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  • Flex 4 IntelliJ IDEA wrapper html crashes browser

    - by user347641
    I'm building an Flex 4 application using IntelliJ IDEA generated sample Flex application. I replace the mxml with the following code from the book Hello Flex 4. It simply crashes the browser when I run it. I tried it on both FF and Chrome. Any clues? [Bindable] public var _bread:Number = Number.NaN; ]]></fx:Script> <fx:Declarations> <s:RadioButtonGroup id="moralityRBG"/> <s:RadioButtonGroup id="restaurantRBG" selectedValue="{_theory.length % 2 == 0 ? 'smoking' : 'non'}"/> </fx:Declarations> <s:Panel width="100%" height="100%" title="Simple Components!"> <s:layout> <s:HorizontalLayout paddingLeft="5" paddingTop="5"/> </s:layout> <s:VGroup> <s:TextArea id="textArea" width="200" height="50" text="@{_theory}"/> <s:TextInput id="textInput" width="200" text="@{_theory}"/> <s:HSlider id="hSlider" minimum="0" maximum="11" liveDragging="true" width="200" value="@{_bread}"/> <s:VSlider id="vSlider" minimum="0" maximum="11" liveDragging="true" height="50" value="@{_bread}"/> <s:Button label="{_theory}" width="200" color="{alarmTB.selected ? 0xFF0000 : 0}" click="_bread = Math.min(_theory.length, 11)"/> <s:CheckBox id="checkBox" selected="{_bread % 2 == 0}" label="even?"/> </s:VGroup> <s:VGroup> <s:RadioButton label="Good" value="good" group="{moralityRBG}"/> <s:RadioButton label="Evil" value="evil" group="{moralityRBG}"/> <s:RadioButton label="Beyond" value="beyond" group="{moralityRBG}"/> <s:RadioButton label="Smoking" value="smoking" group="{restaurantRBG}"/> <s:RadioButton label="Non-Smoking" value="non" group="{restaurantRBG}"/> <s:ToggleButton id="alarmTB" label="ALARM!"/> <s:NumericStepper id="numericStepper" value="@{_bread}" minimum="0" maximum="11" stepSize="1"/> <s:Spinner id="spinner" value="@{_bread}" minimum="0" maximum="11" stepSize="1"/> </s:VGroup> </s:Panel>

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  • CSS Background-Images Loading after HTML Images (Involves Javascript)

    - by Kevin C.
    I threw together a quick little microsite that you can see at http://monterraauction.com. If you don't have a super-fast connection (and nothing's cached), the very last items to load are the background-images that are used for CSS image-text replacement (primarily, that h1#head at the top, with a 7kb background image). Nothing debilitating, but it looks slightly awkward. And I'm asking this question as a matter of curiosity more than anything else ;) Also, please note that this occurs in Firefox, but not Chrome. Now, underneath the h1#head I have a jquery.cycle.lite-powered slideshow in div#photo. In the HTML markup there are a total of 13, heavy image files that make up each of the slides. If I remove all but the first slide, then the problem goes away! So the CSS background-images are loading after...those HTML images are done? But here's what's confusing: I check it out in YSlow...the CSS background-images have a much lower response time than all of the slides in #photo. Right after all the JS files finish loading, in fact. So why aren't they showing up first? I tried $('#photo img:last-child').load(function() { alert('Locked and Loaded!')});, but the background-images pop up a while before the alert does, so I'm assuming it's not waiting until the last slide has loaded (admittedly I'm a bit of JS noob so maybe I'm just making a wrong assumption). I also tried commenting out all the jquery.cycle.lite stuff, so that I knew I didn't have any JS manipulating the DOM elements in #photo, but that wasn't the problem. I tried putting all the JS at the bottom of the document, right before </body>, but that didn't work. Lastly, I tried turning off javascript, and of course the css background-image loads way before the images in #photo, so it's definitely a JS thing (amirite?) I guess the obvious solution here is to mark the slides up as LINKS rather than IMGs, and have Javascript insert those 12 extra slideshow images after the DOM is ready--users without javascript shouldn't need to download the extra images anyways. But again, I'm curious: Why does removing the extra HTML images from within #photo solve the problem? And why are the CSS background-images showing up after the HTML images have loaded, even though YSlow says the css background-images loaded first? Seeing as how it happens in FF but not Chrome, is it simply a browser issue? I appreciate any insight you guys could give me!

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  • NSPredicate problem with fetchedResultsController

    - by RyJ
    Please help! I've been trying to figure this out for way too long. I can't seem to use an NSPredicate in my fetchedResultsController method: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) return fetchedResultsController; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Tweet" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"column == 0"]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; [fetchRequest setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; [fetchRequest setFetchBatchSize:20]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"created_at" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Yet, in another method, where I simply check to see if an object exists, the predicate works like a charm: - (BOOL)findObjectWithKey:(NSString *)key andValue:(NSString *)value sortBy:(NSString *)sort { NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Tweet" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat: @"%K == %@", key, value]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; [request setReturnsObjectsAsFaults:NO]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:sort ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; NSError *error = nil; NSArray *result = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [request release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; if ((result != nil) && ([result count]) && (error == nil)) { return TRUE; } else { return FALSE; }} What am I doing wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • Run bat file in Java and wait 2

