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  • Struggling with ASP.NET MVC auto-scaffolder template

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder template for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // How do I make this generic? var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { HtmlHelper itemHtml = ????; // What should I put in place of "????"? %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= itemHtml.Display(property.DisplayName) %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. A property Html is automatically created for me when the view is created, but this HtmlHelper applies to the whole collection. I need to somehow create an itemHtml object that applies just to the current item in the foreach loop. I'm not sure how to do this, however, because the constructors for HtmlHelper don't take a Model object. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

    - by Dennis P
    I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

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  • feeling insufficient while looking for a programming job ...

    - by user325661
    Hello everybody It's really dream to be programmer for me.So i always wanted to be .I had so small knowledges from commodore basic which i couldn't figure out anything in it .Then i tried to learn Visual basic 6 by myself and result wasn't good as i expected because i even didn't understand classes.Then i left to learning programming and to dream to be programmer. But challenge hadn't finished yet . After all of these i started to learn c# and i did chess engine which i hadn't believe that i can create one.I sometimes feel that i understand many thing about programming like knowing classes ,inheritance,abstract class and methods why exist , interfaces ,extension methods ,static classes ,threads. but i am not expert all in it . i just know that as i need . i don't know still i will learn many thing about these.i have also learned html, css2 , php and database concepts a little sql ,tables relations between primary keys etc but i haven't used them in praticaly . i just did some samples so i feel i am lack of knowledges. As a result still i can't evaluate my skills and can't decide what is my level.I just feel myself one step ahead of junior sometimes :) . Still can't decide that it is time to job seeking. While searching job on web i have never seen a junior advertisement. All looking for a good experiencing one.Nobody care about juniors. When found job advertisement which i feel sufficient myself a little then i start to feel that i think i can't do what they want from me and loosing job after have it in short time would leave many crap feelings into my low self-confidence. Please advise me something ... Also i want to ask some of concentrate questions. 1) If i enter a job which i can't provide their expectations should be in employers responsibility to test me while apply the job ? 2) If i answer "yes , i can " questions which is abstract(for example: can u do something like this) would be my responsibility ? Because such abstract questions is not clear and can't know before start it what i really can or not . 3) i have no professional experiences in this job so i even don't know how teams working on projects but a friend of me said that programmers only write method bodies while seniors create all project.So it looks what i can do really easy but i feel that small companies doesn't work like this so it is better work in a big company for starting who has seniors? 4)last applied job was looking for c# . net developer but then i learn that they need .net web developer.Does it take long time to learn specific sides of web programming while knowing c# desktop programming ? Thanks for all answers since now.

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  • Many-To-Many Query with Linq-To-NHibernate

    - by rjygraham
    Ok guys (and gals), this one has been driving me nuts all night and I'm turning to your collective wisdom for help. I'm using Fluent Nhibernate and Linq-To-NHibernate as my data access story and I have the following simplified DB structure: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Classes]( [Id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [nvarchar](100) NOT NULL, [StartDate] [datetime2](7) NOT NULL, [EndDate] [datetime2](7) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Classes] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Sections]( [Id] [bigint] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [ClassId] [bigint] NOT NULL, [InternalCode] [varchar](10) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Sections] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[SectionStudents]( [SectionId] [bigint] NOT NULL, [UserId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_SectionStudents] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [SectionId] ASC, [UserId] ASC ) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[aspnet_Users]( [ApplicationId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [UserId] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [UserName] [nvarchar](256) NOT NULL, [LoweredUserName] [nvarchar](256) NOT NULL, [MobileAlias] [nvarchar](16) NULL, [IsAnonymous] [bit] NOT NULL, [LastActivityDate] [datetime] NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [UserId] ASC ) I omitted the foreign keys for brevity, but essentially this boils down to: A Class can have many Sections. A Section can belong to only 1 Class but can have many Students. A Student (aspnet_Users) can belong to many Sections. I've setup the corresponding Model classes and Fluent NHibernate Mapping classes, all that is working fine. Here's where I'm getting stuck. I need to write a query which will return the sections a student is enrolled in based on the student's UserId and the dates of the class. Here's what I've tried so far: 1. var sections = (from s in this.Session.Linq<Sections>() where s.Class.StartDate <= DateTime.UtcNow && s.Class.EndDate > DateTime.UtcNow && s.Students.First(f => f.UserId == userId) != null select s); 2. var sections = (from s in this.Session.Linq<Sections>() where s.Class.StartDate <= DateTime.UtcNow && s.Class.EndDate > DateTime.UtcNow && s.Students.Where(w => w.UserId == userId).FirstOrDefault().Id == userId select s); Obviously, 2 above will fail miserably if there are no students matching userId for classes the current date between it's start and end dates...but I just wanted to try. The filters for the Class StartDate and EndDate work fine, but the many-to-many relation with Students is proving to be difficult. Everytime I try running the query I get an ArgumentNullException with the message: Value cannot be null. Parameter name: session I've considered going down the path of making the SectionStudents relation a Model class with a reference to Section and a reference to Student instead of a many-to-many. I'd like to avoid that if I can, and I'm not even sure it would work that way. Thanks in advance to anyone who can help. Ryan

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  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

