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• Help to argue why to develop software on a physical computer rather than via a remote desktop

  - by s5804

  Remote desktops are great and many times a blessing and cost effective (instead of leasing expensive cables). I am not arguing against remote desktops, just if one have the alternative to use either remote desktop or physical computer, I would choose the later. Also note that I am not arguing for or against remote work practices. But in my case I am required to be physically present in the office when developing software. Background, I work in a company which main business is not to develop software. Therefore the company IT policies are mainly focused on security and to efficiently deploying/maintaing thousands of computer to users. Further, the typical employee runs typical Office applications, like a word processors. Because safety/stability is such a big priority, every non production system/application, shall be deployed into a physical different network, called the test network. Software development of course also belongs in the test network. To access the test network the company has created a standard policy, which dictates that access to the test network shall go only via a remote desktop client. Practically from ones production computer one would open up a remote desktop client to a virtual computer located in the test network. On the virtual computer's remote desktop one would be able to access/run/install all development tools, like Eclipse IDE. Another solution would be to have a dedicated physical computer, which is physically only connected to the test network. Both solutions are available in the company. I have tested both approaches and found running Eclipse IDE, SQL developer, in the remote desktop client to be sluggish (keyboard strokes are delayed), commands like alt-tab takes me out of the remote client, enjoying... Further, screen resolution and colors are different, just to mention a few. Therefore there is nothing technical wrong with the remote client, just not optimal and frankly de-motivating. Now with the new policies put in place, plans are to remove the physical computers connected to the test network. I am looking for help to argue for why software developers shall have a dedicated physical software development computer, to be productive and cost effective. Remember that we are physically in office. Further one can notice that we are talking about approx. 50 computers out of 2000 employees. Therefore the extra budget is relatively small. This is more about policy than cost. Please note that there are lots of similar setups in other companies that work great due to a perfectly tuned systems. However, in my case it is sluggish and it would cost more money to trouble shoot the performance and fine tune it rather than to have a few physical computers. As a business case we have argued that productivity will go down by 25%, however it's my feeling that the reality is probably closer to 50%. This business case isn't really accepted and I find it very difficult to defend it to managers that has never ever used a rich IDE in their life, never mind developed software. Further the test network and remote client has no guaranteed service level, therefore it is down for a few hours per month with the lowest priority on the fix list. Help is appreciated.

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• Having trouble storing a CRTP based class in a vector

  - by user366834

  Hi, Im not sure if this can be done, im just delving into templates so perhaps my understanding is a bit wrong. I have a Platoon of soldiers, the platoon inherits from a formation to pick up the formations properties, but because i could have as many formations as i can think of I chose to use the CRTP to create the formations, hoping that i could make a vector or array of Platoon to store the platoons in. but, of course, when i make a Platoon, it wont store it in the vector, "types are unrelated" Is there any way around this ? i read about "Veneers" which are similar and that they work with arrays but i cant get it to work, perhaps im missing something. here's some code: (sorry about the formatting, the code is here in my post but its not showing up for some reason ) template < class TBase > class IFormation { public : ~IFormation(){} bool IsFull() { return m_uiMaxMembers == m_uiCurrentMemCount; } protected: unsigned int m_uiCurrentMemCount; unsigned int m_uiMaxMembers; IFormation( unsigned int _uiMaxMembers ): m_uiMaxMembers( _uiMaxMembers ), m_uiCurrentMemCount( 0 ){} // only allow use as a base class. void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ){}; // must be implemented in derived class }; ///////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // PHALANX FORMATION class Phalanx : public IFormation<Phalanx> { public: Phalanx( ): IFormation( 12 ), m_fDistance( 4.0f ) {} ~Phalanx(){} protected: float m_fDistance; // the distance between soldiers void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ); }; /////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////// // COLUMN FORMATINO class Column : public IFormation< Column > { public : Column( int _numOfMembers ): IFormation( _numOfMembers ) {} ~Column(); protected: void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ); }; I then use these formations in the platoon class to derive, so that platoon gets the relevant SetupFormation() function: template < class Formation > class Platoon : public Formation { public: **** platoon code here }; everything works great and as expected up until this point. now, as my general can have multiple platoons, I need to store the platoons. typedef Platoon< IFormation<> > TPlatoon; // FAIL typedef std::vector<TPlatoon*> TPlatoons; TPlatoon m_pPlatoons m_pPlatoons.push_back( new Platoon<Phalanx> ); // FAIL, types unrelated. typedef Platoon< IFormation< TPlatoon; fails because i need to specify a template parameter, yet specifying this will only allow me to store platoons created with the same template parameter. so i then created FormationBase class FormationBase { public: virtual bool IsFull() = 0; virtual void SetupFormation( std::vector<MySoldier*>& _soldierList ) = 0; }; and made IFormation publicly inherit from that, and then changed the typedef to typedef Platoon< IFormation< FormationBase > > TPlatoon; but still no love. now in my searches i have not found info that says this is possible - or not possible.

