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  • Licensing iPhone apps per user in existing system

    - by Alxandr
    I've been asked by my job to write a iPhone app for an existing system for managing worktasks. This system is proprietary and costs money, so in order to login you need to be a customer. Now, I've got two questions about the legality of licensing iPhone apps with this system: My company would like to be able to sell the app for profit, but not as a one-time payment, but as a added subscription-fee to the already existing one. Is it legal for us (according with the terms of distributing an iPhone app on the Apple App Store) to do this? That way we'll just add another field to the users-database saying weather or not iPhone is enabled for them, and distribute the app as a free app on App Store. If the previous question is not legal, we'd like to just create a free app and distribute it as part of the existing system. In other words, no extra fee for using the iPhone app for the users, but still free distribution trough App Store. Due to our company not being american or having an office in the U.S. at all enterprice account is not an option. Please let me know if there is anything wrong with any of the above approaches.

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  • Login page shows blank

    - by user481913
    The login page on a project i'm currently fixing up shows blank. i tried echoing some words to find out where the fault lied. I found out that commenting out the below piece of code made it to display. elseif( isset($_POST['do_login'] ) ){//Login user $email = (isset($_POST['login']) && is_string($_POST['login']) && strlen($_POST['login'])<100)?$_POST['login'] : null; $password = (isset($_POST['password']) && is_string($_POST['password']) && strlen($_POST['password'])<100)?$_POST['password'] : null; $remember = isset($_POST['chkremember']) ? true : false; $result = $auth->login($email, $password, $remember); switch($result){ case 1: $msg = 'You have successfully logged in.' break; case 2: $msg = 'Your account has not yet been confirmed. <br/> Please check the e-mail message sent by us and click the confirmation code to validate this account. <a href="user_login.php?view=resend&resend_email='.$email.'">resend activation e-mail</a>'; break; case 3: $msg = 'Your account is not enabled!'; break; case 4: $msg = 'Account with given login credentials does not exist!'; break; } } Can anyone help me figiure out what's wrong with this piece of code?

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  • Best way to detect similar email addresses?

    - by Chris
    I have a list of ~20,000 email addresses, some of which I know to be fraudulent attempts to get around a "1 per e-mail" limit. ([email protected], [email protected], [email protected], etc...). I want to find similar email addresses for evaluation. Currently I'm using a levenshtein algorithm to check each e-mail against the others in the list and report any with an edit distance of less than 2. However, this is painstakingly slow. Is there a more efficient approach? The test code I'm using now is: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.IO; using System.Threading; namespace LevenshteinAnalyzer { class Program { const string INPUT_FILE = @"C:\Input.txt"; const string OUTPUT_FILE = @"C:\Output.txt"; static void Main(string[] args) { var inputWords = File.ReadAllLines(INPUT_FILE); var outputWords = new SortedSet<string>(); for (var i = 0; i < inputWords.Length; i++) { if (i % 100 == 0) Console.WriteLine("Processing record #" + i); var word1 = inputWords[i].ToLower(); for (var n = i + 1; n < inputWords.Length; n++) { if (i == n) continue; var word2 = inputWords[n].ToLower(); if (word1 == word2) continue; if (outputWords.Contains(word1)) continue; if (outputWords.Contains(word2)) continue; var distance = LevenshteinAlgorithm.Compute(word1, word2); if (distance <= 2) { outputWords.Add(word1); outputWords.Add(word2); } } } File.WriteAllLines(OUTPUT_FILE, outputWords.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("Found {0} words", outputWords.Count); } } }

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  • How can I automatically generate sql update scripts when some data is updated ?