    - by Savvas Dalkitsis
    This is a followup question to my other question : http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2434125/run-bat-file-in-java-and-wait The reason i am posting this as a separate question is that the one i already asked was answered correctly. From some research i did my problem is unique to my case so i decided to create a new question. Please go read that question before continuing with this one as they are closely related. Running the proposed code blocks the program at the waitFor invocation. After some research i found that the waitFor method blocks if your process has output that needs to be proccessed so you should first empty the output stream and the error stream. I did those things but my method still blocks. I then found a suggestion to simply loop while waiting the exitValue method to return the exit value of the process and handle the exception thrown if it is not, pausing for a brief moment as well so as not to consume all the CPU. I did this: import java.io.BufferedReader; import java.io.IOException; import java.io.InputStreamReader; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) { try { Process p = Runtime.getRuntime().exec( "cmd /k start SQLScriptsToRun.bat" + " -UuserName -Ppassword" + " projectName"); final BufferedReader input = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getInputStream())); final BufferedReader error = new BufferedReader(new InputStreamReader(p.getErrorStream())); new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { while (input.readLine()!=null) {} } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }).start(); new Thread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { try { while (error.readLine()!=null) {} } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }).start(); int i = 0; boolean finished = false; while (!finished) { try { i = p.exitValue(); finished = true; } catch (IllegalThreadStateException e) { e.printStackTrace(); try { Thread.sleep(500); } catch (InterruptedException e1) { e1.printStackTrace(); } } } System.out.println(i); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } but my process will not end! I keep getting this error: java.lang.IllegalThreadStateException: process has not exited Any ideas as to why my process will not exit? Or do you have any libraries to suggest that handle executing batch files properly and wait until the execution is finished?

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  • Gwt-gdata authentication

    - by Raffo
    Hi guys, I'm writing an application with GWT and I found on the internet that there's a library to use easily gdata features. In particular I need to use the integration with Google Calendar. I followed the official guide on gwt-gdata site to do the authentication ( http://code.google.com/p/gwt-gdata/wiki/GettingStarted ) but unfortunately, I got an error. This is the error: 17:59:12.463 [ERROR] [testmappa] Unable to load module entry point class testMappa.client.TestMappa (see associated exception for details) com.google.gwt.core.client.JavaScriptException: (TypeError): $wnd.google.accounts is undefined fileName: http://127.0.0.1:8888 lineNumber: 29 stack: ("http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/")@http://127.0.0.1:8888:29 connect("http://127.0.0.1:8888/TestMappa.html?gwt.codesvr=127.0.0.1:9997","`gL1<a3s4B&Y{(Ci","127.0.0.1:9997","testmappa","2.0")@:0 ((void 0),"testmappa","http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/")@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/hosted.html?testmappa:264 z()@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/testmappa.nocache.js:2 (-2)@http://127.0.0.1:8888/testmappa/testmappa.nocache.js:8 at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.invokeJavascript(BrowserChannelServer.java:195) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpaceOOPHM.doInvoke(ModuleSpaceOOPHM.java:120) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNative(ModuleSpace.java:507) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.invokeNativeObject(ModuleSpace.java:264) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.JavaScriptHost.invokeNativeObject(JavaScriptHost.java:91) at com.google.gwt.accounts.client.User.login(User.java) at testMappa.client.TestMappa.onModuleLoad(TestMappa.java:68) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.ModuleSpace.onLoad(ModuleSpace.java:369) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.OophmSessionHandler.loadModule(OophmSessionHandler.java:185) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.processConnection(BrowserChannelServer.java:380) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.BrowserChannelServer.run(BrowserChannelServer.java:222) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:637) I'm not able to understand the reason of this error. My code is simply: String scope = "http://www.google.com/calendar/feeds/"; User.login(scope); And as far as I know it should work as it is. I don't know what to do and I'm here to ask how to solve this problem and if I can directly use gdata native java library, but I believe this other thing is not possible to be done for client-side gwt code (since the code is going to be converted to javascript). Thank you.

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  • Crawling not working windows2008

    - by axtolf
    Hi, We installed a new MOSS 2007 farm on windows 2008 SP2 enviroment. We used SQL2008 too. Configuration is 1 index, 1 FE and 1 server with 2008, all on ESX 4.0. All the Service that need it uses a dedicated user, so search has a dedicated user. Installation went well and we found no problem. We installed an SP1 MOSS from a ISO and after we upgraded WSS and MOSS to SP2. We installed the Italian language pack too and patched it to SP2. We created a new SSP. We created a web application and created a root website under it. The problem is that we can't male crawling work in any way. Seems that crawling is not able to reach the web application that we want to crawl. In event viewer of the index we have this error when we try to crawl it: The start address <h..p://name.domain.it:81 cannot be crawled. Context: Application 'SSP1', Catalog 'Portal_Content' Details: The object was not found. (0x80041201) The log of crawling from the search admin, only says: h..p://name.domani.it:81 The object was not found. (The item was deleted because it was either not found or the crawler was denied access to it.) The domain is fully accessible from everywhere using both farm admin user or the search user that we are using for service to run. Site is fully accessible from the index and seem not have problem. Inside the we application we created a root site collection with a couple of file. The log of the farm simply says.... nothing! When we ask to do a full crawl of the site, it runs for a second and after we have the errors that I wrote above. But the farm's log says nothing. Any suggestion or help is really appreciated since we are losing a lot of time on it and really we do not have any idea of what's wrong about this farm.

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  • trying to build Boost MPI, but the lib files are not created. What's going on?