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• What version-control system is most trivial to set up and use for toy projects?

  - by Norman Ramsey

  I teach the third required intro course in a CS department. One of my homework assignments asks students to speed up code they have written for a previous assignment. Factor-of-ten speedups are routine; factors of 100 or 1000 are not unheard of. (For a factor of 1000 speedup you have to have made rookie mistakes with malloc().) Programs are improved by a sequence is small changes. I ask students to record and describe each change and the resulting improvement. While you're improving a program it is also possible to break it. Wouldn't it be nice to back out? You can see where I'm going with this: my students would benefit enormously from version control. But there are some caveats: Our computing environment is locked down. Anything that depends on a central repository is suspect. Our students are incredibly overloaded. Not just classes but jobs, sports, music, you name it. For them to use a new tool it has to be incredibly easy and have obvious benefits. Our students do most work in pairs. Getting bits back and forth between accounts is problematic. Could this problem also be solved by distributed version control? Complexity is the enemy. I know setting up a CVS repository is too baffling---I myself still have trouble because I only do it once a year. I'm told SVN is even harder. Here are my comments on existing systems: I think central version control (CVS or SVN) is ruled out because our students don't have the administrative privileges needed to make a repository that they can share with one other student. (We are stuck with Unix file permissions.) Also, setup on CVS or SVN is too hard. darcs is way easy to set up, but it's not obvious how you share things. darcs send (to send patches by email) seems promising but it's not clear how to set it up. The introductory documentation for git is not for beginners. Like CVS setup, it's something I myself have trouble with. I'm soliciting suggestions for what source-control to use with beginning students. I suspect we can find resources to put a thin veneer over an existing system and to simplify existing documentation. We probably don't have resources to write new documentation. So, what's really easy to setup, commit, revert, and share changes with a partner but does not have to be easy to merge or to work at scale? A key constraint is that programming pairs have to be able to share work with each other and only each other, and pairs change every week. Our infrastructure is Linux, Solaris, and Windows with a netapp filer. I doubt my IT staff wants to create a Unix group for each pair of students. Is there an easier solution I've overlooked? (Thanks for the accepted answer, which beats the others on account of its excellent reference to Git Magic as well as the helpful comments.)

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• L2S DataContext out of synch: row not found or changed

  - by awrigley

  The Problem I am getting a number of errors that imply that the DataContext, or rather, the way I am using the DataContext is getting out of synch. The error occurs on db.SubmitChanges() where db is my DataContext instance. The error is: Row not found or changed. The problem only occurs intermitently, for example, adding a row then deleting it. If I stop the dev server and restart, the added row is there and I can delete it no problem. Ie, it seems that the problem is related to the DataContext losing track of the rows that have been added. IMPORTANT: Before anyone votes to close this thread, on the basis of it being a duplicate, I have checked the sql server profiler and there is no "Where 0 = 1" in the SQL. I have also recreated the dbml file, so am satisfied that the database schema is in synch with the schema represented by the dbml file. Ie, no cases of mismatched nullable/not nullable columns, etc. My Diagnosis (for what it is worth): It seems to be a problem related to how I am using the DataContext. I am new to MVC, Repositories and Services patterns, so suspect that I have wired things up wrong. The Setup Simple eLearning app in its early stages. Pupils need to be able to add and delete courses (Courses table) to their UserCourses. To do this, I have a service that gets a specific DataContext instance Dependency Injected into its constructor. Service Class Constructor: public class SqlPupilBlockService : IPupilBlockService { DataContext db; public SqlPupilBlockService(DataContext db) { this.db = db; CoursesRepository = new SqlRepository<Course>(db); UserCoursesRepository = new SqlRepository<UserCourse>(db); } // Etc, etc } The CoursesRepository and UserCoursesRepository are both private properties of the service class that are of Type IRepository (just a simple generic repository interface). Sql Respoitory Code: public class SqlRepository<T> : IRepository<T> where T : class { DataContext db; public SqlRepository(DataContext db) { this.db = db; } #region IRepository<T> Members public IQueryable<T> Query { get { return db.GetTable<T>(); } } public List<T> FetchAll() { return Query.ToList(); } public void Add(T entity) { db.GetTable<T>().InsertOnSubmit(entity); } public void Delete(T entity) { db.GetTable<T>().DeleteOnSubmit(entity); } public void Save() { db.SubmitChanges(); } #endregion } The two methods for adding and deleting UserCourses are: Service Methods for Adding and Deleting UserCourses: public void AddUserCourse(int courseId) { UserCourse uc = new UserCourse(); uc.IdCourse = courseId; uc.IdUser = UserId; uc.DateCreated = DateTime.Now; uc.DateAmended = DateTime.Now; uc.Role = "Pupil"; uc.CourseNotes = string.Empty; uc.ActiveStepIndex = 0; UserCoursesRepository.Add(uc); UserCoursesRepository.Save(); } public void DeleteUserCourse(int courseId) { var uc = (UserCoursesRepository.Query.Where(x => x.IdUser == UserId && x.IdCourse == courseId)).Single(); UserCoursesRepository.Delete(uc); UserCoursesRepository.Save(); } Ajax I am using Ajax via Ajax.BeginForm I don't think that is relevant. ASP.NET MVC 3 I am using mvc3, but don't think that is relevant: the errors are related to model code.