    - by Brann
    I'd like to automatically generate an update script each time a value is modified in my database. In other words, if a stored procedure, or a query, or whatever updates column a with value b in table c (which as a pk column (i,j...k), I want to generate this : update c set a=b where i=... and j=... and k=... and store it somewhere (for example as a raw string in a table). To complicate things, I want the script to be generated only if the update has been made by a specific user. Good news is that I've got a primary key defined for all my tables. I can see how to do this using a trigger, but I would need to generate specific triggers for each table, and to update them each and every-time my schema changes. I guess there are some built-in ways to do this as SQL server sometimes need to store this kind of things (while using transactional replication for example), but couldn't find anything so far ... any ideas ? I'm also interested in ways to automatically generate triggers (probably using triggers - meta triggers, huh? - since I will need to update triggers automatically when the schema change)

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  • MYOB Import "amount paid"

    - by php-b-grader
    I seem to have found an anomaly with MYOB (I've actually found many anomalies, this is just another one that is doing my head in...) I am generating a file with all invoices from the web system - no problems. If an invoice has 3 lines and the account is paid COD, I am having an problem e.g. "INV", "DATE" ... "AMOUNT", "INC TAX AMOUNT" ... "AMOUNT PAID" 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 60, 66 ... 66 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 120, 132 ... 132 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 96, 105.6 ... 105.6 8421, 12/06/2010 ... 84, 92.4 ... 92.4 When I import this file, the balance of the invoice is still outstanding and what it appears is the issue is that it is only importing the first line of "amount paid" ... so in other words, based on the above: Invoice 8421 is imported with 4 lines The total invoice amount is $396 The Amount paid (that is imported) is $66 The outstanding balance = $330 Surely the first line isn't expected to be: Inc tax Amount = $66 Amount Paid = $396 It seems completely illogical to me... am I doing something wrong or is MYOB just really bad?

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  • Is there a way to easily convert a series of tarballs of a source tree into a git repository?

    - by Hotei
    I'm new to git and I have a moderately large number of weekly tarballs from a long running project. Each tarball has on average a few hundred files in it. I'm looking for a git strategy that will allow me to add the expanded contents of each tarball to a new git repository, starting from version 1.001 and going through version 1.650. As of this stage of the project 99.5% of tarball(n) is just a copy of version(n-1) - in other words, a perfect candidate for git. The desired end result is to have only the master branch remaining at the end of the process. I think I know git well enough to do this "by hand". As I understand it there is no possibility of a merge conflict since there will be no opportunity to change the master before the next version is added and committed. A shell script is my first guess, but I'm not sure how well bash will like it when git checkout branch_n gets processed while bash is executing in branch_n-1. For the purposes of this project the host environment is Ubuntu 10.4, resources available are 8 Gig RAM, 500 Gig Disk space free and 4 CPU processor at 3.ghz . I don't need someone else to solve the problem but I could use a nudge in the right direction as to how a git expert would approach it. Any advice from someone who's "been there done that" would be appreciated. Hotei PS: I have looked at site's suggested "related questions" and found nothing relevant.

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  • Is there a way to use Linq projections with extension methods

    - by Acoustic
    I'm trying to use AutoMapper and a repository pattern along with a fluent interface, and running into difficulty with the Linq projection. For what it's worth, this code works fine when simply using in-memory objects. When using a database provider, however, it breaks when constructing the query graph. I've tried both SubSonic and Linq to SQL with the same result. Thanks for your ideas. Here's an extension method used in all scenarios - It's the source of the problem since everything works fine without using extension methods public static IQueryable<MyUser> ByName(this IQueryable<MyUser> users, string firstName) { return from u in users where u.FirstName == firstName select u; } Here's the in-memory code that works fine var userlist = new List<User> {new User{FirstName = "Test", LastName = "User"}}; Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = (from u in userlist select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u)) .AsQueryable() .ByName("Test"); foreach (var x in result) { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } Here's the same thing using a SubSonic (or Linq to SQL or whatever) that fails. This is what I'd like to make work somehow with extension methods... Mapper.CreateMap<User, MyUser>(); var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select Mapper.Map<User, MyUser>(u); var final = result.ByName("Test"); foreach(var x in final) // Fails here when the query graph built. { Console.WriteLine(x.FirstName); } The goal here is to avoid having to manually map the generated "User" object to the "MyUser" domain object- in other words, I'm trying to find a way to use AutoMapper so I don't have this kind of mapping code everywhere a database read operation is needed: var result = from u in new DataClasses1DataContext().Users select new MyUser // Can this be avoided with AutoMapper AND extension methods? { FirstName = v.FirstName, LastName = v.LastName };

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  • How to send parameters with same encoding from javascript?

