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  • Custom onsynctopreference for XUL textbox

    - by Alexey Romanov
    I wanted to enable custom shortcuts in my Firefox extension. The idea is that the user just focuses on a textbox, presses key combination, and it's shown in the textbox and saved to a preference. However, I couldn't get it to work. With this XUL <?xml version="1.0"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://global/skin/" type="text/css"?> <?xml-stylesheet href="chrome://mozapps/skin/pref/pref.css" type="text/css"?> <!DOCTYPE window SYSTEM "chrome://nextplease/locale/nextplease.dtd"> <prefwindow id="nextpleaseprefs" title="&options.title;" buttons="accept, cancel" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <prefpane id="nextplease.general" label="&options.general.title;" image="chrome://nextplease/skin/Sound Mixer.png"> <preferences> <preference id="nextkey" name="nextplease.nextkey" type="int"/> </preferences> <vbox flex="1"> <hbox align="center"> <label value="&options.general.nextKey;" /> <textbox id="nextkey" flex="1" editable="false" onkeyup="return nextplease.handleKeySelection(this, event);" preference-editable="true" preference="nextkey" onsynctopreference="alert('syncing'); return nextplease.syncKeySelector(this);"/> </hbox> </vbox> </prefpane> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://nextplease/content/nextpleaseCommon.js" /> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://nextplease/content/nextpleaseOptions.js" /> </prefwindow> the event in onkeyup works. But when I click the OK button, I don't see a "syncing" alert. Why isn't onsynctopreference working? Is it impossible to have custom onsynctopreference attribute for a textbox?

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  • using dictionaries with WebServices

    - by umit-alba
    Hi! I tried to pass a dictionary via WebServices. However it is not serializeable. So i wrote an Own Class that makes it serializeable: using System; using System.Net; using System.Windows; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.Xml.Schema; namespace Platform { public class SaDictionary<TKey, TValue> : Dictionary<TKey, TValue>, IXmlSerializable { #region Constructors public SaDictionary() : base() { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary) : base(dictionary) { } public SaDictionary(IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity) : base(capacity) { } public SaDictionary(IDictionary<TKey, TValue> dictionary, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(dictionary, comparer) { } public SaDictionary(int capacity, IEqualityComparer<TKey> comparer) : base(capacity, comparer) { } //protected SaDictionary(SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) // : base(info, context) //{ //} #endregion public XmlSchema GetSchema() { return null; } public void ReadXml(XmlReader reader) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); bool wasEmpty = reader.IsEmptyElement; reader.Read(); if (wasEmpty) return; while (reader.NodeType != XmlNodeType.EndElement) { reader.ReadStartElement("item"); reader.ReadStartElement("key"); TKey key = (TKey)keySerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //key reader.ReadStartElement("value"); TValue value = (TValue)valueSerializer.Deserialize(reader); reader.ReadEndElement(); //value this.Add(key, value); reader.ReadEndElement(); //item // reader.MoveToContent(); } reader.ReadEndElement(); } public void WriteXml(XmlWriter writer) { XmlSerializer keySerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TKey)); XmlSerializer valueSerializer = new XmlSerializer(typeof(TValue)); foreach (TKey key in this.Keys) { writer.WriteStartElement("item"); writer.WriteStartElement("key"); keySerializer.Serialize(writer, key); writer.WriteEndElement(); //key writer.WriteStartElement("value"); TValue value = this[key]; valueSerializer.Serialize(writer, value); writer.WriteEndElement(); //value writer.WriteEndElement(); //item } } } } However i get an ArrayOfXElement back. Is there a way to cast it back to a Dictionary? greets

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  • count number of business that belongs to subcategory in doctrine