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  • question about book example - Java Concurrency in Practice, Listing 4.12

    - by mike
    Hi, I am working through an example in Java Concurrency in Practice and am not understanding why a concurrent-safe container is necessary in the following code. I'm not seeing how the container "locations" 's state could be modified after construction; so since it is published through an 'unmodifiableMap' wrapper, it appears to me that an ordinary HashMap would suffice. EG, it is accessed concurrently, but the state of the map is only accessed by readers, no writers. The value fields in the map are syncronized via delegation to the 'SafePoint' class, so while the points are mutable, the keys for the hash, and their associated values (references to SafePoint instances) in the map never change. I think my confusion is based on what precisely the state of the collection is in the problem. Thanks!! -Mike Listing 4.12, Java Concurrency in Practice, (this listing available as .java here, and also in chapter form via google) /////////////begin code @ThreadSafe public class PublishingVehicleTracker { private final Map<String, SafePoint> locations; private final Map<String, SafePoint> unmodifiableMap; public PublishingVehicleTracker( Map<String, SafePoint> locations) { this.locations = new ConcurrentHashMap<String, SafePoint>(locations); this.unmodifiableMap = Collections.unmodifiableMap(this.locations); } public Map<String, SafePoint> getLocations() { return unmodifiableMap; } public SafePoint getLocation(String id) { return locations.get(id); } public void setLocation(String id, int x, int y) { if (!locations.containsKey(id)) throw new IllegalArgumentException( "invalid vehicle name: " + id); locations.get(id).set(x, y); } } // monitor protected helper-class @ThreadSafe public class SafePoint { @GuardedBy("this") private int x, y; private SafePoint(int[] a) { this(a[0], a[1]); } public SafePoint(SafePoint p) { this(p.get()); } public SafePoint(int x, int y) { this.x = x; this.y = y; } public synchronized int[] get() { return new int[] { x, y }; } public synchronized void set(int x, int y) { this.x = x; this.y = y; } } ///////////end code

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  • How to manage multiple versions of the same record

    - by Darvis Lombardo
    I am doing short-term contract work for a company that is trying to implement a check-in/check-out type of workflow for their database records. Here's how it should work... 1) A user creates a new entity within the application. There are about 20 related tables that will be populated in addition to the main entity table. 2) Once the entity is created the user will mark it as the master. 3) Another user can make changes to the master only by "checking out" the entity. Multiple users can checkout the entity at the same time. 4) Once the user has made all the necessary changes to the entity, they put it in a "needs approval" status. 5) After an authorized user reviews the entity, they can promote it to master which will put the original record in a tombstoned status. The way they are currently accomplishing the "check out" is by duplicating the entity records in all the tables. The primary keys include EntityID + EntityDate, so they duplicate the entity records in all related tables with the same EntityID and an updated EntityDate and give it a status of "checked out". When the record is put into the next state (needs approval), the duplication occurs again. Eventually it will be promoted to master at which time the final record is marked as master and the original master is marked as dead. This design seems hideous to me, but I understand why they've done it. When someone looks up an entity from within the application, they need to see all current versions of that entity. This was a very straightforward way for making that happen. But the fact that they are representing the same entity multiple times within the same table(s) doesn't sit well with me, nor does the fact that they are duplicating EVERY piece of data rather than only storing deltas. I would be interested in hearing your reaction to the design, whether positive or negative. I would also be grateful for any resoures you can point me to that might be useful for seeing how someone else has implemented such a mechanism. Thanks! Darvis

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  • Zend Table Relationship Modeling with Composite Key

    - by emeraldjava
    I have a table with a composite primary key using four columns. mysql> describe leaguesummary; +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra | +------------------------+------------------+------+-----+---------+----------------+ | leagueid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | auto_increment | | leaguetype | enum('I','T') | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueparticipantid | int(10) unsigned | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leaguestandard | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | | leaguedivision | varchar(5) | NO | PRI | NULL | | | leagueposition | int(10) unsigned | NO | | NULL | | I have the league object modelled as so (all plain enough mappings) <?php class Model_DbTable_League extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = 'league'; protected $_primary = 'id'; protected $_dependentTables = array('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary'); And I've started like this on the new model class. I've mapped a simple reference map which returns all rows linked to the league id. // http://files.zend.com/help/Zend-Framework/zend.db.table.relationships.html // http://naneau.nl/2007/04/21/a-zend-framework-tutorial-part-one/ class Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary extends Zend_Db_Table_Abstract { protected $_name = "leaguesummary"; protected $_primary = array('leagueid', 'leaguetype','leagueparticipantid','leaguedivision'); protected $_referenceMap = array( 'Summary' => array( 'columns' => array('leagueid'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array('id') ), ..... ); } ?> The simple case works when called from my controller public function listAction() { // action body $leagueTable = new Model_DbTable_League(); $this->view->leagues = $leagueTable->getLeagues(); $league = $leagueTable->getLeague(6); // work $summary = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','Summary'); Zend_Debug::dump($summary,"",true); I'm not sure how i can define extra _referenceMap keys which will take extra contraint ket values. I would like to be able to define a set called 'MenA' in which the type and division values are hardcoded, and the league id is taken from the initial rowset. 'MenA' =>array( 'columns' => array('leagueid','leaguetype','leaguedivision'), 'refTableClass' => 'Model_DbTable_League', 'refColumns' => array("id","I","A") ) Is this style of mapping possible ie hardcoding the values into the 'refColumns'. The second crazy idea i had was to pass the variable values in as part of the third param of the findDependentRowset() method. $menA = $league->findDependentRowset('Model_DbTable_LeagueSummary','MenA',array("I","A")); Any suggestions on how I might use the Zend DB Table Relationship mapping correctly to do this would be appreciated. I'm not interested in the plain, old and ugly $db-select(a,b,c)-where(..) style solution.