    - by nimcap
    I have a javascript file that lots of people have embedded to their pages. Since I am hosting the file, I have control over that javascript file; I cannot control the way it is embedded because lots of people is using it already. This javascript file sends GET requests to my servlets, and the parameters passed with the request are recorded to DB. For example, javascript sends a request to http://myserver.com/servlet?p1=123&p2=aString and then servlet records 123 and aString to DB somehow. Before sending strings I use encodeURIComponent() to encode it. But what I figured out is every client sends the same string with different encodings depending on either their browser or the site they are visiting. As a result, same strings are represented with different characters when it reaches servlet (so they are different strings). What I am trying to do is to convert the strings to one kind of encoding from javascript so when they reach the client same words are represented with same characters. How is this possible? PS. If there is a way to convert the encoding from Java it is also applicable.

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  • Hibernate noob fetch join problem

    - by Bruce
    Hi all I have two classes, Test2 and Test3. Test2 has an attribute test3 that is an instance of Test3. In other words, I have a unidirectional OneToOne association, with test2 having a reference to test3. When I select Test2 from the db, I can see that a separate select is being made to get the details of the associated test3 class. This is the famous 1+N selects problem. To fix this to use a single select, I am trying to use the fetch=join annotation, which I understand to be @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) However, with fetch set to join, I still see separate selects. Here are the relevant portions of my setup.. hibernate.cfg.xml: <property name="max_fetch_depth">2</property> Test2: public class Test2 { @OneToOne (cascade=CascadeType.ALL , fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn (name="test3_id") @Fetch(FetchMode.JOIN) public Test3 getTest3() { return test3; } NB I set the FetchType to EAGER out of desperation, even though it defaults to EAGER anyway for OneToOne mappings, but it made no difference. Thanks for any help! Edit: I've pretty much given up on trying to use FetchMode.JOIN - can anyone confirm that they have got it to work ie produce a left outer join? In the docs I see that "Usually, the mapping document is not used to customize fetching. Instead, we keep the default behavior, and override it for a particular transaction, using left join fetch in HQL" If I do a left join fetch instead: query = session.createQuery("from Test2 t2 left join fetch t2.test3"); then I do indeed get the results I want - ie a left outer join in the query.

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  • Is there a way to set two C#.Net projects to trust one another?

    - by Eric
    I have two C#.NET projects in a single solution ModelProject and PluginProject. PlugInProject is a plug-in for another application, and consequently references its API. PlugInProject is used to extract data from the application it plugs into. ModelProject contains the data model of classes that are extracted by PlugInProject. The extracted data can be used independent of the application or the plug-in, which is why I am keeping PlugInProject separate from ModelProject. I want ModelProject to remain independent of PlugInProject, and the Applications API. Or in other words I want someone to be able to access the extracted data without needing access to PlugInProject, the application, or the application's API. The problem I'm running into though is PlugInProject needs to be able to create and modify classes in ModelProject. However, I'd prefer to not make these actions public to anyone using ModelProject. The extracted data should effectively be read-only, unless later modified by PlugInProject. How can I keep these projects separate but give PlugInProject exclusive access to ModelProject? Is this possible?

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  • How can I run an app's source code that I got from the Android source code?

    - by Wesley
    For all of you android devs out there that have the Android simulator running on your comp, you know that there are a few built in apps that are already 'installed' on your phone. I had an idea for an app that would utilize a function that is already being done in the spare parts app. I went on to the android developer site, dug through the source code files, and found the spare parts app, and am now trying to set it up so that running it from eclipse on my machine actually runs the app in the simulator. In other words, I want to be able to make changes to and adjust some of the things in that app for my own needs. But it won't compile, because of a number of different errors. How do I get that source code running on my local machine? Is there some special trick that I just dont know about? I thought that if I could get the source code than the rest would be easy, but it isn't being too easy. Any help here would be appreciated!!

