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  • How to use JQuery Validate to create a popup with all form error when the submit button is clicked?

    - by Larry
    I am using the JQuery Validation plugin for client side form validation. In addition to the colorful styling on invalid form fields, my client requires that a popup message be shown. I only want to show this message when the submit button is click because it would drive the user crazy otherwise. I tried the following code, but errorList is always empty. Anyone know the correct way to do something similar. function popupFormErrors(formId) { var validator = $(formId).validate(); var message = ''; for (var i = 0; i < validator.errorList.length - 1; i++) { message += validator.errorList[i].message + '\n'; } if (message.length > 0) { alert(message); } } $('#btn-form-submit').click(function(){ $('#form-register').submit(); popupFormErrors('#btn-form-submit'); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, ... }); Update From the info in the accepted answer I came up with this. var submitClicked = false; $('#btn-form-submit').click(function() { submitClicked = true; $('#form-register').submit(); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, showErrors: function(errorsObj) { this.defaultShowErrors(); if (submitClicked) { submitClicked = false; ... create popup from errorsObj... } } ... });

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  • VS2010 Web Deploy: how to remove absolute paths and automate setAcl?

    - by Julien Lebosquain
    The integrated Web Deployment in Visual Studio 2010 is pretty nice. It can create a package ready to be deployed using MSDeploy on a target IIS machine. Problem is, this package will be redistributed to a client that will install it himself using the "Import Application" from IIS when MSDeploy is installed. The default package created always include the full path from the development machine, "D:\Dev\XXX\obj\Debug\Package\PackageTmp" in the source manifest file. It doesn't prevent installation of course since it was designed this way, but it looks ugly in the import dialog and has no meaning to the client. Worse he will wonder what are those paths and it looks quite confusing. By customizing the .csproj file (by adding MSBuild properties used by the package creation task), I managed to add additional parameters to the package. However, I spent most of the afternoon in the 2600 lines long Web.Publishing.targets trying to understand what parameter influenced the "development path" behavior, in vain. I also tried to use the setAcl to customize security on a given folder after deployment, but I only managed to do this with MSBuild by using a relative path... it shouldn't matter if I resolve the first problem though. I could modify the generated archive after its creation but I would prefer if everything was automatized using MSBuild. Does anyone know how to do that?

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  • Cassandra Batch_insert example in C#.net

    - by Sandeep
    Can any one please give me an example on how to work on Cassandra batch_insert in C# thrift client? If possible please let me know where am I going wrong in the following code. Dictionary dictionary = new Dictionary(); Dictionary subColumns = new Dictionary(); List listOfMutations = new List(); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("AA"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Answer Automation"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add(new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("CT"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Call Tracker"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); listOfMutations.Add( new Mutation() { Column_or_supercolumn = new ColumnOrSuperColumn() { Column = new Column() { Name = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("TL"), Value = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Track That Lead"), Timestamp = timeStamp } } }); SuperColumn superColumn = new SuperColumn() { Name=utf8Encoding.GetBytes("Indatus") }; subColumns.Add("Super1", listOfMutations); dictionary.Add("Indatus", subColumns); client.batch_mutate("Keyspace1",dictionary, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); I understand that SuperColumn struct expects List but I does not have a list of Columns. Rather I have List. Thanks in Advance.

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  • Pump Messages During Long Operations + C#

    - by Newbie
    Hi I have a web service that is doing huge computation and is taking more than a minute. I have generated the proxy file of the web service and then from my client end I am using the dll(of course I generated the proxy dll). My client side code is TimeSeries3D t = new TimeSeries3D(); int portfolioId = 4387919; string[] str = new string[2]; str[0] = "MKT_CAP"; DateRange dr = new DateRange(); dr.mStartDate = DateTime.Today; dr.mEndDate = DateTime.Today; Service1 sc = new Service1(); t = sc.GetAttributesForPortfolio(portfolioId, true, str, dr); But since it is taking to much time for the server to compute, after 1 minute I am receiving an error message The CLR has been unable to transition from COM context 0x33caf30 to COM context 0x33cb0a0 for 60 seconds. The thread that owns the destination context/apartment is most likely either doing a non pumping wait or processing a very long running operation without pumping Windows messages. This situation generally has a negative performance impact and may even lead to the application becoming non responsive or memory usage accumulating continually over time. To avoid this problem, all single threaded apartment (STA) threads should use pumping wait primitives (such as CoWaitForMultipleHandles) and routinely pump messages during long running operations. Kindly guide me what to do? Thanks

