experimentation. Edit: I am aware of the fact that adding the line var Foo = this.Foo; to the anonymous function I pass in to my instance of myObj will make this work. However, I'd like to avoid having to expose the variable inside the anonymous function--do I have any other options?.

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