    - by unknownthreat
    I am trying to run a program with Boost MPI, but the thing is I don't have the .lib. So I try to create one by following the instruction at http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_43_0/doc/html/mpi/getting_started.html#mpi.config The instruction says "For many users using LAM/MPI, MPICH, or OpenMPI, configuration is almost automatic", I got myself OpenMPI in C:\, but I didn't do anything more with it. Do we need to do anything with it? Beside that, another statement from the instruction: "If you don't already have a file user-config.jam in your home directory, copy tools/build/v2/user-config.jam there." Well, I simply do what it says. I got myself "user-config.jam" in C:\boost_1_43_0 along with "using mpi ;" into the file. Next, this is what I've done: bjam --with-mpi C:\boost_1_43_0>bjam --with-mpi WARNING: No python installation configured and autoconfiguration failed. See http://www.boost.org/libs/python/doc/building.html for configuration instructions or pass --without-python to suppress this message and silently skip all Boost.Python targets Building the Boost C++ Libraries. warning: skipping optional Message Passing Interface (MPI) library. note: to enable MPI support, add "using mpi ;" to user-config.jam. note: to suppress this message, pass "--without-mpi" to bjam. note: otherwise, you can safely ignore this message. warning: Unable to construct ./stage-unversioned warning: Unable to construct ./stage-unversioned Component configuration: - date_time : not building - filesystem : not building - graph : not building - graph_parallel : not building - iostreams : not building - math : not building - mpi : building - program_options : not building - python : not building - random : not building - regex : not building - serialization : not building - signals : not building - system : not building - test : not building - thread : not building - wave : not building ...found 1 target... The Boost C++ Libraries were successfully built! The following directory should be added to compiler include paths: C:\boost_1_43_0 The following directory should be added to linker library paths: C:\boost_1_43_0\stage\lib C:\boost_1_43_0> I see that there are many libs in C:\boost_1_43_0\stage\lib, but I see no trace of libboost_mpi-vc100-mt-1_43.lib or libboost_mpi-vc100-mt-gd-1_43.lib at all. These are the libraries required for linking in mpi applications. What could possibly gone wrong when libraries are not being built?

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos; }

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  • Implement looped movement animation with tap to cancel

    - by Nader
    Hi All; My app is based around a grid and an image that moves within a grid that is contained within a scrollview. I have an imageview that I am animating from one cell to another in time with a slow finger movement and recentering the scrollview. That is rather straight forward. I have also implement the ability to detect a swipe and therefore move the image all the way to the end of the grid and the uiscrollview recentering. I have even implemented the ability to detect a subsequent tap and freeze the swiped movement. The issue with the swipe movement is that the UIScrollView will scroll all the way to the end before the Image reaches the end and so I have to wait for the image to arrive. Also, when I freeze the movement of the image, I have to re-align the image to a cell (which I can do). I have come to the realization that I have to animate the image one cell at a time for swipes and recentering the uiscrollview before moving the image to the next cell. I have attempted to implement this but I cannot come up with a solution that works or works properly. Can anyone suggest how I go about implementing this? Even if you are able to put up code from a different example or sudo code, it would help a lot as I cannot workout how this should be done, should I be using selectors, a listener in delegates, I just simply lack the experience to solve this design pattern. Here is some code: Note that the sprite is an UIImageView - (void)animateViewToPosition:(SpriteView *)sprite Position:(CGPoint)pos Duration:(CFTimeInterval)duration{ CGMutablePathRef traversePath = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(traversePath, NULL, sprite.center.x, sprite.center.y); CGPathAddLineToPoint(traversePath, NULL, pos.x, pos.y); CAKeyframeAnimation *traverseAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:kAnimatePosition]; traverseAnimation.duration = duration; traverseAnimation.removedOnCompletion = YES; traverseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; traverseAnimation.delegate = sprite; traverseAnimation.path = traversePath; CGPathRelease(traversePath); [sprite.layer addAnimation:traverseAnimation forKey:kAnimatePosition]; sprite.center = pos;

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  • Client-side templating frameworks to streamline using jQuery with REST/JSON

    - by Tauren
    I'm starting to migrate some html generation tasks from a server-side framework to the client. I'm using jQuery on the client. My goal is to get JSON data via a REST api and use this data to populate HTML into the page. Right now, when a user on my site clicks a link to My Projects, the server generates HTML like this: <dl> <dt>Clean Toilet</dt> <dd>Get off your butt and clean this filth!</dd> <dt>Clean Car</dt> <dd>I think there's something growing in there...</dd> <dt>Replace Puked on Baby Sheets</dt> </dl> I'm changing this so that clicking My Projects will now do a GET request that returns something like this: [ { "name":"Clean Car", "description":"I think there's something growing in there..." }, { "name":"Clean Toilets", "description":"Get off your butt and clean this filth!" }, { "name":"Replace Puked on Baby Sheets" } ] I can certainly write custom jQuery code to take that JSON and generate the HTML from it. This is not my question, and I don't need advice on how to do that. What I'd like to do is completely separate the presentation and layout from the logic (jquery code). I don't want to be creating DL, DT, and DD elements via jQuery code. I'd rather use some sort of HTML templates that I can fill the data in to. These templates could simply be HTML snippets that are hidden in the page that the application was loaded from. Or they could be dynamically loaded from the server (to support user specific layouts, i18n, etc.). They could be displayed a single time, as well as allow looping and repeating. Perhaps it should support sub-templates, if/then/else, and so forth. I have LOTS of lists and content on my site that are presented in many different ways. I'm looking to create a simple and consistent way to generate and display content without creating custom jQuery code for every different feature on my site. To me, this means I need to find or build a small framework on top of jQuery (probably as a plugin) that meets these requirements. The only sort of framework that I've found that is anything like this is jTemplates. I don't know how good it is, as I haven't used it yet. At first glance, I'm not thrilled by it's template syntax. Anyone know of other frameworks or plugins that I should look into? Any blog posts or other resources out there that discuss doing this sort of thing? I just want to make sure that I've surveyed everything out there before building it myself. Thanks!