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  • Postfix relay all mail through SES except for one sending domain / address

    - by Kevin
    I'm thinking this is really really super simple, but I can't figure out what I need to do. I don't mess with Postfix much (Just let it run and do its thing) so I've got no idea where to even start with this. We have postfix currently configured to relay all mail out through SES using the code below. We need to modify this so that emails sent from one of our domains (domain.com) DO NOT go through SES. Everything else should continue to flow out through the SES connection. I'm assuming this is like a one line thing but my google skills are not helping me at all. relayhost = email-smtp.us-east-1.amazonaws.com:25 smtp_sasl_auth_enable = yes smtp_sasl_security_options = noanonymous smtp_sasl_password_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sasl_passwd smtp_use_tls = yes smtp_tls_security_level = encrypt smtp_tls_note_starttls_offer = yes smtp_tls_CAfile = /etc/ssl/certs/ca-certificates.crt smtp_destination_concurrency_limit = 450 Update I have created sender_transport file in /etc/postfix. In it is @domain.com smtp: I then ran this through postmap and placed sender_dependent_default_transport_maps = hash:/etc/postfix/sender_transport above the above block of code and restarted postfix, but still all email is going out through SES. Log after sending Oct 22 14:38:48 web postfix/smtp[19446]: 4B19D640002: to=<[email protected]>, relay=email-smtp.us-east-1.amazonaws.com[54.243.47.187]:25, delay=1.4, delays=0.01/0/0.92/0.44, dsn=2.0.0, status=sent (250 Ok 00000141e21b181f-ee6f7c4f-f0f5-4b0f-ba69-2db146a4f988-000000) Oct 22 14:38:48 web postfix/qmgr[19435]: 4B19D640002: removed I don't think this log is what you're looking for, but it's the only thing that is logged when mail goes out, and this is with me running /usr/sbin/postfix -v start manually and not with the init script.

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  • How to use python to create a GUI application which have cool animation/effects under Linux (like 3D

    - by sgon00
    Hi, I am not sure if my question title makes sense to you or not. I am seeing many cool applications which have cool animations/effects. I would like to learn how to use python to create this kind of GUI applications under Linux. "cool animation/effects" like 3D wall in Cooliris which is written in flash and compiz effects with opengl. I also heard of some python GUI library like wxPython and pyQT. Since I am completely new to python GUI programming, can anyone suggest me where to start and what I should learn to achieve and create such application? maybe learn pyQT with openGL feature? pyopengl binding? I have no clue on where to start. thank you very much for your time and suggestion. By the way, in case if someone need to know which kind of application I am going to create, well, just any kind of applications. maybe photo explorer with 3D wall, maybe IM client, maybe facebook client etc...

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  • How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

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  • Setting CPU target to x86 on .NET 2.0 project adds .NET 3.5 dependencies.

    - by AngryHacker
    I have a project in VS2008 that targets .NET 2.0 framework. It was original set to build for AnyCPU. I changed it to x86 and for whatever reason, VS adds the following lines to .csproj: <ItemGroup> <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Client.3.5"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework Client Profile</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> ... ... <BootstrapperPackage Include="Microsoft.Net.Framework.3.5.SP1"> <Visible>False</Visible> <ProductName>.NET Framework 3.5 SP1</ProductName> <Install>false</Install> </BootstrapperPackage> </ItemGroup> Can someone explain as to why this is being added and whether I can safely remove it, as I still have to target the .NET 2.0 framework. Thanks.

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  • When is factory method better than simple factory and vice versa?