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• Why does this Java code not utilize all CPU cores?

  - by ReneS

  The attached simple Java code should load all available cpu core when starting it with the right parameters. So for instance, you start it with java VMTest 8 int 0 and it will start 8 threads that do nothing else than looping and adding 2 to an integer. Something that runs in registers and not even allocates new memory. The problem we are facing now is, that we do not get a 24 core machine loaded (AMD 2 sockets with 12 cores each), when running this simple program (with 24 threads of course). Similar things happen with 2 programs each 12 threads or smaller machines. So our suspicion is that the JVM (Sun JDK 6u20 on Linux x64) does not scale well. Did anyone see similar things or has the ability to run it and report whether or not it runs well on his/her machine (= 8 cores only please)? Ideas? I tried that on Amazon EC2 with 8 cores too, but the virtual machine seems to run different from a real box, so the loading behaves totally strange. package com.test; import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; import java.util.concurrent.Future; import java.util.concurrent.TimeUnit; public class VMTest { public class IntTask implements Runnable { @Override public void run() { int i = 0; while (true) { i = i + 2; } } } public class StringTask implements Runnable { @Override public void run() { int i = 0; String s; while (true) { i++; s = "s" + Integer.valueOf(i); } } } public class ArrayTask implements Runnable { private final int size; public ArrayTask(int size) { this.size = size; } @Override public void run() { int i = 0; String[] s; while (true) { i++; s = new String[size]; } } } public void doIt(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { final String command = args[1].trim(); ExecutorService executor = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(Integer.valueOf(args[0])); for (int i = 0; i < Integer.valueOf(args[0]); i++) { Runnable runnable = null; if (command.equalsIgnoreCase("int")) { runnable = new IntTask(); } else if (command.equalsIgnoreCase("string")) { runnable = new StringTask(); } Future<?> submit = executor.submit(runnable); } executor.awaitTermination(1, TimeUnit.HOURS); } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { if (args.length < 3) { System.err.println("Usage: VMTest threadCount taskDef size"); System.err.println("threadCount: Number 1..n"); System.err.println("taskDef: int string array"); System.err.println("size: size of memory allocation for array, "); System.exit(-1); } new VMTest().doIt(args); } }

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• Help with optimizing C# function via C and/or Assembly