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  • SQLAlchemy unsupported type error - and table design issues?

    - by Az
    Hi there, back again with some more SQLAlchemy shenanigans. Let me step through this. My table is now set up as so: engine = create_engine('sqlite:///:memory:', echo=False) metadata = MetaData() students_table = Table('studs', metadata, Column('sid', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String), Column('preferences', Integer), Column('allocated_rank', Integer), Column('allocated_project', Integer) ) metadata.create_all(engine) mapper(Student, students_table) Fairly simple, and for the most part I've been enjoying the ability to query almost any bit of information I want provided I avoid the error cases below. The class it is mapped from is: class Student(object): def __init__(self, sid, name): self.sid = sid self.name = name self.preferences = collections.defaultdict(set) self.allocated_project = None self.allocated_rank = 0 def __repr__(self): return str(self) def __str__(self): return "%s %s" %(self.sid, self.name) Explanation: preferences is basically a set of all the projects the student would prefer to be assigned. When the allocation algorithm kicks in, a student's allocated_project emerges from this preference set. Now if I try to do this: for student in students.itervalues(): session.add(student) session.commit() It throws two errors, one for the allocated_project column (seen below) and a similar error for the preferences column: sqlalchemy.exc.InterfaceError: (InterfaceError) Error binding parameter 4 - probably unsupported type. u'INSERT INTO studs (sid, name, allocated_rank, allocated_project) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?, ?)' [1101, 'Muffett,M.', 1, 888 Human-spider relationships (Supervisor id: 123)] If I go back into my code I find that, when I'm copying the preferences from the given text files, it actually refers to the Project class which is mapped to a dictionary, using the unique project id's (pid) as keys. Thus, as I iterate through each student via their rank and to the preferences set, it adds not a project id, but the reference to the project id from the projects dictionary. students[sid].preferences[int(rank)].add(projects[int(pid)]) Now this is very useful to me since I can find out all I want to about a student's preferred projects without having to run another check to pull up information about the project id. The form you see in the error has the object print information passed as: return "%s %s (Supervisor id: %s)" %(self.proj_id, self.proj_name, self.proj_sup) My questions are: I'm trying to store an object in a database field aren't I? Would the correct way then, be copying the project information (project id, name, etc) into its own table, referenced by the unique project id? That way I can just have the project id field for one of the student tables just be an integer id and when I need more information, just join the tables? So and so forth for other tables? If the above makes sense, then how does one maintain the relationship with a column of information in one table which is a key index on another table? Does this boil down into a database design problem? Are there any other elegant ways of accomplishing this? Apologies if this is a very long-winded question. It's rather crucial for me to solve this, so I've tried to explain as much as I can, whilst attempting to show that I'm trying (key word here sadly) to understand what could be going wrong.

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • Animating a pulsing UILabel?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I am trying to animate the color the the text on a UILabel to pulse from: [Black] to [White] to [Black] and repeat. - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:0.0]]; [UIView animateWithDuration:1 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:1.0]];} completion:nil]; } . [self setFadeTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(timerFlash:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]]; Firstly I am not sure of my method, my plan (as you can see above) was to set up a animation block and call it using a repeating NSTimer until canceled. My second problem (as you can see above) is that I am animating from black (alpha 0) to white (alpha 1) but I don't know how to animate back to black again so the animation loops seamlessly Essentially what I want is the text color to pulse on a UILabel until the user presses a button to continue. EDIT_001: I was getting into trouble because you can't animate [UILabel setColor:] you can however animated [UILabel setAlpha:] so I am going to give that a go. EDIT_002: - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.5]; [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.9];} completion:nil]; } This works (BTW: I do want it to stop which is why I hooked it up to a NSTimer so I can cancel that) the only thing is that this animates from midGray to nearWhite and then pops back. Does anyone know how I would animate back from nearWhite to midGray so I get a nice smooth cycle? EDIT_003: (Solution) The code suggested by dave DeLong (see below) does indeed work when modified to use the CALayer opacity style attribute: UILabel *navTitle; @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *navTitle; . // ADD ANIMATION CABasicAnimation *anim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; [anim setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]]; [anim setFromValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.5]]; [anim setToValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]]; [anim setAutoreverses:YES]; [anim setDuration:0.5]; [[[self navTitle] layer] addAnimation:anim forKey:@"flash"]; . // REMOVE ANIMATION [[[self navTitle] layer] removeAnimationForKey:@"flash__"];

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  • How to define an extern, C struct returning function in C++ using MSVC?