    - by Bruce
    Hi all Working my way through the Head First Design Patterns book. I believe I understand the simple factory and the factory method, but I'm having trouble seeing what advantages factory method brings over simple factory. If an object A uses a simple factory to create its B objects, then clients can create it like this: A a = new A(new BFactory()); whereas if an object uses a factory method, a client can create it like this: A a = new ConcreteA(); // ConcreteA contains a method for instantiating the same Bs that the BFactory above creates, with the method hardwired into the subclass of A, ConcreteA. So in the case of the simple factory, clients compose A with a B factory, whereas with the factory method, the client chooses the appropriate subclass for the types of B it wants. There really doesn't seem to be much to choose between them. Either you have to choose which BFactory you want to compose A with, or you have to choose the right subclass of A to give you the Bs. Under what circumstances is one better than the other? Thanks all!

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  • What could cause a PHP error on an include statement?

    - by J Jones
    I've got a bug in my PHP code that's been terrorizing me for several days now. I'm trying to clasp in a new module to an existing Magento (v1.4) site, though I'm very new to the Magento framework. I think I am pretty close to getting to "Hello, World" on a block that I want displayed in the backend, but I'm getting a 500 error when the menu item is selected. I managed to track it down (using echo stmts) to a line in the Layout.php file (app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Layout.php, line 472ish): if (class_exists($block, false) || mageFindClassFile($block)) { $temp = $block; echo "<p>before constructor: $temp</p>"; $block = new $block($attributes); echo "<p>after constructor: $temp</p>"; } For my block, this yields only "before constructor...", so I know this is what is failing. A little more debugging reveals that the class in $block (the new block I am trying to show) does not exist. I would have expected the __autoload function to take care of this, but none of my echos in __autoload are displaying. As a last ditch effort, I tried an include statement in Mage.php to the absolute location of the block class, but similar before and after echos reveal that that include statement becomes the breaking line. I'm tempted to start thinking "permissions", but I'm not well versed in the server management side of all this, and I have limited access to the test server (the test server belongs to the client). To anticipate the question: there are no errors reported in the PHP log file. I am actually not convinced that this site is reporting errors to the log file (I haven't seen anything from this site), though the client is certain that everything is turned on. IIS 7. Integrated mode, I'm pretty sure. Anyone know what could be causing this?

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  • Unable to Get a Correct Time when I am Calling serverTime using jquery.countdown.js + Asp.net ?

    - by user312891
    When i am calling the below function I unable to get a correct Answer. Both var Shortly and newTime having same time one coming from the client site other sync with server. http://keith-wood.name/countdown.html I am waiting from your response. Thanks $(function() { var shortly = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); var newTime = new Date('April 9, 2010 20:38:10'); //for loop divid /// $('#defaultCountdown').countdown({ until: shortly, onExpiry: liftOff, onTick: watchCountdown, serverSync: serverTime }); $('#div1').countdown({ until: newTime }); }); function serverTime() { var time = null; $.ajax({ type: "POST", //Page Name (in which the method should be called) and method name url: "Default.aspx/GetTime", // If you want to pass parameter or data to server side function you can try line contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", data: "{}", async: false, //else If you don't want to pass any value to server side function leave the data to blank line below //data: "{}", success: function(msg) { //Got the response from server and render to the client time = new Date(msg.d); alert(time); }, error: function(msg) { time = new Date(); alert('1'); } }); return time; }

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  • Certificate revocation check fails for non-domain guest in spite of accessible CRL

    - by 0xFE
    When we try to use certificates on computers that are not part of the domain, Windows complains that The revocation function was unable to check revocation because the revocation server was offline. However, if I manually open the certificate and check the CRL Distribution Point property, I see an ldap:/// URL and an http:// URL that points to externally-accessible IIS site that hosts the CRLs. Of course, the non-domain-joined client cannot access the ldap:/// URL, but it can download the CRL from the http:// link (at least in a browser). I enabled CAPI logging and I see the event that corresponds to this failed revocation check. The RevocationInfo section is: RevocationInfo [ freshnessTime] PT11H27M4S RevocationResult The revocation function was unable to check revocation because the revocation server was offline. [ value] 80092013 CertificateRevocationList [ location] UrlCache [ url] http://the correct URL [fileRef] 6E463C2583E17C63EF9EAC4EFBF2AEAFA04794EB.crl [issuerName] the name of the CA Furthermore, I can see the HTTP request to the correct URL and the server's response (HTTP 304 Not Modified) with Microsoft Network Monitor. I ran certutil -verify -urlfetch, and it seems to show the same thing: the computer recognizes both URLs, tries both, and even though the http:// link succeeds, returns the same error. Is there a way to have non-domain-joined clients skip the ldap:/// link and only check the http:// one? Edit: The ldap:/// URL is ldap:///CN=<name of CA>,CN=<name of server that is running the CA>,CN=CDP,CN=Public Key Services,CN=Services,CN=Configuration,DC=<domain name>?certificateRevocationList?base?objectClass=cRLDistributionPoint The non-domain-joined clients may be on the domain network or on an external network. The http:// CDP is accessible from the public internet.