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  • WPF ListView's GridView item expansion

    - by NT_
    Is it possible for a WPF ListView that uses a GridView view (ListView.View property) to have one of its items 'expanded' i.e. create some control underneath the item. I cannot simply add another item as it will assume the GridView item template, i.e. appear with columns rather than being a single usable area. This is how my list view currently looks like, it just has two columns: <ListView x:Name="SomeName" Style="{DynamicResource NormalListView}" > <ListView.View> <GridView ColumnHeaderContainerStyle="{DynamicResource NormalListViewHeader}"> <GridViewColumn Width="140" x:Name="Gvc_Name"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Style="{DynamicResource ListViewCellSeparatorBorder}" > <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Name}" FontWeight="Bold" HorizontalAlignment="Left" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Type}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <Border Style="{DynamicResource ListViewHeaderBorderContainer}"> <TextBlock Style="{DynamicResource ListViewHeaderText}" Text="Name"/> </Border> </GridViewColumn> <GridViewColumn Width="120" x:Name="Gvc_Timestamp"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Style="{DynamicResource ListViewCellSeparatorBorder}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=TimestampDate}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=TimestampTime}" FontWeight="Bold" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </StackPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <Border Style="{DynamicResource ListViewHeaderBorderContainer}"> <TextBlock Style="{DynamicResource ListViewHeaderText}" Text="Processed"/> </Border> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> Many thanks!

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  • Specialization of template after instantiation?

    - by Onur Cobanoglu
    Hi, My full code is too long, but here is a snippet that will reflect the essence of my problem: class BPCFGParser { public: ... ... class Edge { ... ... }; class ActiveEquivClass { ... ... }; class PassiveEquivClass { ... ... }; struct EqActiveEquivClass { ... ... }; struct EqPassiveEquivClass { ... ... }; unordered_map<ActiveEquivClass, Edge *, hash<ActiveEquivClass>, EqActiveEquivClass> discovered_active_edges; unordered_map<PassiveEquivClass, Edge *, hash<PassiveEquivClass>, EqPassiveEquivClass> discovered_passive_edges; }; namespace std { template <> class hash<BPCFGParser::ActiveEquivClass> { public: size_t operator()(const BPCFGParser::ActiveEquivClass & aec) const { } }; template <> class hash<BPCFGParser::PassiveEquivClass> { public: size_t operator()(const BPCFGParser::PassiveEquivClass & pec) const { } }; } When I compile this code, I get the following errors: In file included from BPCFGParser.cpp:3, from experiments.cpp:2: BPCFGParser.h:408: error: specialization of ‘std::hash<BPCFGParser::ActiveEquivClass>’ after instantiation BPCFGParser.h:408: error: redefinition of ‘class std::hash<BPCFGParser::ActiveEquivClass>’ /usr/include/c++/4.3/tr1_impl/functional_hash.h:44: error: previous definition of ‘class std::hash<BPCFGParser::ActiveEquivClass>’ BPCFGParser.h:445: error: specialization of ‘std::hash<BPCFGParser::PassiveEquivClass>’ after instantiation BPCFGParser.h:445: error: redefinition of ‘class std::hash<BPCFGParser::PassiveEquivClass>’ /usr/include/c++/4.3/tr1_impl/functional_hash.h:44: error: previous definition of ‘class std::hash<BPCFGParser::PassiveEquivClass>’ Now I have to specialize std::hash for these classes (because standard std::hash definition does not include user defined types). When I move these template specializations before the definition of class BPCFGParser, I get a variety of errors for a variety of different things tried, and somewhere (http://www.parashift.com/c++-faq-lite/misc-technical-issues.html) I read that: Whenever you use a class as a template parameter, the declaration of that class must be complete and not simply forward declared. So I'm stuck. I cannot specialize the templates after BPCFGParser definition, I cannot specialize them before BPCFGParser definition, how may I get this working? Thanks in advance, Onur

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  • DUnit: How to run tests?

    - by Ian Boyd
    How do i run TestCase's from the IDE? i created a new project, with a single, simple, form: unit Unit1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type TForm1 = class(TForm) private public end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.DFM} end. Now i'll add a test case to check that pushing Button1 does what it should: unit Unit1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type TForm1 = class(TForm) Button1: TButton; procedure Button1Click(Sender: TObject); private public end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.DFM} uses TestFramework; type TForm1Tests = class(TTestCase) private f: TForm1; protected procedure SetUp; override; procedure TearDown; override; published procedure TestButton1Click; end; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin //todo end; { TForm1Tests } procedure TForm1Tests.SetUp; begin inherited; f := TForm1.Create(nil); end; procedure TForm1Tests.TearDown; begin f.Free; inherited; end; procedure TForm1Tests.TestButton1Click; begin f.Button1Click(nil); Self.CheckEqualsString('Hello, world!', f.Caption); end; end. Given what i've done (test code in the GUI project), how do i now trigger a run of the tests? If i push F9 then the form simply appears: Ideally there would be a button, or menu option, in the IDE saying Run DUnit Tests: Am i living in a dream-world? A fantasy land, living in a gumdrop house on lollipop lane?

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  • How to do role-based access control for a franchise business?