    - by DK
    The following source file will not compile with the MSVC compiler (v15.00.30729.01): /* stest.c */ #ifdef __cplusplus extern "C" { #endif struct Test; extern struct Test make_Test(int x); struct Test { int x; }; extern struct Test make_Test(int x) { struct Test r; r.x = x; return r; } #ifdef __cplusplus } #endif Compiling with cl /c /Tpstest.c produces the following error: stest.c(8) : error C2526: 'make_Test' : C linkage function cannot return C++ class 'Test' stest.c(6) : see declaration of 'Test' Compiling without /Tp (which tells cl to treat the file as C++) works fine. The file also compiles fine in DigitalMars C and GCC (from mingw) in both C and C++ modes. I also used -ansi -pedantic -Wall with GCC and it had no complaints. For reasons I will go into below, we need to compile this file as C++ for MSVC (not for the others), but with functions being compiled as C. In essence, we want a normal C compiler... except for about six lines. Is there a switch or attribute or something I can add that will allow this to work? The code in question (though not the above; that's just a reduced example) is being produced by a code generator. As part of this, we need to be able to generate floating point nans and infinities as constants (long story), meaning we have to compile with MSVC in C++ mode in order to actually do this. We only found one solution that works, and it only works in C++ mode. We're wrapping the code in extern "C" {...} because we want to control the mangling and calling convention so that we can interface with existing C code. ... also because I trust C++ compilers about as far as I could throw a smallish department store. I also tried wrapping just the reinterpret_cast line in extern "C++" {...}, but of course that doesn't work. Pity. There is a potential solution I found which requires reordering the declarations such that the full struct definition comes before the function foward decl., but this is very inconvenient due to the way the codegen is performed, so I'd really like to avoid having to go down that road if I can.

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  • JSON.Net: deserializing polymorphic types without specifying the assembly

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    I see that using JSON.Net, I can decode polymorphic objects if a $type attribute specifies the specific type of the JSON object. In all the examples I've seen, $type includes the namespace. Is it possible to make this work including just a simple typename without the assembly? I'd be happy to specify a default assembly to the JsonSerializer if thats possible I am able to deserialize the JSON using: public class SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder : SerializationBinder { private readonly Assembly _assembly; private Dictionary _typesBySimpleName = new Dictionary(StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase); private Dictionary _simpleNameByType = new Dictionary(); public SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(Assembly assembly) { _assembly = assembly; _typesBySimpleName = new Dictionary<string, Type>(); foreach (var type in _assembly.GetTypes().Where(t => t.IsPublic)) { if (_typesBySimpleName.ContainsKey(type.Name)) throw new InvalidOperationException("Cannot user PolymorphicBinder on a namespace where multiple public types have same name."); _typesBySimpleName[type.Name] = type; _simpleNameByType[type] = type.Name; } } public override Type BindToType(string assemblyName, string typeName) { Type result; if (_typesBySimpleName.TryGetValue(typeName.Trim(), out result)) return result; return null; } public override void BindToName(Type serializedType, out string assemblyName, out string typeName) { string name; if (_simpleNameByType.TryGetValue(serializedType, out name)) { typeName = name; assemblyName = null;// _assembly.FullName; } else { typeName = null; assemblyName = null; } } } ... public static JsonSerializerSettings GetJsonSerializationSettings() { var settings = new JsonSerializerSettings(); settings.Binder = new SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(typeof(MvcApplication).Assembly); settings.TypeNameHandling = TypeNameHandling.Objects; return settings; } .... var serializer = JsonSerializer.Create(settings); I haven't been able to make this work with MVC though, I'm configuring json deserialization per the code below in Application_Start, and the object is deserialized, but using the base type one. GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.Binder = new SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(this.GetType().Assembly); GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.TypeNameHandling = TypeNameHandling.All; GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.TypeNameAssemblyFormat = FormatterAssemblyStyle.Simple;

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  • IE6 CSS tooltip not appearing

    - by Lauren
    I'm using a tooltip that works in FF, Chrome, and IE7-8, but in IE6 it doesn't appear. You can go to this page http://www.avaline.com/ Bags/ Eco-Friendly-Bags/R1500 and login with [email protected] password:test02, then hit the "add to cart" button and hover over the question marks to see (or not see) the tooltips. This is the relevant HTML and CSS: <DIV class=oewBox id=oewImpLocDiv style="BACKGROUND-IMAGE: url(/images/img/org4.gif)"> <A class=tooltip href="#"><SPAN class=""><STRONG>More than 2 imprint locations?</STRONG> Test </SPAN></A> </DIV> <style> /* Rule from element "style" attribute */ element.style { BACKGROUND-IMAGE: url(/images/img/org4.gif) } /* Rule N°8 from inline stylesheet */ .oewBox { PADDING-RIGHT: 8px; PADDING-LEFT: 40px; PADDING-BOTTOM: 16px; MARGIN: 0px 0px 6px; PADDING-TOP: 6px; BORDER-BOTTOM: #ff7c14 3px solid } /* Rule N°7 from inline stylesheet */ .oewBox { BACKGROUND-POSITION: 0px 0px; BACKGROUND-IMAGE: none; BACKGROUND-REPEAT: no-repeat } /* Rule N°11 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:active { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: none } /* Rule N°10 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:hover { COLOR: #000; TEXT-DECORATION: none } /* Rule N°9 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:visited { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°8 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A:link { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°7 from /site/av-files/mainstyles.css */ A { COLOR: #3b88c4; TEXT-DECORATION: underline } /* Rule N°52 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip { BACKGROUND: url(/images/img/question.gif) no-repeat; FLOAT: right; WIDTH: 19px; HEIGHT: 20px } /* Rule N°54 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip:hover SPAN { BORDER-RIGHT: #ff7c14 1px solid; BORDER-TOP: #ff7c14 1px solid; DISPLAY: inline; BACKGROUND: #ffffff; BORDER-LEFT: #ff7c14 1px solid; COLOR: #000; BORDER-BOTTOM: #ff7c14 1px solid; POSITION: absolute } /* Rule N°53 from inline stylesheet */ A.tooltip SPAN { PADDING-RIGHT: 3px; DISPLAY: none; PADDING-LEFT: 3px; FONT-WEIGHT: normal; FONT-SIZE: 11px; PADDING-BOTTOM: 2px; MARGIN-LEFT: -245px; WIDTH: 230px; PADDING-TOP: 2px } </style>