  - by MusiGenesis

  I have this C# method which I'm trying to optimize: // assume arrays are same dimensions private void DoSomething(int[] bigArray1, int[] bigArray2) { int data1; byte A1; byte B1; byte C1; byte D1; int data2; byte A2; byte B2; byte C2; byte D2; for (int i = 0; i < bigArray1.Length; i++) { data1 = bigArray1[i]; data2 = bigArray2[i]; A1 = (byte)(data1 >> 0); B1 = (byte)(data1 >> 8); C1 = (byte)(data1 >> 16); D1 = (byte)(data1 >> 24); A2 = (byte)(data2 >> 0); B2 = (byte)(data2 >> 8); C2 = (byte)(data2 >> 16); D2 = (byte)(data2 >> 24); A1 = A1 > A2 ? A1 : A2; B1 = B1 > B2 ? B1 : B2; C1 = C1 > C2 ? C1 : C2; D1 = D1 > D2 ? D1 : D2; bigArray1[i] = (A1 << 0) | (B1 << 8) | (C1 << 16) | (D1 << 24); } } The function basically compares two int arrays. For each pair of matching elements, the method compares each individual byte value and takes the larger of the two. The element in the first array is then assigned a new int value constructed from the 4 largest byte values (irrespective of source). I think I have optimized this method as much as possible in C# (probably I haven't, of course - suggestions on that score are welcome as well). My question is, is it worth it for me to move this method to an unmanaged C DLL? Would the resulting method execute faster (and how much faster), taking into account the overhead of marshalling my managed int arrays so they can be passed to the method? If doing this would get me, say, a 10% speed improvement, then it would not be worth my time for sure. If it was 2 or 3 times faster, then I would probably have to do it. Note: please, no "premature optimization" comments, thanks in advance. This is simply "optimization".

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• Merge Sort issue when removing the array copy step

  - by Ime Prezime

  I've been having an issue that I couldn't debug for quite some time. I am trying to implement a MergeSort algorithm with no additional steps of array copying by following Robert Sedgewick's algorithm in "Algorithm's in C++" book. Short description of the algorithm: The recursive program is set up to sort b, leaving results in a. Thus, the recursive calls are written to leave their result in b, and we use the basic merge program to merge those files from b into a. In this way, all the data movement is done during the course of the merges. The problem is that I cannot find any logical errors but the sorting isn't done properly. Data gets overwritten somewhere and I cannot determine what logical error causes this. The data is sorted when the program is finished but it is not the same data any more. For example, Input array: { A, Z, W, B, G, C } produces the array: { A, G, W, W, Z, Z }. I can obviously see that it must be a logical error somewhere, but I have been trying to debug this for a pretty long time and I think a fresh set of eyes could maybe see what I'm missing cause I really can't find anything wrong. My code: static const int M = 5; void insertion(char** a, int l, int r) { int i,j; char * temp; for (i = 1; i < r + 1; i++) { temp = a[i]; j = i; while (j > 0 && strcmp(a[j-1], temp) > 0) { a[j] = a[j-1]; j = j - 1; } a[j] = temp; } } //merging a and b into c void merge(char ** c,char ** a, int N, char ** b, int M) { for (int i = 0, j = 0, k = 0; k < N+M; k++) { if (i == N) { c[k] = b[j++]; continue; } if (j == M) { c[k] = a[i++]; continue; } c[k] = strcmp(a[i], b[j]) < 0 ? a[i++] : b[j++]; } } void mergesortAux(char ** a, char ** b, int l, int r) { if(r - l <= M) { insertion(a, l, r); return; } int m = (l + r)/2; mergesortAux(b, a, l, m); //merge sort left mergesortAux(b, a, m+1, r); //merge sort right merge(a+l, b+l, m-l+1, b+m+1, r-m); //merge } void mergesort(char ** a,int l, int r, int size) { static char ** aux = (char**)malloc(size * sizeof(char*)); for(int i = l; i < size; i++) aux[i] = a[i]; mergesortAux(a, aux, l, r); free(aux); }

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• Const-correctness semantics in C++

  - by thirtythreeforty

  For fun and profit™, I'm writing a trie class in C++ (using the C++11 standard.) My trie<T> has an iterator, trie<T>::iterator. (They're all actually functionally const_iterators, because you cannot modify a trie's value_type.) The iterator's class declaration looks partially like this: template<typename T> class trie<T>::iterator : public std::iterator<std::bidirectional_iterator_tag, T> { friend class trie<T>; struct state { state(const trie<T>* const node, const typename std::vector<std::pair<typename T::value_type, std::unique_ptr<trie<T>>>>::const_iterator& node_map_it ) : node{node}, node_map_it{node_map_it} {} // This pointer is to const data: const trie<T>* node; typename std::vector<std::pair<typename T::value_type, std::unique_ptr<trie<T>>>>::const_iterator node_map_it; }; public: typedef const T value_type; iterator() =default; iterator(const trie<T>* node) { parents.emplace(node, node->children.cbegin()); // ... } // ... private: std::stack<state> parents; // ... }; Notice that the node pointer is declared const. This is because (in my mind) the iterator should not be modifying the node that it points to; it is just an iterator. Now, elsewhere in my main trie<T> class, I have an erase function that has a common STL signature--it takes an iterator to data to erase (and returns an iterator to the next object). template<typename T> typename trie<T>::iterator trie<T>::erase(const_iterator it) { // ... // Cannot modify a const object! it.parents.top().node->is_leaf = false; // ... } The compiler complains because the node pointer is read-only! The erase function definitely should modify the trie that the iterator points to, even though the iterator shouldn't. So, I have two questions: Should iterator's constructors be public? trie<T> has the necessary begin() and end() members, and of course trie<T>::iterator and trie<T> are mutual friends, but I don't know what the convention is. Making them private would solve a lot of the angst I'm having about removing the const "promise" from the iterator's constructor. What are the correct const semantics/conventions regarding the iterator and its node pointer here? Nobody has ever explained this to me, and I can't find any tutorials or articles on the Web. This is probably the more important question, but it does require a good deal of planning and proper implementation. I suppose it could be circumvented by just implementing 1, but it's the principle of the thing!