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • Question about the evolution of interaction paradigm between web server program and content provider program?

    - by smwikipedia
    Hi experts, In my opinion, web server is responsible to deliver content to client. If it is static content like pictures and static html document, web server just deliver them as bitstream directly. If it is some dynamic content that is generated during processing client's request, the web server will not generate the conetnt itself but call some external proram to genearte the content. AFAIK, this kind of dynamice content generation technologies include the following: CGI ISAPI ... And from here, I noticed that: ...In IIS 7, modules replace ISAPI filters... Is there any others? Could anyone help me complete the above list and elabrate on or show some links to their evolution? I think it would be very helpful to understand application such as IIS, TomCat, and Apache. I once wrote a small CGI program, and though it serves as a content generator, it is still nothing but a normal standalone program. I call it normal because the CGI program has a main() entry point. But with the recenetly technology like ASP.NET, I am not writing complete program, but only some class library. Why does such radical change happens? Many thanks.

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  • connecting to secure database from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Use PermGen space or roll-my-own intern method?

    - by Adamski
    I am writing a Codec to process messages sent over TCP using a bespoke wire protocol. During the decode process I create a number of Strings, BigDecimals and dates. The client-server access patterns mean that it is common for the client to issue a request and then decode thousands of response messages, which results in a large number of duplicate Strings, BigDecimals, etc. Therefore I have created an InternPool<T> class allowing me to intern each class of object. Internally, the pool uses a WeakHashMap<T, WeakReferemce<T>>. For example: InternPool<BigDecimal> pool = new InternPool<BigDecimal>(); ... // Read BigDecimal from in buffer and then intern. BigDecimal quantity = pool.intern(readBigDecimal(in)); My question: I am using InternPool for BigDecimal but should I consider also using it for String instead of String's intern() method, which I believe uses PermGen space? What is the advantage of using PermGen space?

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  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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  • Converting Python Script to Vb.NET - Involves Post and Input XML String

    - by Jason Shoulders
    I'm trying to convert a Python Script to Vb.Net. The Python Script appears to accept some XML input data and then takes it to a web URL and does a "POST". I tried some VB.NET code to do it, but I think my approach is off because I got an error back "BadXmlDataErr" plus I can't really format my input XML very well - I'm only doing string and value. The input XML is richer than that. Here is an example of what the XML input data looks like in the Python script: <obj is="MyOrg:realCommand_v1/" > <int name="priority" val="1" /> <real name="value" val="9.5" /> <str name="user" val="MyUserName" /> <reltime name="overrideTime" val="PT60S"/> </obj> Here's the Vb.net code I attempted to convert that: Dim reqparm As New Specialized.NameValueCollection reqparm.Add("priority", "1") reqparm.Add("value", "9.5") reqparm.Add("user", "MyUserName") reqparm.Add("overrideTime", "PT60S") Using client As New Net.WebClient Dim sTheUrl As String = "[My URL]" Dim responsebytes = client.UploadValues(sTheUrl, "POST", MyReqparm) Dim responsebody = (New System.Text.UTF8Encoding).GetString(responsebytes) End Using I feel like I should be doing something else. Can anyone point me to the right direction?