    - by Ibrahim Azhar Armar
    this is follow up of this question. count number of foreign keys i am using doctrine 1.2 and i want to count the number of business that belongs to subcategory. following are the mysql tables. 1.fi_category +----+-----------------+-----------------+ | id | name | slug | +----+-----------------+-----------------+ 2.fi_subcategory +----+-----------------+-----------------+-------------+ | id | name | slug | category_id | +----+-----------------+-----------------+-------------+ 3.fi_business_subcategory +----+-------------+----------------+ | id | business_id | subcategory_id | +----+-------------+----------------+ i am using this DQL. $q = Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('c.name, c.slug, sc.name, sc.slug') ->from('Model_Category c') ->leftJoin('c.Subcategory sc') ->leftJoin('sc.BusinessSubcategory bsc'); which gives me something like this. Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Entertainment & Lifestyle [slug] => entertainment-lifestyle [Subcategory] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Arts and Crafts [slug] => arts-and-crafts ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => Family [slug] => family ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => Fashion [slug] => fashion ) ) ) ) i am looking to fetch the number of business, i.e the returned result should be something like this depending on the business it belongs. Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Entertainment & Lifestyle [slug] => entertainment-lifestyle [Subcategory] => Array ( [0] => Array ( [id] => 1 [name] => Arts and Crafts [slug] => arts-and-crafts [business_count] => 35 ) [1] => Array ( [id] => 2 [name] => Family [slug] => family [business_count] => 10 ) [2] => Array ( [id] => 3 [name] => Fashion [slug] => fashion [business_count] => 27 ) ) ) ) tried various ways using DQL, but nothing seems to work out. any idea how should i go with what i want?

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  • Spring 3 MVC - Form Failure Causes Exception When Reloading JSP

    - by jboyd
    Using Spring 3 MVC, please bear with the long code example, it's quite simple, but I want to make sure all relevant information is posted. Basically here is the use case: There is a registration page, a user can login, OR fill out a registration form. The login form is a simple HTML form, the registration form is a more complicated, Spring bound form that uses a RegistrationFormData bean. Here is the relevant code: UserController.java ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login", method = RequestMethod.GET) public String login(Model model) { model.addAttribute("registrationInfo", new ProfileAdminFormData()); return "login"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/login.do", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String doLogin( @RequestParam(value = "userName") String userName, @RequestParam(value = "password") String password, Model model) { logger.info("login.do : userName=" + userName + ", password=" + password); try { getUser().login(userName, password); } catch (UserNotFoundException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("loginError", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } return "redirect:/"; } ... @RequestMapping(value = "/register.do") public String register( @ModelAttribute(value = "registrationInfo") ProfileAdminFormData profileAdminFormData, BindingResult result, Model model) { //todo: redirect if (new RegistrationValidator(profileAdminFormData, result).validate()) { try { User().register(profileAdminFormData); return "index"; } catch (UserException ex) { logger.error(ex); model.addAttribute("registrationErrorMessage", ex.getWebViewableErrorMessage()); return "login"; } } return "login"; } and the JSP: ... <form:form commandName="registrationInfo" action="register.do"> ... So the problem here is that when login fails I get an exception because there is no bean "registrationInfo" in the model attributes. What I need is that regardless of the path through this controller that the "registrationInfo" bean is not null, that way if login fails, as opposed to registration, that bean is still in the model. As you can see I create the registrationInfo object explicitly in my controller in the method bound to "/login", which is what I thought was going to be kind of a setup method" Something doesn't feel right about the "/login" method which sets up the page, but I needed to that in order to get the page to render at all without throwing an exception because there is no "registrationInfo" model attribute, as needed by the form in the JSP

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  • Best way to return result from business layer to presentation layer when using LINQ-to-SQL

    - by samsur
    I have a business layer that has DTOs that are used in the presentation layer. This application uses entity framework. Here is an example of a class called RoleDTO: public class RoleDTO { public Guid RoleId { get; set; } public string RoleName { get; set; } public string RoleDescription { get; set; } public int? OrganizationId { get; set; } } In the BLL I want to have a method that returns a list of DTO. I would like to know which is the better approach: returning IQueryable or list of DTOs. Although I feel that returning IQueryable is not a good idea because the connection needs to be open. Here are the 2 different methods using the different approaches: First approach public class RoleBLL { private servicedeskEntities sde; public RoleBLL() { sde = new servicedeskEntities(); } public IQueryable<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { IQueryable<RoleDTO> role = from r in sde.Roles select new RoleDTO() { RoleId = r.RoleID, RoleName = r.RoleName, RoleDescription = r.RoleDescription, OrganizationId = r.OrganizationId }; return role; } Note: in the above method the DataContext is a private attribute and set in the constructor, so that the connection stays opened. Second approach public static List<RoleDTO> GetAllRoles() { List<RoleDTO> roleDTO = new List<RoleDTO>(); using (servicedeskEntities sde = new servicedeskEntities()) { var roles = from pri in sde.Roles select new { pri.RoleID, pri.RoleName, pri.RoleDescription }; //Add the role entites to the DTO list and return. This is necessary as anonymous types can be returned acrosss methods foreach (var item in roles) { RoleDTO roleItem = new RoleDTO(); roleItem.RoleId = item.RoleID; roleItem.RoleDescription = item.RoleDescription; roleItem.RoleName = item.RoleName; roleDTO.Add(roleItem); } return roleDTO; } } Please let me know, if there is a better approach.