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• iOS: Interpreted code - where do they draw the line?

  - by d7samurai

  Apple's iOS developer guidelines state: 3.3.2 — An Application may not itself install or launch other executable code by any means, including without limitation through the use of a plug-in architecture, calling other frameworks, other APIs or otherwise. No interpreted code may be downloaded or used in an Application except for code that is interpreted and run by Apple’s Documented APIs and built-in interpreter(s). Assuming that downloading data - like XML and images (or a game level description), for example - at run-time is allowed (as is my impression), I am wondering where they draw the line between "data" and "code". Picture the scenario of an app that delivers interactive "presentations" to users (like a survey, for instance). Presentations are added continuously to the server and different presentations are made available to different users, so they cannot be part of the initial app download (this is the whole point). They are described in XML format, but being interactive, they might contain conditional branching of this sort (shown in pseudo form to exemplify): <options id="Gender"> <option value="1">Male</option> <option value="2">Female</option> </options> <branches id="Gender"> <branch value="1"> <image src="Man" /> </branch> <branch value="2"> <image src="Woman" /> </branch> </branches> When the presentation is "played" within the app, the above would be presented in two steps. First a selection screen where the user can click on either of the two choices presented ("Male" or "Female"). Next, an image will be [downloaded dynamically] and displayed based on the choice made in the previous step. Now, it's easy to imagine additional tags describing further logic still. For example, a containing tag could be added: <loop count="3"> <options... /> <branches... /> </loop> The result here being that the selection screen / image screen pair would be sequentially presented three times over, of course. Or imagine some description of a level in a game. It's easy to view that as passive "data", but if it includes, say, several doorways that the user can go through and with various triggers, traps and points attached to them etc - isn't that the same as using a script - or, indeed, interpreted code - to describe options and their conditional responses? Assuming that the interpretation engine for this XML data is already present in the app and that such presentations can only be consumed (not created or edited) in the app, how would this fare against Apple's iOS guidelines? Doesn't XML basically constitute a scripting language (couldn't any interpreted programming language simply be described by XML) in this sense? Would it be OK if the proprietary scripting language (ref the XML used above) was strictly sandboxed (how can they tell?) and not given access to the operating system in any way (but able to download content dynamically - and upload results to the authoring server)? Where does the line go?

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• Accordion "growing out" from its container - in IE7/8

  - by Richard Knop

  I think this problem is best explained by images. This is how my accordion looks: When you click on the small plus/minus icons the slides under each chapter will expand/collapse. However when the content in the accordion grows too tall, it grows out from its container. So if I click on more plus icons the accordion will look like this (not pretty): As you can see, the container is not growing taller together with the accordion and it does not look good. This problem only occurs in IE7 and IE8. It works in Firefox and Chrome. The HTML looks like this (simplified): <div id="content"> <div class="box2 rounded-corners"> <div class="chapters"> <h3><a href="/clientarea/view/archived-course/teid/133">Obsah</a></h3> <div id="accordion"> <ul> ... // accordion content - too long ... // accordion content - too long </ul> <div class="clear">&nbsp;</div> </div> <div class="clear">&nbsp;</div> </div> <div class="training-body"> ... // content to the right of the accordion </div> </div> </div> The CSS, again siplified: html, body { height: 100%; width: 100%; overflow: auto; } #content { background: white url('/images/background_middle.png') left top repeat-x; padding: 13px; min-height: 40em; height: auto !important; height: 40em; } /* this is the div with rounded corners */ #content .box2 { background: white; padding: 0 15px 15px; border: 1px solid #C5E3F8; position: relative; } /* left sidebar 98 #content div.chapters { float: left; width: 224px; } /* orange heading "OBSAH" */ #content div.chapters h3 { color: #ff6e19; text-transform: uppercase; font-size: .9em; text-align: center; padding-bottom: .5em; margin-top: 1em; margin-bottom: 0; } #content div.chapters h3 a { color: #ff6e19; } /* accordion */ #accordion { width: 226px; border-top: 1px solid #c5e3f8; } #accordion ul { padding-left: 0; margin-top: 0; margin-bottom: 0; margin-left: 0; } /* area to the right of the accordion */ #content div.training-body { float: left; padding-left: 0px; width: 748px; line-height: 1.3em; }