    - by FreshCode
    I'm building the 2nd iteration of a web-based CRM+CMS for a franchise service business in ASP.NET MVC 2. I need to control access to each franchise's services based on the roles a user is assigned for that franchise. 4 examples: Receptionist should be able to book service jobs in for her "Atlantic Seaboard" franchise, but not do any reporting. Technician should be able to alter service jobs, but not modify invoices. Managers should be able to apply discount to invoices for jobs within their stores. Owner should be able to pull reports for any franchises he owns. Where should franchise-level access control fit in between the Data - Services - Web layer? If it belongs in my Controllers, how should I best implement it? Partial Schema Roles class int ID { get; set; } // primary key for Role string Name { get; set; } Partial Franchises class short ID { get; set; } // primary key for Franchise string Slug { get; set; } // unique key for URL access, eg /{franchise}/{job} string Name { get; set; } UserRoles mapping short FranchiseID; // related to franchises table Guid UserID; // related to Users table int RoleID; // related to Roles table DateTime ValidFrom; DateTime ValidUntil; Background I built the previous CRM in classic ASP and it runs the business well, but it's time for an upgrade to speed up workflow and leave less room for error. For the sake of proper testing and better separation between data and presentation, I decided to implement the repository pattern as seen in Rob Conery's MVC Storefront series. Controller Implementation Access Control with [Authorize] attribute If there was just one franchise involved, I could simply limit access to a controller action like so: [Authorize(Roles="Receptionist, Technician, Manager, Owner")] public ActionResult CreateJob(Job job) { ... } And since franchises don't just pop up over night, perhaps this is a strong case to use the new Areas feature in ASP.NET MVC 2? Or would this lead to duplicate Views? Controllers, URL Routing & Areas Assuming Areas aren't used, what would be the best way to determine which franchise's data is being accessed? I thought of this: {franchise}/{controller}/{action}/{id} or is it better to determine a job's franchise in a Details(...) action and limit a user's action with [Authorize]: {job}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} {invoice}/{id}/{action}/{subaction} which makes more sense if any user could potentially have access to more than one franchise without cluttering the URL with a {franchise} parameter. Any input is appreciated.

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  • Adb shell commands to change settings or perform tasks on a phone

    - by Noah
    How do I use adb to perform some automated tasks on my android phone? I need to find commands that I can issue from the command line (ideally, using a .bat file) that will be capable of more than simply opening an application or sending an input keyevent (button press). For instance, I want to toggle Airplane Mode on or off from the command line. Currently, the best I can do is launch the Wireless & network settings menu and then use input keyevents to click Airplane mode: adb shell am start -a android.settings.AIRPLANE_MODE_SETTINGS adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 23 There are quite a few drawbacks to this method, primarily that the screen has to be on and unlocked. Also, the tasks I want to do are much broader than this simple example. Other things I'd like to do if possible: 1.Play an mp3 and set it on repeat. Current solution: adb shell am start -n com.android.music/.MusicBrowserActivity adb shell input keyevent 84 adb shell input keyevent 56 & adb shell input keyevent 66 & adb shell input keyevent 67 & adb shell input keyevent 19 adb shell input keyevent 23 & adb shell input keyevent 21 adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 19 & adb shell input keyevent 22 & adb shell input keyevent 22 & adb shell input keyevent 23 & adb shell input keyevent 23 2.Play a video. (current solution: open MediaGallery, send keyevents, similar to above) 3.Change the volume (current solution: send volume-up button keyevents) 4.Change the display timeout (current solution: open sound & display settings, send keyevents) As before, these all require the screen to be on and unlocked. The other major drawback to using keyevents is if the UI of the application is changed, the keyevents will no longer perform the correct function. If there is no easier way to do these sort of things, is there at least a way to turn the screen on (using adb) when it is off? Or to have keyevents still work when the screen is off? I'm not very familiar with java. That said, I've seen code like the following (source: http://yenliangl.blogspot.com/2009/12/toggle-airplane-mode.html) to change a setting on the phone: Settings.System.putInt(Settings.System.AIRPLANE_MODE_ON, 1 /* 1 or 0 */); How do I translate something like the above into an adb shell command? Is this possible, or the wrong way to think about it? I can provide more details if needed. Thanks!

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  • Dropdownlist and Datareader

    - by salvationishere
    After trying many solutions listed on the internet I am very confused now. I have a C#/SQL web application for which I am simply trying to bind an ExecuteReader command to a Dropdownlist so the user can select a value. This is a VS2008 project on an XP OS. How it works is after the user selects a table, I use this selection as an input parameter to a method from my Datamatch.aspx.cs file. Then this Datamatch.aspx.cs file calls a method from my ADONET.cs class file. Finally this method executes a SQL procedure to return the list of columns from that table. (These are all tables in Adventureworks DB). I know that this method returns successfully the list of columns if I execute this SP in SSMS. However, I'm not sure how to tell if it works in VS or not. This should be simple. How can I do this? Here is some of my code. The T-sQL stored proc: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[getColumnNames] @TableName VarChar(50) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; SELECT col.name 'COLUMN_NAME' FROM sysobjects obj INNER JOIN syscolumns col ON obj.id = col.id WHERE obj.name = @TableName END It gives me desired output when I execute following from SSMS: exec getColumnNames 'AddressType' And the code from Datamatch.aspx.cs file currently is: // Add DropDownList Control to Placeholder private void CreateDropDownLists() { SqlDataReader dr2 = ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(targettable); int NumControls = targettable.Length; DropDownList ddl = new DropDownList(); } Where ADONET_methods.DisplayTableColumns(targettable) is: public static SqlDataReader DisplayTableColumns(string tt) { SqlDataReader dr = null; string TableName = tt; string connString = "Server=(local);Database=AdventureWorks;Integrated Security = SSPI"; string errorMsg; SqlConnection conn2 = new SqlConnection(connString); SqlCommand cmd = new SqlCommand("getColumnNames"); //conn2.CreateCommand(); try { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.Connection = conn2; SqlParameter parm = new SqlParameter("@TableName", SqlDbType.VarChar); parm.Value = "Person." + TableName.Trim(); parm.Direction = ParameterDirection.Input; cmd.Parameters.Add(parm); conn2.Open(); dr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); } catch (Exception ex) { errorMsg = ex.Message; } return dr; }

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  • RIA Services Repository Save does not work!?