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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • jQuery Form plugin - no data from file upload?

    - by pojo
    I've been struggling a bit with the jQuery Form plugin. I want to create a file upload form that posts the data (JSON, from the chosen file) into a REST service exposed by a servlet. The URL for the POST is calculated from what the user chooses in a SELECT dropdown. When the upload is complete, I want to notify the user immediately, AJAX-style. The problem is that the POST header has a Content-Length of 0 and contains no data. I would appreciate any help! <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js">/* ppp */</script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.form.js">/* ppp */</script> <script type="text/javascript"> function cb_beforesubmit (arr, $form, options) { // This should override the form's action attribute options.url = "/rest/services/" + $('#selectedaction')[0].value; return true; } function cb_success (rt, st, xhr, wf) { $('#response').html(rt + '<br>' + st + '<br>' + xhr); } $(document).ready(function () { var options = { beforeSubmit: cb_beforesubmit, success: cb_success, dataType: 'json', contentType: 'application/json', method: 'POST', }; $('#myform').ajaxForm(options); $.getJSON('/rest/services', function (data, ts) { for (var property in data) { if (typeof property == 'string') { $('#selectedaction').append('<option>' + property + '</option>'); } } }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form id="myform" action="/rest/services/foo1" method="POST" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <!-- The form does not seem to submit at all if I don't set action to a default value? !--> <select id="selectedaction"> <script type="text/javascript"> </script> </select> <input type="file" value="Choose"/> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> <div id="response"> </div> </body> </html>

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  • C++ SQLDriverConnect API

    - by harshalkreddy
    Hi, I am using visual studio 2008 and sql server 2008 for developing application(SQL server is in my system). I need to fetch some fields from the database. I am using the SQLDriverConnect API to connect to the database. If I use the "SQL_DRIVER_PROMPT" I will get pop window to select the data source. I don't want this window to appear. As per my understanding this window will appear if we provide insufficient information in the connection string. I think I have provided all the information. I am trying to connect with windows authentication. I tried different options but still no luck. Please help me in solving this problem. Below is the code that I am using: //******************************************************************************** // SQLDriverConnect_ref.cpp // compile with: odbc32.lib user32.lib #include <windows.h> #include <sqlext.h> int main() { SQLHENV henv; SQLHDBC hdbc; SQLHSTMT hstmt; SQLRETURN retcode; SQLWCHAR OutConnStr[255]; SQLSMALLINT OutConnStrLen; SQLCHAR ConnStrIn[255] = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=(local);DSN=MyDSN;DATABASE=MyDatabase;Trusted_Connection=yes;"; //SQLWCHAR *ConntStr =(SQLWCHAR *) "DRIVER={SQL Server};DSN=MyDSN;"; HWND desktopHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); // desktop's window handle // Allocate environment handle retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, SQL_NULL_HANDLE, &henv); // Set the ODBC version environment attribute if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLSetEnvAttr(henv, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_VERSION, (SQLPOINTER*)SQL_OV_ODBC3, 0); // Allocate connection handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, henv, &hdbc); // Set login timeout to 5 seconds if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLSetConnectAttr(hdbc, SQL_LOGIN_TIMEOUT, (SQLPOINTER)5, 0); retcode = SQLDriverConnect( // SQL_NULL_HDBC hdbc, desktopHandle, (SQLWCHAR *)ConnStrIn, SQL_NTS, OutConnStr, 255, &OutConnStrLen, SQL_DRIVER_NOPROMPT); // Allocate statement handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hdbc, &hstmt); // Process data if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hstmt); } SQLDisconnect(hdbc); } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hdbc); } } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, henv); } } //******************************************************************************** Thanks in advance, Harsha