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• clock and date showing on a live site but not on localhost

  - by grumpypanda

  I've got clock.swf and date.swf working fine on a live site, now I am using the same code to set up a local develop environment. Everything is working well except the clock.swf and date.swf stopped working on localhost. Two same yellow errors "You need to update your Flash plugin. Click here if you want to continue." but of course my Flash player is up to date since the live site is working fine. I'll post the code below which I think has caused the error. I've been searching online for the last couple of hours but no luck, anyone has got into an issue like this before? What can be the possible cause? Any help is appreciated. This is on the index.php, I can post more code here if needed. <?php embed_flash("swf/clock.swf", CLOCK_WIDTH, CLOCK_HEIGHT, "8", '', "flashcontent");?> <?php embed_flash("swf/date.swf", DATE_WIDTH, DATE_HEIGHT, "8", '', "flashcontent_date");?> configure.php define('CLOCK_WIDTH', '450'); define('CLOCK_HEIGHT', ''); define('DATE_WIDTH', '440'); define('DATE_HEIGHT', ''); flash_function.php <?php function embed_flash($name, $w, $h, $version, $bgcolor, $id) { $cacheBuster = rand(); $padTop = $h/3; ?> <style> a.noflash:link, a.noflash:visited, a.noflash:active {color: #1860C2; text-decoration: none; background:#FFFFFF;} a.noflash:hover {color:#000; text-decoration:none; background:#EEEEEE;} .message { width: <?=$w;?>px; font-size:12px; font-weight:normal; margin-bottom: 10px; padding: 5px; color: #EEE; background: orange;"} </style> <div id="<?=$id; ?>" align="center"> <noscript> <div class="message"> Please enable <a href="https://www.google.com/support/adsense/bin/answer.py?answer=12654" target="_blank" class="noflash">&nbsp;JavaScript&nbsp;</a> to view this page properly. </div> </noscript> <div class="message"> You need to update your Flash plugin. Click <a href="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash&promoid=BIOW" target="_blank" class="noflash">&nbsp;here&nbsp;</a> if you want to continue. </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> // <![CDATA[ var so = new SWFObject("<?=$name;?>", "", "<?=$w;?>", "<?=$h;?>", "<?=$version;?>", "<?=$bgcolor;?>"); so.addParam("quality", "high"); so.addParam("allowScriptAccess", "sameDomain"); so.addParam("scale", "showall"); so.addParam("loop", "false"); so.addParam("wmode", "transparent"); so.write("<?=$id;?>"); // ]]> </script>

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• checking virtual sub domains

  - by Persian.