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  • Limit TCP requests per IP

    - by asmo
    Hello! I'm wondering how to limit the TCP requests per client (per specific IP) in Java. For example, I would like to allow a maximum of X requests per Y seconds for each client IP. I thought of using static Timer/TimerTask in combination with a HashSet of temporary restricted IPs. private static final Set<InetAddress> restrictedIPs = Collections.synchronizedSet(new HashSet<InetAddress>()); private static final Timer restrictTimer = new Timer(); So when a user connects to the server, I add his IP to the restricted list, and start a task to unrestrict him in X seconds. restrictedIPs.add(socket.getInetAddress()); restrictTimer.schedule(new TimerTask() { public void run() { restrictedIPs.remove(socket.getInetAddress()); } }, MIN_REQUEST_INTERVAL); My problem is that at the time the task will run, the socket object may be closed, and the remote IP address won't be accessible anymore... Any ideas welcomed! Also, if someone knows a Java-framework-built-in way to achieve this, I'd really like to hear it.

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  • Serialization of Mouse cursors over network

    - by Ehtsham
    hi I am working a client/server application in C#. My server Capture current Mouse Cursors and send these to client so that Cursor of the cleint also chage accordingly.I can detect windows Cursors and serialize them over binaryformatter. it works fine but but problem is there are many cursors that can not be detected like mspaint cursors so i have to take its handler and create the cursor and its x nad y hotspots and add them in an arraylist and serialize it over network but after 10 to 15 minute it thorws exception "Error HRESULT E_FAIL has been returned from a call to a COM Compeonet" and cleint throws the exception of "method of invocation" Can anybody guid me what going wrong ort some better way to do like this Some code is here IntPtr curInfo = GetCurrentCursor(); Cursor cur; Icon ic; byte cursor = 0; if (curInfo != null && curInfo.ToInt32() != 0) { cur = CheckForCusrors(curInfo); try { if (!isLinuxClient) { if (cur == null) { PlatformInvokeUSER32.GetIconInfo(curInfo, out temp); ic = Icon.FromHandle(curInfo); //bitmap = ic.ToBitmap(); ArrayList ar = new ArrayList(); ar.Add(ic); ar.Add(temp.xHotspot); ar.Add(temp.yHotspot); b.Serialize(stm, ar); } else { ArrayList ar = new ArrayList(); ar.Add(cur); b.Serialize(stm, ar); } } public Cursor CheckForCusrors(IntPtr hCur) { if (hCur == Cursors.AppStarting.Handle) return Cursors.AppStarting; else if (hCur == Cursors.Arrow.Handle) return Cursors.Arrow; . . . else if (hCur == Cursors.PanWest.Handle) return Cursors.PanWest; return null; } `

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  • Why do I get a Illegal Access Error when running my Android tests?

    - by Janusz
    I get the following stack trace when running my Android tests on the Emulator: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: client.HttpHelper at client.Helper.<init>(Helper.java:14) at test.Tests.setUp(Tests.java:15) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:164) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:151) at android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner.onStart(InstrumentationTestRunner.java:425) at android.app.Instrumentation$InstrumentationThread.run(Instrumentation.java:1520) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalAccessError: cross-loader access from pre-verified class at dalvik.system.DexFile.defineClass(Native Method) at dalvik.system.DexFile.loadClass(DexFile.java:193) at dalvik.system.PathClassLoader.findClass(PathClassLoader.java:203) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:573) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:532) ... 11 more I run my tests from an extra project. And it seems there are some problems with loading the classes from the other project. I have run the tests before but now they are failing. The project under tests runs without problems. Line 14 of the Helper Class is: this.httpHelper = new HttpHelper(userProfile); I start a HttpHelper class that is responsible for executing httpqueries. I think somehow this helper class is not available anymore, but I have no clue why.

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  • Http authentication with apache httpcomponents