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  • What is the most effective way to test for combined keyboard arrow direction in ActionScript 3.0?

    - by Relee
    I need to monitor the direction a user is indicating using the four directional arrow keys on a keyboard in ActionScript 3.0 and I want to know the most efficient and effective way to do this. I've got several ideas of how to do it, and I'm not sure which would be best. I've found that when tracking Keyboard.KEY_DOWN events, the event repeats as long as the key is down, so the event function is repeated as well. This broke the method I had originally chosen to use, and the methods I've been able to think of require a lot of comparison operators. The best way I've been able to think of would be to use bitwise operators on a uint variable. Here's what I'm thinking var _direction:uint = 0x0; // The Current Direction That's the current direction variable. In the Keyboard.KEY_DOWN event handler I'll have it check what key is down, and use a bitwise AND operation to see if it's already toggled on, and if it's not, I'll add it in using basic addition. So, up would be 0x1 and down would be 0x2 and both up and down would be 0x3, for example. It would look something like this: private function keyDownHandler(e:KeyboardEvent):void { switch(e.keyCode) { case Keyboard.UP: if(!(_direction & 0x1)) _direction += 0x1; break; case Keyboard.DOWN: if(!(_direction & 0x2)) _direction += 0x2; break; // And So On... } } The keyUpHandler wouldn't need the if operation since it only triggers once when the key goes up, instead of repeating. I'll be able to test the current direction by using a switch statement labeled with numbers from 0 to 15 for the sixteen possible combinations. That should work, but it doesn't seem terribly elegant to me, given all of the if statements in the repeating keyDown event handler, and the huge switch. private function checkDirection():void { switch(_direction) { case 0: // Center break; case 1: // Up break; case 2: // Down break; case 3: // Up and Down break; case 4: // Left break; // And So On... } } Is there a better way to do this?

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  • Array within Form collecting multiple values with the same name possible?

    - by JM4
    Good afternoon, I will first start with the goal I am trying to accomplish and then give a very basic sample of what I need to do. Goal Instead of collecting several variables and naming them with keys individually, I have decided to give in and use an array structure to handle all inputs of the same type and rules. Once I have the variables, I will validate against them and if 'ok' store them in a MySQL table. The table will hold consumer information and will need to store multiple rows of the same type of information. First Pass I will leave out the validation portion of this question because I feel I need to first understand the basics. <form action="?" method="POST" name="Form"> Member 1 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 1 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 2 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 2 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> Member 3 First Name:<input type="text" name="MemberFirstName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Last Name: <input type="text" name="MemberLastName[]" /><br /> Member 3 Email: <input type="text" name="MemberEmail[]" /><br /> <input type="submit" name="submit" value="Continue" /> </form> I am hoping that each input given for First Name (a required field) will generate a unique key for that particular entry and not overwrite any data entered. Because I am carrying information from page to page (checkout form), I am turning the POST variables into SESSION variables then storing in a mysql database in the end. My hope is to have: <?php $conn = mysql_connect("localhost", "username", "password"); mysql_select_db("DBname",$conn); $sql = "INSERT INTO tablename VALUES ('$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member1LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member1Email]', '$_SESSION[Member2FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member2LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member2Email]', '$_SESSION[Member1FirstName]', '$_SESSION[Member3LastName]', '$_SESSION[Member3Email]')"; $result = mysql_query($sql, $conn) or die(mysql_error()); Header ("Location: completed.php"); ?> Where Member1, Member2, and Member3 values will appear on their own row within the table. I KNOW my code is wrong but I am giving a first shot at the overall business purpose I am trying to achieve and trying to learn how to code the right way. I am very, very new to programming so any 'baby advice' is greatly appreciated.