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hello everybody! Doing my first SL4 MVVM RIA based application and i ran into the following situation: updating a record (EF4,NO-POCOS!!) in the SL-client seems to take place, but values in the dbms are unchanged. Debugging with Fiddler the message on save is (amongst others): EntityActions.nil? b9http://schemas.microsoft.com/2003/10/Serialization/Arrays^HasMemberChanges?^Id?^ Operation?Update I assume that this says only: hey! the dbms should do an update on this record, AND nothing more! Is that right?! I 'm using a generic repository like this: public class Repository<T> : IRepository<T> where T : class { IObjectSet<T> _objectSet; IObjectContext _objectContext; public Repository(IObjectContext objectContext) { this._objectContext = objectContext; _objectSet = objectContext.CreateObjectSet<T>(); } public IQueryable<T> AsQueryable() { return _objectSet; } public IEnumerable<T> GetAll() { return _objectSet.ToList(); } public IEnumerable<T> Find(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Where(where); } public T Single(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.Single(where); } public T First(Expression<Func<T, bool>> where) { return _objectSet.First(where); } public void Delete(T entity) { _objectSet.DeleteObject(entity); } public void Add(T entity) { _objectSet.AddObject(entity); } public void Attach(T entity) { _objectSet.Attach(entity); } public void Save() { _objectContext.SaveChanges(); } } The DomainService Update Method is the following: [Update] public void UpdateCulture(Culture currentCulture) { if (currentCulture.EntityState == System.Data.EntityState.Detached) { this.cultureRepository.Attach(currentCulture); } this.cultureRepository.Save(); } I know that the currentCulture-Entity is detached. What confuses me (amongst other things) is this: is the _objectContext still alive? (which means it "will be"??? aware of the changes made to record, so simply calling Attach() and then Save() should be enough!?!?) What am i missing? Development Environment: VS2010RC - Entity Framework 4 (no POCOs) Thanks in advance

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  • My block is not retaining some of its objects

    - by Drew Crawford
    From the Blocks documentation: In a reference-counted environment, by default when you reference an Objective-C object within a block, it is retained. This is true even if you simply reference an instance variable of the object. I am trying to implement a completion handler pattern, where a block is given to an object before the work is performed and the block is executed by the receiver after the work is performed. Since I am being a good memory citizen, the block should own the objects it references in the completion handler and then they will be released when the block goes out of scope. I know enough to know that I must copy the block to move it to the heap since the block will survive the stack scope in which it was declared. However, one of my objects is getting deallocated unexpectedly. After some playing around, it appears that certain objects are not retained when the block is copied to the heap, while other objects are. I am not sure what I am doing wrong. Here's the smallest test case I can produce: typedef void (^ActionBlock)(UIView*); In the scope of some method: NSObject *o = [[[NSObject alloc] init] autorelease]; mailViewController = [[[MFMailComposeViewController alloc] init] autorelease]; NSLog(@"o's retain count is %d",[o retainCount]); NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); ActionBlock myBlock = ^(UIView *view) { [mailViewController setCcRecipients:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"[email protected]",nil]]; [o class]; }; NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count after the block is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); NSLog(@"o's retain count after the block is %d",[o retainCount]); Block_copy(myBlock); NSLog(@"o's retain count after the copy is %d",[o retainCount]); NSLog(@"mailViewController's retain count after the copy is %d",[mailViewController retainCount]); I expect both objects to be retained by the block at some point, and I certainly expect their retain counts to be identical. Instead, I get this output: o's retain count is 1 mailViewController's retain count is 1 mailViewController's retain count after the block is 1 o's retain count after the block is 1 o's retain count after the copy is 2 mailViewController's retain count after the copy is 1 o (subclass of NSObject) is getting retained properly and will not go out of scope. However mailViewController is not retained and will be deallocated before the block is run, causing a crash.

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  • Progress Bar not updating

    - by Bailz
    I have the following piece of code to write data to an XML file. private void WriteResidentData() { int count = 1; status = "Writing XML files"; foreach (Site site in sites) { try { //Create the XML file StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(path + "\\sites\\" + site.title + ".xml"); writer.WriteLine("<?xml version=\"1.0\" encoding=\"ISO-8859-1\" ?>"); writer.WriteLine("<customer_list>"); foreach (Resident res in site.GetCustomers()) { bw.ReportProgress((count / customers) * 100); writer.WriteLine("\t<customer>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<customer_reference>" + res.reference + "</customer_reference>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<customer_name>" + res.name + "</customer_name>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<customer_address>" + res.address + "</customer_address>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<payment_method>" + res.method + "</payment_method>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<payment_cycle>" + res.cycle + "</payment_cycle>"); writer.WriteLine("\t\t<registered>" + CheckWebStatus(res.reference) + "</registered>"); writer.WriteLine("\t</customer>"); count++; } writer.WriteLine("</customer_list>"); writer.Close(); } catch (Exception ex) { lastException = ex; } } } It's using the same BackgroundWorker that gets the data from the database. My progress bar properly displays the progress whilst it is reading from the database. However, after zeroing the progress bar for the XML writing it simply sits at 0 even though the process is completing correctly. Can anyone suggest why?

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  • UTF8 encoding not working when using ajax.