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  • jQuery Validator's "required" not working when value is set at statup

    - by nandrew
    Hello, I have a problem with jQuery Validator. I want to use "required" property on a text input. It doesn't work when input has set value attribute by HTML code (tested on Firefox (3.5), and on IE 8 - on IE it works a bit better). Story: 1. Page loads; 2. value is cleared; 3. focus is changed. 4. Nothing happens but the error message should be displayed; 5. getting back to the field and typing some characters. 6. changing focus; 7. getting back to the field; 8. clearing the field. 9. Error is displayed even before leaving the field. The HTML code: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="Web/Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1"> <input type="text" id="name1" name="name1" value="test" /><br /> <input type="text" /> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var validator = $("form").validate({ rules: { name1: { required: true, minlength: 2 } }, messages: { name1: "bad name" }, }); }); </script> </body> </html>

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  • WPF DataGrid, Help with Binding to a List<X> where each X has a Dictionary<Y,object> property.

    - by panamack
    I'm building an application which helps someone manage an event and works with data originating from Excel. I want to use the WPF Toolkit DataGrid to display the incoming data but can't guarantee how many Columns there are going to be or what information they will contain. I'd like to have an Info class that stores column information and have each Visitor at my Event own a Dictionary that uses shared references to Info objects for the keys. Here's the general gist: public class Info{ public string Name{get;set;} public int InfoType{get;set;} } public class Visitor{ public Dictionary<Info,object> VisitorInfo {get;set;} } public class Event{ public List<Visitor> Visitors{get;set;} public Event(){ Info i1 = new Info(){ Name = "ID", InfoType = 0};// type 0 for an id Info i2 = new Info(){ Name = "Name", InfoType = 1};// type 1 for a string Info i3 = new Info(){ Name = "City", InfoType = 1}; Visitor v1 = new Visitor(); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i1, 0); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i2, "Foo Harris"); v1.VisitorInfo.Add(i3, "Barsville"); Visitor v2 = new Visitor(); ... this.Visitors.Add(v1); this.Visitors.Add(v2); ... } } XAML: <!-- Window1.xaml --> ... <local:Event x:Key="MyEvent"/> ... <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource MyEvent}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Visitors}" /> Disappointingly, DataGrid just sees a collection of Visitors each having a VisitorInfo property and displays one column called VisitorInfo with the string "(Collection)" once for each Visitor. As a workaround I've created a ListTVisitorToDataTableConverter that maps Infos to DataColumns and Visitors to DataRows and used it like this: <wpftk:DataGrid DataContext="{StaticResource Event}" ItemsSource{Binding Path=Visitors, Converter={StaticResource MySmellyListTVisitorToDataTableConverter}}" /> I don't think this is good though, I haven't started trying to convert back yet which I guess I'll need to do if I want to be able to edit any data! How can I do better? Thanks.

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  • Openlayers and Bing Maps (POLYGONS)

    - by Jordan
    When trying to draw polygons onto a bing map, the initial marker is set differently on the map. How can I fix this? OpenLayers Bing Example <script src="OpenLayers.js"></script> <script> var map; function init(){ map = new OpenLayers.Map("map"); map.addControl(new OpenLayers.Control.LayerSwitcher()); var shaded = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Shaded", { type: VEMapStyle.Shaded }); var hybrid = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Hybrid", { type: VEMapStyle.Hybrid }); var aerial = new OpenLayers.Layer.VirtualEarth("Aerial", { type: VEMapStyle.Aerial }); var POLY_LAYER = new OpenLayers.Layer.Vector(); map.addLayers([shaded, hybrid, aerial, POLY_LAYER]); map.setCenter(new OpenLayers.LonLat(-110, 45), 3); var polygon = new OpenLayers.Control.DrawFeature(POLY_LAYER, OpenLayers.Handler.Polygon); map.addControl(polygon); polygon.activate(); } </script> Bing Example <div id="tags"> Bing, Microsoft, Virtual Earth </div> <p id="shortdesc"> Demonstrates the use of Bing layers. </p> <div id="map" class="smallmap"></div> <div id="docs">This example demonstrates the ability to create layers using tiles from Bing maps.</div> Of course the above is being initialized and page works. You can draw the polygon shapes. Notice if you zoom in or out one time, the markers are set at the correct coordinates. My app I was testing this on is really using the bing maps API keys and not VirtualEarth. But it's doing a similar thing. Is this an Openlayers bug? The below source came directly from the open layers example site, I just added and activated polygons to the map. Please let me know how I can fix this for using the Bing Map API.. I've been stuck on this for HOURS! :(