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  • Programming a callback function within a jQuery plugin

    - by ILMV
    I'm writing a jQuery plug-in so I can reuse this code in many places as it is a very well used piece of code, the code itself adds a new line to a table which has been cloned from a hidden row, it continues to perform a load of manipulations on the new row. I'm currently referencing it like this: $(".abc .grid").grid(); But I want to include a callback so each area the plug-in is called from can do something a bit more unique when the row has been added. I've used the jQuery AJAX plug-in before, so have used the success callback function, but cannot understand how the code works in the background. Here's what I want to achieve: $(".abc .grid").grid({ row_added: function() { // do something a bit more specific here } }); Here's my plug-in code (function($){ $.fn.extend({ //pass the options variable to the function grid: function() { return this.each(function() { grid_table=$(this).find('.grid-table > tbody'); grid_hidden_row=$(this).find('.grid-hidden-row'); //console.debug(grid_hidden_row); $(this).find('.grid-add-row').click(function(event) { /* * clone row takes a hidden dummy row, clones it and appends a unique row * identifier to the id. Clone maintains our jQuery binds */ // get the last id last_row=$(grid_table).find('tr:last').attr('id'); if(last_row===undefined) { new_row=1; } else { new_row=parseInt(last_row.replace('row',''),10)+1; } // append element to target, changes it's id and shows it $(grid_table).append($(grid_hidden_row).clone(true).attr('id','row'+new_row).removeClass('grid-hidden-row').show()); // append unique row identifier on id and name attribute of seledct, input and a $('#row'+new_row).find('select, input, a').each(function(id) { $(this).appendAttr('id','_row'+new_row); $(this).replaceAttr('name','_REPLACE_',new_row); }); // disable all the readonly_if_lines options if this is the first row if(new_row==1) { $('.readonly_if_lines :not(:selected)').attr('disabled','disabled'); } }); $(this).find('.grid-remove-row').click(function(event) { /* * Remove row does what it says on the tin, as well as a few other house * keeping bits and pieces */ // remove the parent tr $(this).parents('tr').remove(); // recalculate the order value5 //calcTotal('.net_value ','#gridform','#gridform_total'); // if we've removed the last row remove readonly locks row_count=grid_table.find('tr').size(); console.info(row_count); if(row_count===0) { $('.readonly_if_lines :disabled').removeAttr('disabled'); } }); }); } }); })(jQuery); I've done the usually searching on elgooG... but I seem to be getting a lot of noise with little result, any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Cannot figure out how to take in generic parameters for an Enterprise Framework library sql statemen

    - by KallDrexx
    I have written a specialized class to wrap up the enterprise library database functionality for easier usage. The reasoning for using the Enterprise Library is because my applications commonly connect to both oracle and sql server database systems. My wrapper handles both creating connection strings on the fly, connecting, and executing queries allowing my main code to only have to write a few lines of code to do database stuff and deal with error handling. As an example my ExecuteNonQuery method has the following declaration: /// <summary> /// Executes a query that returns no results (e.g. insert or update statements) /// </summary> /// <param name="sqlQuery"></param> /// <param name="parameters">Hashtable containing all the parameters for the query</param> /// <returns>The total number of records modified, -1 if an error occurred </returns> public int ExecuteNonQuery(string sqlQuery, Hashtable parameters) { // Make sure we are connected to the database if (!IsConnected) { ErrorHandler("Attempted to run a query without being connected to a database.", ErrorSeverity.Critical); return -1; } // Form the command DbCommand dbCommand = _database.GetSqlStringCommand(sqlQuery); // Add all the paramters foreach (string key in parameters.Keys) { if (parameters[key] == null) _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, null); else _database.AddInParameter(dbCommand, key, DbType.Object, parameters[key].ToString()); } return _database.ExecuteNonQuery(dbCommand); } _database is defined as private Database _database;. Hashtable parameters are created via code similar to p.Add("@param", value);. the issue I am having is that it seems that with enterprise library database framework you must declare the dbType of each parameter. This isn't an issue when you are calling the database code directly when forming the paramters but doesn't work for creating a generic abstraction class such as I have. In order to try and get around that I thought I could just use DbType.Object and figure the DB will figure it out based on the columns the sql is working with. Unfortunately, this is not the case as I get the following error: Implicit conversion from data type sql_variant to varchar is not allowed. Use the CONVERT function to run this query Is there any way to use generic parameters in a wrapper class or am I just going to have to move all my DB code into my main classes?

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  • How to verify if the private key matches with the certificate..?