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  • a question related to URL

    - by Robert
    Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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  • C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

    - by Lukasz Lysik
    I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

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  • Presentation Issue in an Unordered List

    - by phreeskier
    I'm having an issue with correctly presenting items in an unordered list. The labels are floating left and the related spans that are long in length are wrapping and showing below the label. I need a solution that keeps the related spans in their respective columns. In other words, I don't want long spans to show under the labels. What property can I take advantage of so that I get the desired layout in all of the popular browsers, including IE6? Thanks in advance for the help. My code is as follows: <ul> <li> <label>Name</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Name) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Entity</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Entity) %></span> </li> <li> <label>Phone</label> <span><%= Html.Encode(Model.Phone) %></span> </li> </ul> My CSS styling is as follows: ul { display:block; list-style-type:none; margin:0; padding:0; } ul li label { float:left; width:100px; }

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  • Integrating Magento with a simple static website.

    - by ExtraLean
    Magento is an awesomely powerful ecommerce platform. That said, it is also very complex, and I'd like to know if there is a relatively simple way to utilize Magento as our mISV site's backend to fulfill orders without actually "using" Magento's framework to build the site, run the site, etc. In other words, I don't want to use the built-in CMS, etc. since we have a static website already built. I'd just like our Buy Now buttons to utilize the checkout stuff, and would like to be able to use the back-end part to keep track of orders etc. I was able to accomplish this "fairly" easily with osCommerce, but Magento is proving to be a little more difficult to wrap my head around since I've only started looking at it for a few days now. I found another person asking this same exact question on the Magento wiki (along with several others in the forum), and none of them ever receive a reply for some reason. I noticed that there are may Magento experts on Stack Overflow, so I thought I'd give it a go here. This is an example of one question asked by someone on their wiki, and it captures the essence of what I'm trying to accomplish: Hi, as far as I understand, all shopping cart/eCommerce solutions I see are full featured PHP driven web sites. This means that all the pages the user interacts with, are server generated, and thus, the experience, is tied to the magento framework/workflow. I’d like to integrate bits and pieces of eCommerce/shopping cart in my existing website. Effectively, I’d like to have: 1) on a product information page, a “buy now/add to cart” button that adds to a cart 2) on every page, a view cart/checkout option 3) on a checkout page, with additional content already in place, having the magento “checkout” block integrated in the page (and not the entire page generated from Magento). Have any of you done this with Magento? This is for a simple one-product website so any advice you could share would be highly appreciated.

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  • copy entire row (without knowing field names)

    - by Todd Webb
    Using SQL Server 2008, I would like to duplicate one row of a table, without knowing the field names. My key issue: as the table grows and mutates over time, I would like this copy-script to keep working, without me having to write out 30+ ever-changing fields, ugh. Also at issue, of course, is IDENTITY fields cannot be copied. My code below does work, but I wonder if there's a more appropriate method than my thrown-together text string SQL statement? So thank you in advance. Here's my (yes, working) code - I welcome suggestions on improving it. Todd alter procedure spEventCopy @EventID int as begin -- VARS... declare @SQL varchar(8000) -- LIST ALL FIELDS (*EXCLUDE* IDENTITY FIELDS). -- USE [BRACKETS] FOR ANY SILLY FIELD-NAMES WITH SPACES, OR RESERVED WORDS... select @SQL = coalesce(@SQL + ', ', '') + '[' + column_name + ']' from INFORMATION_SCHEMA.COLUMNS where TABLE_NAME = 'EventsTable' and COLUMNPROPERTY(OBJECT_ID('EventsTable'), COLUMN_NAME, 'IsIdentity') = 0 -- FINISH SQL COPY STATEMENT... set @SQL = 'insert into EventsTable ' + ' select ' + @SQL + ' from EventsTable ' + ' where EventID = ' + ltrim(str(@EventID)) -- COPY ROW... exec(@SQL) -- REMEMBER NEW ID... set @EventID = @@IDENTITY -- (do other stuff here) -- DONE... -- JUST FOR KICKS, RETURN THE SQL STATEMENT SO I CAN REVIEW IT IF I WISH... select EventID = @EventID, SQL = @SQL end

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  • C++ operator new, object versions, and the allocation sizes