    - by matdan
    Hi, I am trying to develop a java http client with apache httpcomponents 4.0.1. This client calls the page "https://myHost/myPage". This page is protected on the server by a JNDIRealm with a login form authentication, so when I try to get https://myHost/myPage I get a login page. I tried to bypass it unsuccessfully with the following code : //I set my proxy HttpHost proxy = new HttpHost("myProxyHost", myProxyPort); //I add supported schemes SchemeRegistry supportedSchemes = new SchemeRegistry(); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("http", PlainSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 80)); supportedSchemes.register(new Scheme("https", SSLSocketFactory .getSocketFactory(), 443)); // prepare parameters HttpParams params = new BasicHttpParams(); HttpProtocolParams.setVersion(params, HttpVersion.HTTP_1_1); HttpProtocolParams.setContentCharset(params, "UTF-8"); HttpProtocolParams.setUseExpectContinue(params, true); ClientConnectionManager ccm = new ThreadSafeClientConnManager(params, supportedSchemes); DefaultHttpClient httpclient = new DefaultHttpClient(ccm, params); httpclient.getParams().setParameter(ConnRoutePNames.DEFAULT_PROXY, proxy); //I add my authentication information httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( new AuthScope("myHost/myPage", 443), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("username", "password")); HttpHost host = new HttpHost("myHost", 443, "https"); HttpGet req = new HttpGet("/myPage"); //show the page ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String rsp = httpClient.execute(host, req, responseHandler); System.out.println(rsp); When I run this code, I always get the login page, not myPage. How can I apply my credential parameters to avoid this login form? Any help would be fantastic

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  • Synchronizing one or more databases with a master database - Foreign keys

    - by Ikke
    I'm using Google Gears to be able to use an application offline (I know Gears is deprecated). The problem I am facing is the synchronization with the database on the server. The specific problem is the primary keys or more exactly, the foreign keys. When sending the information to the server, I could easily ignore the primary keys, and generate new ones. But then how would I know what the relations are. I had one sollution in mind, bet the I would need to save all the pk for every client. What is the best way to synchronize multiple client with one server db. Edit: I've been thinking about it, and I guess seqential primary keys are not the best solution, but what other possibilities are there? Time based doesn't seem right because of collisions which could happen. A GUID comes to mind, is that an option? It looks like generating a GUID in javascript is not that easy. I can do something with natural keys or composite keys. As I'm thinking about it, that looks like the best solution. Can I expect any problems with that?

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  • PHP static function self:: in joomla JFactory class explanation?

    - by Carbon6
    Hi I'm looking at the code of Joomla and trying to figure out what exactly happends in this function. index.php makes a call to function $app = JFactory::getApplication('site'); jfactory.php code public static function getApplication($id = null, $config = array(), $prefix='J') { if (!self::$application) { jimport('joomla.application.application'); self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); } return self::$application; } application.php code.. public static function getInstance($client, $config = array(), $prefix = 'J') { static $instances; if (!isset($instances)) { $instances = array(); } ....... more code ........ return $instances[$client]; } Now I cannot figure out in function getApplication why is self:$application used. self::$application = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); $application is always null, what is the purpose of using this approach. I tryied modifying it to $var = JApplication::getInstance($id, $config, $prefix); and returnig it but it doesn't work. I would be very glad if someone with more knowledge could explain what is happening here detailed as possible. Many thanks.

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  • Change Address/Port of WSDL EndPointAddress at runtime?

    - by Pretzel
    So I currently have 3 WSDLs added as Service References in my solution. They look like this in my app.config file (I removed the "bindings" field, because it's uninteresting): <system.serviceModel> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/query-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="QueryBinding" contract="QueryService.Query" name="QueryPort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/platetype-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="PlateTypeBinding" contract="PlateTypeService.PlateType" name="PlateTypePort" /> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8080/dataimport-service/jse" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="DataImportBinding" contract="DataImportService.DataImport" name="DataImportPort" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> When I utilize a WSDL, it looks something like this: using (DataService.DataClient dClient = new DataService.DataClient()) { DataService.importTask impt = new DataService.importTask(); impt.String_1 = "someData"; DataService.importResponse imptr = dClient.importTask(impt); } In the "using" statement, when instantiating the DataClient object, I have 5 constructors available to me. In this scenario, I use the default constructor: new DataService.DataClient() which uses the built-in Endpoint Address string, which is fine and good. But I want the user of the application to have the option to change this value. 1) What's the best/easiest way of programatically obtaining this string? 2) Then, once I've allowed the user to edit and test the value, where should I store it? I'd prefer having it be stored in a place (like app.config or equivalent) so that there is no need for checking whether the value exists or not and whether I should be using an alternate constructor. (Looking to keep my code tight, ya know?) Any ideas? Suggestions?

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