  I create a project that check the sub domain and redirect to the exist subdomain ( username ) but I can't find out why when the username is in database it can't show it . on local system it works finely .. but when I upload it on server it not works .. of course I change the commented place to uncomment for test .. but it's not working .. it shows this error : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. My code is this in page load : //Uri MyUrl = new Uri(Request.Url.ToString()); //string Url = MyUrl.Host.ToString(); Uri MyUrl = new Uri("http://Subdomain.Mydomain.com/"); string Url = MyUrl.Host.ToString(); string St1 = Url.Split('.')[0]; if ((St1.ToLower() == "Mydomain") || (St1.ToLower() == "Mydomain")) { Response.Redirect("Intro.aspx"); } else if (St1.ToLower() == "www") { string St2 = Url.Split('.')[1]; if ((St2.ToLower() == "Mydomain") || (St2.ToLower() == "Mydomain")) { Response.Redirect("Intro.aspx"); } else { object Blogger = ClsPublic.GetBlogger(St2); if (Blogger != null) { lblBloger.Text = Blogger.ToString(); if (Request.QueryString["id"] != null) { GvImage.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceImageId"; GvComments.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceCommentsId"; this.BindItemsList(); GetSubComments(); } else { SqlConnection scn = new SqlConnection(ClsPublic.GetConnectionString()); SqlCommand scm = new SqlCommand("SELECT TOP (1) fId FROM tblImages WHERE (fxAccepted = 1) AND (fBloging = 1) AND (fxSender = @fxSender) ORDER BY fId DESC", scn); scm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@fxSender", lblBloger.Text); scn.Open(); lblLastNo.Text = scm.ExecuteScalar().ToString(); scn.Close(); GvImage.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceLastImage"; GvComments.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceCommentsWId"; this.BindItemsList(); GetSubComments(); } if (Session["User"] != null) { MultiViewCommenting.ActiveViewIndex = 0; } else { MultiViewCommenting.ActiveViewIndex = 1; } } else { Response.Redirect("Intro.aspx"); } } } else { object Blogger = ClsPublic.GetBlogger(St1); if (Blogger != null) { lblBloger.Text = Blogger.ToString(); if (Request.QueryString["id"] != null) { GvImage.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceImageId"; GvComments.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceCommentsId"; this.BindItemsList(); GetSubComments(); } else { SqlConnection scn = new SqlConnection(ClsPublic.GetConnectionString()); SqlCommand scm = new SqlCommand("SELECT TOP (1) fId FROM tblImages WHERE (fxAccepted = 1) AND (fBloging = 1) AND (fxSender = @fxSender) ORDER BY fId DESC", scn); scm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@fxSender", lblBloger.Text); scn.Open(); lblLastNo.Text = scm.ExecuteScalar().ToString(); scn.Close(); GvImage.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceLastImage"; GvComments.DataSourceID = "SqlDataSourceCommentsWId"; this.BindItemsList(); GetSubComments(); } if (Session["User"] != null) { MultiViewCommenting.ActiveViewIndex = 0; } else { MultiViewCommenting.ActiveViewIndex = 1; } } else { Response.Redirect("Intro.aspx"); } } and my class : public static object GetBlogger(string User) { SqlConnection scn = new SqlConnection(ClsPublic.GetConnectionString()); SqlCommand scm = new SqlCommand("SELECT fUsername FROM tblMembers WHERE fUsername = @fUsername", scn); scm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@fUsername", User); scn.Open(); object Blogger = scm.ExecuteScalar(); if (Blogger != null) { SqlCommand sccm = new SqlCommand("SELECT COUNT(fId) AS Exp1 FROM tblImages WHERE (fxSender = @fxSender) AND (fxAccepted = 1)", scn); sccm.Parameters.AddWithValue("fxSender", Blogger); object HasQuty = sccm.ExecuteScalar(); scn.Close(); if (HasQuty != null) { int Count = Int32.Parse(HasQuty.ToString()); if (Count < 10) { Blogger = null; } } } return Blogger; } Which place if my code has problem ?

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• How to select chosen columns from two different entities into one DTO using NHibernate?

  - by Pawel Krakowiak

  I have two classes (just recreating the problem): public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string FirstName { get; set; } public virtual string LastName { get; set; } public virtual IList<OrgUnitMembership> OrgUnitMemberships { get; set; } } public class OrgUnitMembership { public virtual int UserId { get; set; } public virtual int OrgUnitId { get; set; } public virtual DateTime JoinDate { get; set; } public virtual DateTime LeaveDate { get; set; } } There's a Fluent NHibernate map for both, of course: public class UserMapping : ClassMap<User> { public UserMapping() { Table("Users"); Id(e => e.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(e => e.FirstName); Map(e => e.LastName); HasMany(x => x.OrgUnitMemberships) .KeyColumn(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(p => p.UserId))).ReadOnly().Inverse(); } } public class OrgUnitMembershipMapping : ClassMap<OrgUnitMembership> { public OrgUnitMembershipMapping() { Table("OrgUnitMembership"); CompositeId() .KeyProperty(x=>x.UserId) .KeyProperty(x=>x.OrgUnitId); Map(x => x.JoinDate); Map(x => x.LeaveDate); References(oum => oum.OrgUnit) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.OrgUnitId)).ReadOnly(); References(oum => oum.User) .Column(TypeReflector<OrgUnitMembership> .GetPropertyName(oum => oum.UserId)).ReadOnly(); } } What I want to do is to retrieve some users based on criteria, but I would like to combine all columns from the Users table with some columns from the OrgUnitMemberships table, analogous to a SQL query: select u.*, m.JoinDate, m.LeaveDate from Users u inner join OrgUnitMemberships m on u.Id = m.UserId where m.OrgUnitId = :ouid I am totally lost, I tried many different options. Using a plain SQL query almost works, but because there are some nullable enums in the User class AliasToBean fails to transform, otherwise wrapping a SQL query would work like this: return Session .CreateSQLQuery(sql) .SetParameter("ouid", orgUnitId) .SetResultTransformer(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>() I tried the code below as a test (a few different variants), but I'm not sure what I'm doing. It works partially, I get instances of UserDTO back, the properties coming from OrgUnitMembership (dates) are filled, but all properties from User are null: User user = null; OrgUnitMembership membership = null; UserDTO dto = null; var users = Session.QueryOver(() => user) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => user.Id) .Select(() => user.FirstName) .Select(() => user.LastName)) .JoinAlias(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships, () => membership) //.JoinQueryOver<OrgUnitMembership>(u => u.OrgUnitMemberships) .SelectList(list => list .Select(() => membership.JoinDate).WithAlias(() => dto.JoinDate) .Select(() => membership.LeaveDate).WithAlias(() => dto.LeaveDate)) .TransformUsing(Transformers.AliasToBean<UserDTO>()) .List<UserDTO>();