    - by surendhar_s
    I have the private key stored as .key file.. -----BEGIN RSA PRIVATE KEY----- MIICXAIBAAKBgQD5YBS6V3APdgqaWAkijIUHRK4KQ6eChSaRWaw9L/4u8o3T1s8J rUFHQhcIo5LPaQ4BrIuzHS8yzZf0m3viCTdZAiDn1ZjC2koquJ53rfDzqYxZFrId 7a4QYUCvM0gqx5nQ+lw1KoY/CDAoZN+sO7IJ4WkMg5XbgTWlSLBeBg0gMwIDAQAB AoGASKDKCKdUlLwtRFxldLF2QPKouYaQr7u1ytlSB5QFtIih89N5Avl5rJY7/SEe rdeL48LsAON8DpDAM9Zg0ykZ+/gsYI/C8b5Ch3QVgU9m50j9q8pVT04EOCYmsFi0 DBnwNBRLDESvm1p6NqKEc7zO9zjABgBvwL+loEVa1JFcp5ECQQD9/sekGTzzvKa5 SSVQOZmbwttPBjD44KRKi6LC7rQahM1PDqmCwPFgMVpRZL6dViBzYyWeWxN08Fuv p+sIwwLrAkEA+1f3VnSgIduzF9McMfZoNIkkZongcDAzjQ8sIHXwwTklkZcCqn69 qTVPmhyEDA/dJeAK3GhalcSqOFRFEC812QJAXStgQCmh2iaRYdYbAdqfJivMFqjG vgRpP48JHUhCeJfOV/mg5H2yDP8Nil3SLhSxwqHT4sq10Gd6umx2IrimEQJAFNA1 ACjKNeOOkhN+SzjfajJNHFyghEnJiw3NlqaNmEKWNNcvdlTmecObYuSnnqQVqRRD cfsGPU661c1MpslyCQJBAPqN0VXRMwfU29a3Ve0TF4Aiu1iq88aIPHsT3GKVURpO XNatMFINBW8ywN5euu8oYaeeKdrVSMW415a5+XEzEBY= -----END RSA PRIVATE KEY----- And i extracted public key from ssl certificate file.. Below is the code i tried to verify if private key matches with ssl certificate or not.. I used the modulus[i.e. private key get modulus==public key get modulus] to check if they are matching.. And this seems to hold only for RSAKEYS.. But i want to check for other keys as well.. Is there any other alternative to do the same..?? private static boolean verifySignature(File serverCertificateFile, File serverCertificateKey) { try { byte[] certificateBytes = FileUtils.readFileToByteArray(serverCertificateFile); //byte[] keyBytes = FileUtils.readFileToByteArray(serverCertificateKey); RandomAccessFile raf = new RandomAccessFile(serverCertificateKey, "r"); byte[] buf = new byte[(int) raf.length()]; raf.readFully(buf); raf.close(); PKCS8EncodedKeySpec kspec = new PKCS8EncodedKeySpec(buf); KeyFactory kf; try { kf = KeyFactory.getInstance("RSA"); RSAPrivateKey privKey = (RSAPrivateKey) kf.generatePrivate(kspec); CertificateFactory certFactory = CertificateFactory.getInstance("X.509"); InputStream in = new ByteArrayInputStream(certificateBytes); //Generate Certificate in X509 Format X509Certificate cert = (X509Certificate) certFactory.generateCertificate(in); RSAPublicKey publicKey = (RSAPublicKey) cert.getPublicKey(); in.close(); return privKey.getModulus() == publicKey.getModulus(); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException ex) { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Such algorithm is not found", ex); } catch (CertificateException ex) { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "certificate exception", ex); } catch (InvalidKeySpecException ex) { Logger.getLogger(CertificateConversion.class.getName()).log(Level.SEVERE, null, ex); } } catch (IOException ex) { logger.log(Level.SEVERE, "Signature verification failed.. This could be because the file is in use", ex); } return false; } And the code isn't working either.. throws invalidkeyspec exception

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  • Building a QueryExpression where name field is either A or B

    - by Mike
    I'm trying to build a Dynamics CRM 4 query so that I can get calendar events that are named either "Event A" or "Event B". A QueryByAttribute doesn't seem to do the job as I cannot specify a condition where the field called "event_name" = "Event A" of "event_name" = "Event B". When using the QueryExpression, I've found the FilterExpression applies to the Referencing Entity. I don't know if the FilterExpression can be used on the Referenced Entity at all. The example below is something like what I want to achieve, though this would return an empty result set as it will go looking in the entity called "my_event_response" for a "name" attribute. It's starting to look like I will need to run several queries to get this but this is less efficient than if I can submit it all at once. ColumnSet columns = new ColumnSet(); columns.Attributes = new string[]{ "event_name", "eventid", "startdate", "city" }; ConditionExpression eventname1 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname1.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname1.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname1.Values = new string[] { "Event A" }; ConditionExpression eventname2 = new ConditionExpression(); eventname2.AttributeName = "event_name"; eventname2.Operator = ConditionOperator.Equal; eventname2.Values = new string[] { "Event B" }; FilterExpression filter = new FilterExpression(); filter.FilterOperator = LogicalOperator.Or; filter.Conditions = new ConditionExpression[] { eventname1, eventname2 }; LinkEntity link = new LinkEntity(); link.LinkCriteria = filter; link.LinkFromEntityName = "my_event"; link.LinkFromAttributeName = "eventid"; link.LinkToEntityName = "my_event_response"; link.LinkToAttributeName = "eventid"; QueryExpression query = new QueryExpression(); query.ColumnSet = columns; query.EntityName = EntityName.mbs_event.ToString(); query.LinkEntities = new LinkEntity[] { link }; RetrieveMultipleRequest request = new RetrieveMultipleRequest(); request.Query = query; return (RetrieveMultipleResponse)crmService.Execute(request); I'd appreciate some advice on how to get the data I need.