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  • How to make html image clickable inside a TextView

    - by Gonan
    I have the following text in a string in the resources file: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;</a> It shows the image fine (I implemented ImageGetter) but it is not clickable. I have tried adding the Linkify thingy but I don't think it's meant for this case, and so it doesn't work. The setMovementMethod doesn't work either. I have tried different combinations of the above: <a href="mailto:[email protected]">&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;hello</a> Here, even the "hello" part is not clickable (neither blue nor underlined). <a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail_big" /></a> This doesn't even show the image. &lt;a href="mailto:[email protected]"&gt;&lt;img src="mail_big" /&gt;&lt;/a&gt; If I just write the email, without the <a> tag it works perfectly, but I would like to use the image of an envelope that the user can click on. It's not possible to use an imagebutton because this text is in the middle of a string and so I can't split it. Any ideas? Thanks! EDIT: I found a solution or rather found how to do it correctly. All I had to do was adding the setMovementMethod call before the call to setText in the TextView and ALSO, and COMPLETELY NECESSARY, remove the attribute "android:autoLink="all" from the layout. Apparently, parsing mails and urls in a string is mutually exclusive to interpreting the link tags in a string. So one or the other but not both. Finally my layout is just a TextView with nothing special, just width and height. The activity is like this: TextView tv = (TextView)findViewById(R.id.about_text); tv.setMovementMethod(LinkMovementMethod.getInstance()); tv.setText(Html.fromHtml(getString(R.string.about_content), new ImageGetter(), null)); And the string is like this: <string name="about_content"><a href="mailto:[email protected]"><img src="mail" /></a></string>

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  • Is it correct or incorrect for a Java JAR to contain its own dependencies?

    - by 4herpsand7derpsago
    I guess this is a two-part question. I am trying to write my own Ant task (MyFirstTask) that can be used in other project's build.xml buildfiles. To do this, I need to compile and package my Ant task inside its own JAR. Because this Ant task that I have written is fairly complicated, it has about 20 dependencies (other JAR files), such as using XStream for OX-mapping, Guice for DI, etc. I am currently writing the package task in the build.xml file inside the MyFirstTask project (the buildfile that will package myfirsttask.jar, which is the reusable Ant task). I am suddenly realizing that I don't fully understand the intention of a Java JAR. Is it that a JAR should not contain dependencies, and leave it to the runtime configuration (the app container, the runtime environment, etc.) to supply it with the dependencies it needs? I would assume if this is the case, an executable JAR is an exception to the rule, yes? Or, is it the intention for Java JARs to also include their dependencies? Either way, I don't want to be forcing my users to be copying-n-pasting 25+ JARs into their Ant libs; that's just cruel. I like the way WAR files are set up, where the classpath for dependencies is defined under the classes/ directory. I guess, ultimately, I'd like my JAR structure to look like: myfirsttask.jar/ com/ --> the root package of my compiled binaries config/ --> config files, XML, XSD, etc. classes/ --> all dependencies, guice-3.0.jar, xstream-1.4.3.jar, etc. META-INF/ MANIFEST.MF I assume that in order to accomplish this (and get the runtime classpath to also look into the classes/ directory), I'll need to modify the MANIFEST.MF somehow (I know there's a manifest attribute called ClassPath, I believe?). I'm just having a tough time putting everything together, and have a looming/lingering question about the very intent of JARs to begin with. Can someone please confirm whether Oracle intends for JARs to contain their dependencies or not? And, either way, what I would have to do in the manifest (or anywhere else) to make sure that, at runtime, the classpath can find the dependencies stored under the classes/ directory? Thanks in advance!