    - by mizubasho
    Hi. I have a question about different versions of an object, their sizes, and allocation. The platform is Solaris 8 (and higher). Let's say we have programs A, B, and C that all link to a shared library D. Some class is defined in the library D, let's call it 'classD', and assume the size is 100 bytes. Now, we want to add a few members to classD for the next version of program A, without affecting existing binaries B or C. The new size will be, say, 120 bytes. We want program A to use the new definition of classD (120 bytes), while programs B and C continue to use the old definition of classD (100 bytes). A, B, and C all use the operator "new" to create instances of D. The question is, when does the operator "new" know the amount of memory to allocate? Compile time or run time? One thing I am afraid of is, programs B and C expect classD to be and alloate 100 bytes whereas the new shared library D requires 120 bytes for classD, and this inconsistency may cause memory corruption in programs B and C if I link them with the new library D. In other words, the area for extra 20 bytes that the new classD require may be allocated to some other variables by program B and C. Is this assumption correct? Thanks for your help.

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  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

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  • SSL signed certificates for internal use

    - by rogueprocess
    I have a distributed application consisting of many components that communicate over TCP (for examle JMS) and HTTP. All components run on internal hardware, with internal IP addresses, and are not accessible to the public. I want to make the communication secure using SSL. Does it make sense to purchase signed certificates from a well-known certificate authority? Or should I just use self-signed certs? My understanding of the advantage of trusted certs is that the authority is an entity that can be trusted by the general public - but that is only an issue when the general public needs to be sure that the entity at a particular domain is who they say they are. Therefore, in my case, where the same organization is responsible for the components at both ends of the communication, and everything in between, a publicly trusted authority would be pointless. In other words, if I generate and sign a certificate for my own server, I know that it's trustworthy. And no one from outside the organization will ever be asked to trust this certificate. That is my reasoning - am I correct, or is there some potential advantage to using certs from a known authority?

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  • Kernighan & Ritchie word count example program in a functional language

    - by Frank
    I have been reading a little bit about functional programming on the web lately and I think I got a basic idea about the concepts behind it. I'm curious how everyday programming problems which involve some kind of state are solved in a pure functional programing language. For example: how would the word count program from the book 'The C programming Language' be implemented in a pure functional language? Any contributions are welcome as long as the solution is in a pure functional style. Here's the word count C code from the book: #include <stdio.h> #define IN 1 /* inside a word */ #define OUT 0 /* outside a word */ /* count lines, words, and characters in input */ main() { int c, nl, nw, nc, state; state = OUT; nl = nw = nc = 0; while ((c = getchar()) != EOF) { ++nc; if (c == '\n') ++nl; if (c == ' ' || c == '\n' || c = '\t') state = OUT; else if (state == OUT) { state = IN; ++nw; } } printf("%d %d %d\n", nl, nw, nc); }

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  • Why would I use Assembly.LoadFile in lieu of Assembly.LoadFrom?

    - by Cheeso
    It's my impression that Assembly.LoadFrom uses the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath. It also my impression that Assembly.LoadFile does not. Why would anyone want to use LoadFile? In other words, if my understanding is correct, why would anyone want to NOT use the ApplicationBase and PrivateBinPath? I'm working with some existing code, which uses LoadFile, and I don't understand why it would do so. LoadFile apparently does not load dependencies from the same directory. The LoadFrom method does load dependencies (From the doc: The load-from context...allows dependencies on that path to be found and loaded because the path information is maintained by the context.) I'd like to convert it from using LoadFile, to use LoadFrom. What is likely to break, if anything, if I replace LoadFile with LoadFrom? Even if it iss benign, it may be that I cannot do the replacement, just based on project schedules. If I cannot replace LoadFile with LoadFrom, is there a way to convince assemblies loaded with LoadFile to load dependencies? Is there a packaging trick I can use (embedded assembly, ILMerge, an AssemblyResolve event, something like that) that can allow an assembly loaded with LoadFile to also load its dependencies?