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  • Working with hibernate/DAO problems

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hello everyone here is my DAO class : public class UsersDAO extends HibernateDaoSupport { private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog(UsersDAO.class); protected void initDao() { //do nothing } public void save(User transientInstance) { log.debug("saving Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(transientInstance); log.debug("save successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("save failed", re); throw re; } } public void update(User transientInstance) { log.debug("updating User instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().update(transientInstance); log.debug("update successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("update failed", re); throw re; } } public void delete(User persistentInstance) { log.debug("deleting Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().delete(persistentInstance); log.debug("delete successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("delete failed", re); throw re; } } public User findById( java.lang.Integer id) { log.debug("getting Users instance with id: " + id); try { User instance = (User) getHibernateTemplate() .get("project.hibernate.Users", id); return instance; } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("get failed", re); throw re; } } } Now I wrote a test class(not a junit test) to test is everything working, my user has these fields in the database : userID which is 5characters long string and unique/primary key, and fields such as address, dob etc(total 15 columns in database table). Now in my test class I intanciated User added the values like : User user = new User; user.setAddress("some address"); and so I did for all 15 fields, than at the end of assigning data to User object I called in DAO to save that to database UsersDao.save(user); and save works just perfectly. My question is how do I update/delete users using the same logic? Fox example I tried this(to delete user from table users): User user = new User; user.setUserID("1s54f"); // which is unique key for users no two keys are the same UsersDao.delete(user); I wanted to delete user with this key but its obviously different can someone explain please how to do these. thank you

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  • PHP: Condense array of similar strings into one merged array

    - by Matt Andrews
    Hi everyone. Working with an array of dates (opening times for a business). I want to condense them to their briefest possible form. So far, I started out with this structure Array ( [Mon] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Tue] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Wed] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Thu] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) What I want to achieve is this: Array ( [Mon-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) I've tried writing a recursive function and have managed to output this so far: Array ( [Mon-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Tue-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Wed-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Thu-Fri] => 12noon-2:45pm, 5:30pm-10:30pm [Sat] => 12noon-11pm [Sun] => 12noon-9:30pm ) Can anybody see a simple way of comparing the values and combining the keys where they're similar? My recursive function is basically two nested foreach() loops - not very elegant. Thanks, Matt EDIT: Here's my code so far, which produces the 3rd array above (from the first one as input): $last_time = array('t' => '', 'd' => ''); // blank array for looping $i = 0; foreach($final_times as $day=>$time) { if($last_time['t'] != $time ) { // it's a new time if($i != 0) { $print_times[] = $day . ' ' . $time; } // only print if it's not the first, otherwise we get two mondays } else { // this day has the same time as last time $end_day = $day; foreach($final_times as $day2=>$time2) { if($time == $time2) { $end_day = $day2; } } $print_times[] = $last_time['d'] . '-' . $end_day . ' ' . $time; } $last_time = array('t' => $time, 'd' => $day); $i++; }

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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • what will be the code to move to previous textfield ?

    - by rajesh
    i have the code if i press down button it goes to next textfield but to go to previous textfield what should be the code ... <html> <head> <script language="JavaScript"> function handleKeyDownEvent(elementRef,eventRef) { var charCode = (window.event) ? eventRef.keyCode : eventRef.which; //alert(charCode); // Arrow keys (37:left, 38:up, 39:right, 40:down)... if (charCode == 40) { if (window.event) window.event.keyCode = 9; else event.which = 9; return true; } return true; } </script> </head> <body> <table width="433" border="1" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> <td width="235" align="center"><input type="text" onKeyDown="handleKeyDownEvent(this,event);" onKeyUp="handleKeyUpEvent(this,event);"></td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> <td> <input type="radio" id="check" name="check" checked> </td> </tr> <tr> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> <td><input type="checkbox" id="check" name="check"></td> </tr> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Using Constants in Perl

    - by David W.
    I am trying to define constants in Perl using the use Constant pragma: use Constant { FOO => "bar", BAR => "foo" }; I'm running into a bit of trouble, and hoping there's a standard way of handling it. First of all... I am defining a hook script for Subversion. To make things simple, I want to have a single file where the class (package) I'm using is in the same file as my actual script. Most of this package will have constants involved in it: print "This is my program"; package "MyClass"; use constant { FOO => "bar" }; sub new { yaddah, yaddah, yaddah. I would like my constant FOO to be accessible to my main program. I would like to do this without having to refer to it as MyClass::FOO. Normally, when the package is a separate file, I could do this in my main program: use MyClass qw(FOO); but, since my class and program are a single file, I can't do that. What would be the best way for my main program to be able to access my constants defined in my class? The second issue... I would like to use the constant values as hash keys: $myHash{FOO} = "bar"; The problem is that %myHash has the literal string FOO as the key and not the value of the constant. This causes problems when I do things like this: if (defined($myHash{FOO})) { print "Key " . FOO . " does exist!\n"; } I could force the context: if (defined("" . FOO . "")) { I could add parentheses: if (defined(FOO())) { Or, I could use a temporary variable: my $foo = FOO; if (defined($foo)) { None of these are really nice ways of handling this issue. So, what is the best way? Is there one way I'm missing? By the way, I don't want to use Readonly::Scalar because it is 1). slow, and 2). not part of the standard Perl package. I want to define my hook not to require additional Perl packages and to be as simple as possible to work.

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