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  • Trouble with ASP.NET MVC auto-scaffolder template

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder template for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // How do I make this generic? var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { HtmlHelper itemHtml = ????; // What should I put in place of "????"? %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= itemHtml.Display(property.DisplayName) %> </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. A property Html is automatically created for me when the view is created, but this HtmlHelper applies to the whole collection. I need to somehow create an itemHtml object that applies just to the current item in the foreach loop. I'm not sure how to do this, however, because the constructors for HtmlHelper don't take a Model object. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • One registry key for many products not deleted on uninstall

    - by NC1
    My company has many products, we want to create a registry key Software\$(var.Manufacturer)that will have all of our products if our customers have installed more than one (which is likely) I then want to have a secondary key for each of our products which get removed on uninstall but the main one does not. I have tried to achieve this like below but my main key gets deleted so all of my other products also get deleted from the registry. I know this is trivial but I cannot find an answer. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" Permanent="yes"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="*" MultiInstance="yes" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" Action="createAndRemoveOnUninstall"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> EDIT: I have got my registry keys to stay using the following code. However they only all delete wen all products are deleted, not one by one as they need to. <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="Registry" Guid="FF75CA48-27DE-430E-B78F-A1DC9468D699" Permanent="yes" Shared="yes" Win64="$(var.Win64)"> <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)" ForceCreateOnInstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Default" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef> <DirectoryRef Id="TARGETDIR"> <Component Id="RegistryEntries" Guid="D94FA576-970F-4503-B6C6-BA6FBEF8A60A" Win64="$(var.Win64)" > <RegistryKey Root="HKLM" Key="Software\$(var.Manufacturer)\[PRODUCTNAME]" ForceDeleteOnUninstall="yes"> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="Installed" Value="true" KeyPath="yes"/> <RegistryValue Type="string" Name="ProductName" Value="[PRODUCTNAME]"/> </RegistryKey> </Component> </DirectoryRef>

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  • Simple RSA encryption (Java)

    - by jake blue
    This is simply for fun. This will not be used for any actual encryption. I'm only first year comp sci student and love cryptography. This took a long time to get working. At approximately N = 18, it begins breaking down. It won't encrypt messages properly after that point. I'm not sure why. Any insights? I'd also appreciate any links you could provide me to tutorials or interesting reading about Cryptography. import java.math.BigInteger; import java.security.SecureRandom; /** * Cryptography. * * Generates public and private keys used in encryption and * decryption * */ public class RSA { private final static BigInteger one = new BigInteger("1"); private final static SecureRandom random = new SecureRandom(); // prime numbers private BigInteger p; private BigInteger q; // modulus private BigInteger n; // totient private BigInteger t; // public key private BigInteger e; // private key private BigInteger d; private String cipherText; /** * Constructor for objects of class RSA */ public RSA(int N) { p = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); q = BigInteger.probablePrime(N/2, random); // initialising modulus n = p.multiply(q); // initialising t by euclid's totient function (p-1)(q-1) t = (p.subtract(one)).multiply(q.subtract(one)); // initialising public key ~ 65537 is common public key e = new BigInteger("65537"); } public int generatePrivateKey() { d = e.modInverse(t); return d.intValue(); } public String encrypt(String plainText) { String encrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < plainText.length(); i++){ char m = plainText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(m); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(e, n); j = bi2.intValue(); m = (char) j; encrypted += m; } cipherText = encrypted; return encrypted; } public String decrypt() { String decrypted = ""; int j = 0; for(int i = 0; i < cipherText.length(); i++){ char c = cipherText.charAt(i); BigInteger bi1 = BigInteger.valueOf(c); BigInteger bi2 = bi1.modPow(d, n); j = bi2.intValue(); c = (char) j; decrypted += c; } return decrypted; } }

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  • UpdatePanel Full Postback