    - by Ronedog
    I recently changed some of my pages to be displayed via ajax and I am having some confusion as to why the utf8 encoding is now displaying a question mark inside of a box, whereas before it wasn't. Fore example. The oringal page was index.php. charset was explicitly set to utf8 and is in the <head>. I then used php to query the database Heres is the original index.php page: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <div id="main_container"> <?php Data displayed via php was simply a select statement that output the HTML. ?> </div> However, when I made the change to add a menu that populated the "main_container" via ajax all the utf8 encoding stopped working. Here's the new code: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <title>Title here</title> </head> <body class='body_bgcolor' > <a href="#" onclick="display_html('about_us');"> About Us </a> <div id="main_container"></div> The "display_html()" function calls the javascript page which uses jquery ajax call to retrieve the html stored inside a php page, then places the html inside the div with an id of "main_container". I'm setting the charset in jquery to be utf8 like: $.ajax({ async: false, type: "GET", url: url, contentType: "charset=utf-8", success: function(data) { $("#main_container").html(data); } }); What am I doing wrong?

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  • Daylight saving time and Timezone best practices

    - by Oded
    I am hoping to make this question and the answers to it the definitive guide to dealing with daylight saving time, in particular for dealing with the actual change overs. If you have anything to add, please do Many systems are dependent on keeping accurate time, the problem is with changes to time due to daylight savings - moving the clock forward or backwards. For instance, one has business rules in an order taking system that depend on the time of the order - if the clock changes, the rules might not be as clear. How should the time of the order be persisted? There is of course an endless number of scenarios - this one is simply an illustrative one. How have you dealt with the daylight saving issue? What assumptions are part of your solution? (looking for context here) As important, if not more so: What did you try that did not work? Why did it not work? I would be interested in programming, OS, data persistence and other pertinent aspects of the issue. General answers are great, but I would also like to see details especially if they are only available on one platform. Summary of answers and other data: (please add yours) Do: Always persist time according to a unified standard that is not affected by daylight savings. GMT and UTC have been mentioned by different people. Include the local time offset (including DST offset) in stored timestamps. Remember that DST offsets are not always an integer number of hours (e.g. Indian Standard Time is UTC+05:30). If using Java, use JodaTime. - http://joda-time.sourceforge.net/ Create a table TZOffsets with three columns: RegionClassId, StartDateTime, and OffsetMinutes (int, in minutes). See answer Check if your DBMS needs to be shutdown during transition. Business rules should always work on civil time. Internally, keep timestamps in something like civil-time-seconds-from-epoch. See answer Only convert to local times at the last possible moment. Don't: Do not use javascript date and time calculations in web apps unless you ABSOLUTELY have to. Testing: When testing make sure you test countries in the Western and Eastern hemispheres, with both DST in progress and not and a country that does not use DST (6 in total). Reference: Olson database, aka Tz_database - ftp://elsie.nci.nih.gov/pub Sources for Time Zone and DST - http://www.twinsun.com/tz/tz-link.htm ISO format (ISO 8601) - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISO_8601 Mapping between Olson database and Windows TimeZone Ids, from the Unicode Consortium - http://unicode.org/repos/cldr-tmp/trunk/diff/supplemental/windows_tzid.html TimeZone page on WikiPedia - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tz_database StackOverflow questions tagged dst - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/dst StackOverflow questions tagged timezone - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/tagged/timezone Other: Lobby your representative to end the abomination that is DST. We can always hope...

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  • What's the best way to structure this Linq-to-Events Drag & Drop code?

    - by Rob Fonseca-Ensor
    I am trying to handle a drag & drop interaction, which involves mouse down, mouse move, and mouse up. Here is a simplified repro of my solution that: on mouse down, creates an ellipse and adds it to a canvas on mouse move, repositions the ellipse to follow the mouse on mouse up, changes the colour of the canvas so that it's obvious which one you're dragging. var mouseDown = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonDown"); var mouseUp = Observable.FromEvent<MouseButtonEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseLeftButtonUp"); var mouseMove = Observable.FromEvent<MouseEventArgs>(canvas, "MouseMove"); Ellipse ellipse = null; var q = from start in mouseDown.Do(x => { // handle mousedown by creating a red ellipse, // adding it to the canvas at the right position ellipse = new Ellipse() { Width = 10, Height = 10, Fill = Brushes.Red }; Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); canvas.Children.Add(ellipse); }) from delta in mouseMove.Until(mouseUp.Do(x => { // handle mouse up by making the ellipse green ellipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; })) select delta; q.Subscribe(x => { // handle mouse move by repositioning ellipse Point position = x.EventArgs.GetPosition(canvas); Canvas.SetLeft(ellipse, position.X); Canvas.SetTop(ellipse, position.Y); }); the XAML is simply <Canvas x:Name="canvas"/> There's a few things I don't like about this code, and I need help refactoring it :) First of all: the mousedown and mouseup callbacks are specified as side effects. If two subscriptions are made to q, they will happen twice. Second, the mouseup callback is specified before the mousemove callback. This makes it a bit hard to read. Thirdly, the reference to the ellipse seems to be in a silly place. If there's two subscriptions, that variable reference will get overwritten quite quickly. I'm sure that there should be some way we can leverage the let keyword to introduce a variable to the linq expression that will mean the correct ellipse reference is available to both the mouse move and mouse up handlers How would you write this code?