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  • Windows Service doesn't start process with different credentials

    - by Marcus
    I have a Windows Service, running as a user, that should start several processes under different user credentials. I'm using the following code to start a process: Dim winProcess As New System.Diagnostics.Process With winProcess .StartInfo.Arguments = "some_args" .StartInfo.CreateNoWindow = True .StartInfo.ErrorDialog = False .StartInfo.FileName = "C:\TEMP\ProcessFromService\ProcessFromService\bin\Debug\ProcessFromService.exe" .StartInfo.UseShellExecute = False .StartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden 'Opgave WorkingDirectory kan soms tot problemen leiden, indien betreffende directory 'niet bereikbaar (rechten) is voor opgegeven gebruiker. 'Beter dus om deze niet op te geven. '.StartInfo.WorkingDirectory = My.Computer.FileSystem.SpecialDirectories.Temp .StartInfo.Domain = "" .StartInfo.UserName = "MyUserId" Dim strPassword As String = "MyPassword" Dim ssPassword As New Security.SecureString For Each chrPassword As Char In strPassword.ToCharArray ssPassword.AppendChar(chrPassword) Next .StartInfo.Password = ssPassword .Start() End With The process is correctly started when I use the same credentials as of which the Windows Service is running under. The process is not started, without any error, when I use different credentials. In other words: If the Windows Service is running as UserA then I can start a process running as UserA. If the Windows Service is running as UserB then I can not start a process running as UserA. I have created a test project in which I can reproduce this problem. If you put this project in C:\Temp then the used paths will be correct. You can download this test project here: https://dl.dropboxusercontent.com/u/5391091/ProcessFromService.zip NB: I hope this info is enough to explain it. If you need more info, please let me know and I will add it.

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  • Is there really such a thing as a char or short in modern programming?

    - by Dean P
    Howdy all, I've been learning to program for a Mac over the past few months (I have experience in other languages). Obviously that has meant learning the Objective C language and thus the plainer C it is predicated on. So I have stumbles on this quote, which refers to the C/C++ language in general, not just the Mac platform. With C and C++ prefer use of int over char and short. The main reason behind this is that C and C++ perform arithmetic operations and parameter passing at integer level, If you have an integer value that can fit in a byte, you should still consider using an int to hold the number. If you use a char, the compiler will first convert the values into integer, perform the operations and then convert back the result to char. So my question, is this the case in the Mac Desktop and IPhone OS environments? I understand when talking about theses environments we're actually talking about 3-4 different architectures (PPC, i386, Arm and the A4 Arm variant) so there may not be a single answer. Nevertheless does the general principle hold that in modern 32 bit / 64 bit systems using 1-2 byte variables that don't align with the machine's natural 4 byte words doesn't provide much of the efficiency we may expect. For instance, a plain old C-Array of 100,000 chars is smaller than the same 100,000 ints by a factor of four, but if during an enumeration, reading out each index involves a cast/boxing/unboxing of sorts, will we see overall lower 'performance' despite the saved memory overhead?

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  • Why hovering in this menu is not working in IE?

    - by janoChen
    When a anchor is hovered in this menu it should turn its background white. It works in Firefox and Chrome but in IE the words just disappear and the background doesn't turn white. CSS: #lang { float: right; padding: 0 0 0 0; margin: 50px 25px 0 0; width: 285px; } #lang li { font-size: 10px; float: right; } #lang li a#english, #spanish, #chinese { color: #FFF; float: right; padding-right: 20px; padding-top: 2px; padding-bottom: 2px; width: 200px; /* ie fix */ } #lang li a#english { padding-left: 231px; } #lang li a#spanish { padding-left: 228px; } #lang li a#chinese { padding-left: 219px; } #lang li a:hover { background: #FFF; color: #444; } #lang li.current a { background: #FFF !important; color: #444 !important; cursor: default; } HTML: <ul id="lang"> <li <?php if($lang_file=='lang.en.php') {echo 'class="current"';} ?>><a id="english" href="index.php?lang=en">english</a></li> <li <?php if($lang_file=='lang.es.php') {echo 'class="current"';} ?>><a id="spanish" href="index.php?lang=es">español</a></li> <li <?php if($lang_file=='lang.zh-tw.php') {echo 'class="current"';} ?>><a id="chinese" href="index.php?lang=zh-tw">??(??)</a></li> <li <?php if($lang_file=='lang.zh-cn.php') {echo 'class="current"';} ?>><a id="chinese" href="index.php?lang=zh-cn">??(??)</a></li> </ul>

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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