    - by Korivo
    Greetings, here is the scenario. I have and .aspx page with and updatepanel like this <asp:UpdatePanel id="uPanelMain" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <uc:Calendar id="ucCalendar" runat="server" Visible="true" /> <uc:Scoring id="ucScoring" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </ContentTemplate> The control ucCalendar is loaded first and it contains a grid like this <asp:DataGrid CssClass="grid" ID="gridGames" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="False" HeaderStyle-CssClass="gridHeader" ItemStyle-CssClass="gridScoringRow" GridLines="None" ItemStyle-BackColor="#EEEEEE" AlternatingItemStyle-BackColor="#F5F5F5" OnEditCommand="doScoreGame" OnDeleteCommand="doEditGame" OnCancelCommand="printLineup" OnItemDataBound="gridDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateColumn > <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkDelete" runat="server" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="idGame" Visible="false" /> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="isClose" Visible="false" /> <asp:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Status"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="imgStatus" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/img/icoX.png" alt="icoStatus" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> <asp:TemplateColumn> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton ID="linkScore" runat="server" CommandName="Edit" Text="Score" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateColumn> </Columns> </asp:DataGrid> So when i click the "linkButton", the codebehind of the userControl calls a public method in the .aspx as this: From the userControl protected void doScoreGame(object sender, DataGridCommandEventArgs e) { ((GM)this.Page).showScoring(null, null); } From the .aspx page public void showScoring(object sender, EventArgs e) { removeLastLoadedControl(); ucScoring.Visible = true; } So, here comes the problem: There are two postbacks taking place when I change the visible attribute of the ucScoring control. The first postback is fine, it's handled by the updatePanel. The second postback is a full postback, and i really don't understand why it is happening. I'm really lost here, please help! Thanks Mat

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  • I'm having trouble traversing a newly appended DOM element with jQuery

    - by culov
    I have a form that I want to be used to add entries. Once an entry is added, the original form should be reset to prepare it for the next entry, and the saved form should be duplicated prior to resetting and appended onto a div for 'storedEntries.' This much is working (for the most part), but Im having trouble accessing the newly created form... I need to change the value attribute of the submit button from 'add' to 'edit' so properly communicate what clicking that button should do. heres my form: <div class="newTruck"> <form id="addNewTruck" class='updateschedule' action="javascript:sub(sTime.value, eTime.value, lat.value, lng.value, street.value);"> <b style="color:green;">Opening at: </b> <input id="sTime" name="sTime" title="Opening time" value="Click to set opening time" class="datetimepicker"/> <b style="color:red;">Closing at: </b> <input id="eTime" name= "eTime" title="Closing time" value="Click to set closing time" class="datetimepicker"/> <label for='street'>Address</label> <input type='text' name='street' id='street' class='text' autocomplete='off'/> <input id='submit' class='submit' style="cursor: pointer; cursor: hand;" type="submit" value='Add new stop'/> <div id='suggests' class='auto_complete' style='display:none'></div> <input type='hidden' name='lat' id='lat'/> <input type='hidden' name='lng' id='lng'/> ive tried using a hundred different selectors with jquery to no avail... heres my script as it stands: function cloneAndClear(){ var id = name+now; $j("#addNewTruck").clone(true).attr("id",id).appendTo(".scheduledTrucks"); $j('#'+id).filter('#submit').attr('value', 'Edit'); $j("#addNewTruck")[0].reset(); createPickers(); } the element is properly cloned and inserted into the div, but i cant find a way to access this element... the third line in the script never works. Another problem i am having is that the 'values' in the cloned form revert back to the value in the source of the html rather than what the user inputs. advice on how to solve either of these issues is greatly appreciated!

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  • Jscrollpane causese text to disappear on internet explorer