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  • Populating ComboBoxDataColumn items and values

    - by MarceloRamires
    I have a "populate combobox", and I'm so happy with it that I've even started using more comboboxes. It takes the combobox object by reference with the ID of the "value set" (or whatever you want to call it) from a table and adds the items and their respective values (which differ) and does the job. I've recently had the brilliant idea of using comboboxes in a gridview, and I was happy to notice that it worked JUST LIKE a single combobox, but populating all the comboboxes in the given column at the same time. ObjComboBox.Items.Add("yadayada"); //works just like ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("blablabla"); But When I started planning how to populate these comboboxes I've noticed: There's no "Values" property in ComboBoxDataColumn. ObjComboBox.Values = whateverArray; //works, but the following doesn't ObjComboBoxColumn.Values = whateverArray; Questions: 0 - How do I populate it's values ? (I suspect it's just as simple, but uses another name) 1 - If it works just like a combobox, what's the explanation for not having this attribute ? -----[EDIT]------ So I've checked out Charles' quote, and I've figured I had to change my way of populating these bad boys. Instead of looping through the strings and inserting them one by one in the combobox, I should grab the fields I want to populate in a table, and set one column of the table as the "value", and other one as the "display". So I've done this: ObjComboBoxColumn.DataSource = DTConfig; //Double checked, guaranteed to be populated ObjComboBoxColumn.ValueMember = "Code"; ObjComboBoxColumn.DisplayMember = "Description"; But nothing happens, if I use the same object as so: ObjComboBoxColumn.Items.Add("StackOverflow"); It is added. There is no DataBind() function. It finds the two columns, and that's guaranteed ("Code" and "Description") and if I change their names to nonexistant ones it gives me an exception, so that's a good sign. -----[EDIT]------ I have a table in SQL Server that is something like code  |  text —————    1    | foo    2    | bar It's simple, and with other comboboxes (outside of gridviews) i've successfully populated looping through the rows and adding the texts: ObjComboBox.Items.Add(MyDataTable.Rows[I]["MyColumnName"].ToString()); And getting every value, adding it into an array, and setting it like: ObjComboBox.Values = MyArray; I'd like to populate my comboboxColumns just as simply as I do with comboboxes.

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  • Managing a difficult manager

    - by griegs
    I have a situation here at work. We are redeveloping our basic architecture across the entire company. Currently we have the following hierarchy; SQL Database <= Stored Procs not allowed. nHibernate Classes to convert nHibernate into our own objects Web Service <= for all external and [internal] calls. Class to take objects from Web Service and back into our own objects and then… Normal nTier application architecture such as Data Transformation Layer, Business layer etc. Within the database, when we are writing a hierarchy of objects to the database, say for example; Order Person Details Address Product Other We need to serialise the object and save it, in its entirety, to an image field in a table. No attempt has been made to store the objects in their own tables so that we can do useful stuff like report on it. This is an architecture that was implemented [way] before I started and as you can probably appreciate, is a complete nightmare not to mention slow as a wet weekend. We’re not even allowed to have stored procs within SQL server because in my boss’s last job they had a hundred or so and he had a problem identifying them all so therefore all stored procs are the devil. Now the same person that developed the above architecture has developed the new one. It came as no surprise that he’s essentially used the same framework only now it’s using DotNet 3.5 with interfaces and generics. We still have to go through web services, still need to serialise (everything), still not allowed to use stored procs etc. In fact, we’re only barely able to bang two rocks together here. He says to us that the framework is open for discussion but when you discuss it, unless you approve of his design, you are told flatly “No”. He simply won’t listen to any other suggestions. Even when you show him demo applications of his proposed architecture v’s yours and he can see the speed difference, he still won’t take that on board. So I guess my question is, and I know others have experienced the same things out there, how do I get through to someone like this? How do you convince someone to ditch Web Services for internal calls and applications? How do you demonstrate, and make it stick, that stored procs are a better way to go than ad-hoc sql statements? This is killing me. I don’t want to repeat the mistakes of the past and I certainly don’t want to write code that I know is going to be slow and cumbersome. Help!

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  • Is this asking too much of a browser?

    - by Matt Ball
    I'm embedding a large array in <script> tags in my HTML, like this (nothing surprising): <script> var largeArray = [/* lots of stuff in here */]; </script> In this particular example, the array has 210,000 elements. That's well below the theoretical maximum of 231 - by 4 orders of magnitude. Here's the fun part: if I save JS source for the array to a file, that file is 44 megabytes (46,573,399 bytes, to be exact). If you want to see for yourself, you can download it from my Dropbox. (All the data in there is canned, so much of it is repeated. This will not be the case in production.) Now, I'm really not concerned about serving that much data. My server gzips its responses, so it really doesn't take all that long to get the data over the wire. However, there is a really nasty tendency for the page, once loaded, to crash the browser. I'm not testing at all in IE (this is an internal tool). My primary targets are Chrome 8 and Firefox 3.6. In Firefox, I can see a reasonably useful error in the console: Error: script stack space quota is exhausted In Chrome, I simply get the sad-tab page: Cut to the chase, already Is this really too much data for our modern, "high-performance" browsers to handle? Is there anything I can do* to gracefully handle this much data? Incidentally, I was able to get this to work (read: not crash the tab) on-and-off in Chrome. I really thought that Chrome, at least, was made of tougher stuff, but apparently I was wrong... Edit 1 @Crayon: I wasn't looking to justify why I'd like to dump this much data into the browser at once. Short version: either I solve this one (admittedly not-that-easy) problem, or I have to solve a whole slew of other problems. I'm opting for the simpler approach for now. @various: right now, I'm not especially looking for ways to actually reduce the number of elements in the array. I know I could implement Ajax paging or what-have-you, but that introduces its own set of problems for me in other regards. @Phrogz: each element looks something like this: {dateTime:new Date(1296176400000), terminalId:'terminal999', 'General___BuildVersion':'10.05a_V110119_Beta', 'SSM___ExtId':26680, 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___Valid':'false', 'MD_CDMA_NETLOADER_NO_BCAST___PngAttempt':0} @Will: but I have a computer with a 4-core processor, 6 gigabytes of RAM, over half a terabyte of disk space ...and I'm not even asking for the browser to do this quickly - I'm just asking for it to work at all! ? *other than the obvious: sending less data to the browser

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