    - by Crippletoe
    Hello all, in my current site, i am using the new Jscrollpane in order to generate a scrollbar for a menu (not my descision but the designer's descision so i dont wanna get into how 90's that all looks like..). my menu is based on a <UL> the <li> elements inside it have the attribute "text-align: right;". my problem that on IE alone the menu text doesnt show when i apply the ScrollPane to the menu. when i delete the ScrollPane function from my code- the menu re-appears. i checked the page with "microsoft Expression" DOM inspector in order to examine how IE sees my code and i can see the <li> elements there, only the text inside them is missing. when i disable the "text-align: right;" for the <li> in my CSS, the text shows again. i suspect this has something to do with the jScrollPane's containing which is relatively aligned but i cannot be sure.. can anyone suggest some fix for this problem? a link to a page where you can see the problem is here: http://kaplanoland.com/index.php?option=com_content&view=article&id=2&Itemid=12 the problematic menu is on the right side of the page. on every browser but IE you can see the text. only on IE not. my CSS code for that menu (not including the jScrollPane CSS) is here: div#menu2{ position: absolute; top: 123px; right: 36px; width: 330px; height: 150px; } div#menu2_scroll{ /*the actual scroller*/ height: 150px; } div#menu2 div#menu2_contain{ } div#menu2 li{ text-align: right; } div#menu2 li span{ line-height: 18px; } div#menu2 a:link, div#menu2 a:visited{ color: #808285 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 a:hover, div#menu2 li#current a{ color: #000000 ; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif ; font-size: 12px ; } div#menu2 span.separator{ display: block; padding-top: 12px; padding-bottom: 40px; font-family: Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } div#menu2 span.separator span { padding-top: 12px; border-top-width: 1px; border-top-style: solid; border-top-color: #808285; } thank you all so much.

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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • Correct way to use Drupal 7 Entities and Field API

    - by Martin Petts
    I'm trying to use Drupal 7's entities and field API to correctly build a new module. What I have been unable to understand from the documentation is the correct way to use the new API to create a 'content type' (not a node type) with a number of set fields, such as Body. I'm trying to set up the entity using hook_entity_info, then I believe I need to add the body field using field_create_instance, but I can't seem to get it to work. In mycontenttype.module: /** * Implements hook_entity_info(). */ function mycontenttype_entity_info() { $return = array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => t('My Content Type'), 'controller class' => 'MyContentTypeEntityController', 'base table' => 'content_type', 'uri callback' => 'content_type_uri', 'entity keys' => array( 'id' => 'cid', 'label' => 'title' ), 'bundles' => array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => 'My Content Type', 'admin' => array( 'path' => 'admin/contenttype', 'access arguments' => array('administer contenttype') ) ) ), 'fieldable' => true ) ); return $return; } /** * Implements hook_field_extra_fields(). */ function mycontenttype_field_extra_fields() { $return['mycontenttype']['mycontenttype'] = array( 'form' = array( 'body' = array( 'label' = 'Body', 'description' = t('Body content'), 'weight' = 0, ), ), ); return $return; } Then does this go in the .install file? function mycontenttype_install() { $field = array( 'field_name' => 'body', 'type' => 'text_with_summary', 'entity_types' => array('survey'), 'translatable' => TRUE, ); field_create_field($field); $instance = array( 'entity_type' => 'mycontenttype', 'field_name' => 'body', 'bundle' => 'mycontenttype', 'label' => 'Body', 'widget_type' => 'text_textarea_with_summary', 'settings' => array('display_summary' => TRUE), 'display' => array( 'default' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_default', ), 'teaser' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_summary_or_trimmed', ) ) ); field_create_instance($instance); }

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  • XSD: xs:sequence & xs:choice combination for xs:extension elements of a common base type?

    - by bguiz
    Hi, My question is about defining an XML schema that will validate the following XML: <rules> <other>...</other> <bool>...</bool> <other>...</other> <string>...</string> <other>...</other> </rules> The order of the child nodes does not matter. The cardinality of the child nodes is 0..unbounded. All the child elements of the rules node have a common base type, rule, like so: <xs:complexType name="booleanRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="rule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> <xs:complexType name="stringFilterRule"> <xs:complexContent> <xs:extension base="filterRule"> ... </xs:extension> </xs:complexContent> </xs:complexType> My current (feeble) attempt at defining the schema for the rules node is below. However, Can I nest xs:choice within xs:sequence? If, where do I specify the maxOccurs="unbounded" attribute? Is there a better way to do this, such as an xs:sequence which specifies only the base type of its child elements? <xs:element name="rules"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:choice> <xs:element name="bool" type="booleanRule" /> <xs:element name="string" type="stringRule" /> <xs:element name="other" type="someOtherRule" /> </xs:choice> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element>

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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