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• C++ Serial Port Question

  - by Pfeffer

  Problem: I have a hand held device that scans those graphic color barcodes on all packaging. There is a track device that I can use that will slide the device automatically. This track device functions by taking ascii code through a serial port. I need to get this thing to work in FileMaker on a Mac. So no terminal programs, etc... What I've got so far: I bought a Keyspan USB/Serial adapter. Using a program called ZTerm I was successful in sending commands to the device. Example: "C,7^M^J" I was also able to do the same thing in Terminal using this command: screen /dev/tty.KeySerial1 57600 and then type in the same command above(but when I typed in I just hit Control-M and Control-J for the carriage return and line feed) Now I'm writing a plug-in for FileMaker(in C++ of course). I want to get what I did above happen in C++ so when I install that plug-in in FileMaker I can just call one of those functions and have the whole process take place right there. I'm able to connect to the device, but I can't talk to it. It is not responding to anything. I've tried connecting to the device(successfully) using these: FILE *comport; if ((comport = fopen("/dev/tty.KeySerial1", "w")) == NULL){...} and int fd; fd = open("/dev/tty.KeySerial1", O_RDWR | O_NOCTTY | O_NDELAY); This is what I've tried so far in way of talking to the device: fputs ("C,7^M^J",comport); or fprintf(comport,"C,7^M^J"); or char buffer[] = { 'C' , ',' , '7' , '^' , 'M' , '^' , 'J' }; fwrite (buffer , 1 , sizeof(buffer) , comport ); or fwrite('C,7^M^J', 1, 1, comport); Questions: When I connected to the device from Terminal and using ZTerm, I was able to set my baud rate of 57600. I think that may be why it isn't responding here. But I don't know how to do it here.... Does any one know how to do that? I tried this, but it didn't work: comport->BaudRate = 57600; There are a lot of class solutions out there but they all call these include files like termios.h and stdio.h. I don't have these and, for whatever reason, I can't find them to download. I've downloaded a few examples but there are like 20 files in them and they're all calling other files I can't find(like the ones listed above). Do I need to find these and if so where? I just don't know enough about C++ Is there a website where I can download libraries?? Another solution might be to put those terminal commands in C++. Is there a way to do that? So this has been driving me crazy. I'm not a C++ guy, I only know basic programming concepts. Is anyone out there a C++ expert? I ideally I'd like this to just work using functions I already have, like those fwrite, fputs stuff. Thanks!

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• Why doesn't PHP's oci_connect return false?

  - by absolethe

  I have a situation in which we have two production databases that synchronize with one other. Server One is considered the primary. Sometimes due to maintenance or a disaster Server Two will become primary. In some of our code that means we have to manually go in and edit the server name for database connections. I find this annoying, so the last thing I wrote I put the server information for both and set up a loop. If oci_connect failed on the Server One 3 times it would move on to Server Two. If Server Two failed 3 times it would notify the user a connection couldn't be made. This has worked fine most times we've had the situation of switching the servers. Yesterday, for example, it worked fine. Today it didn't. It just sat and spun endlessly. No error in the PHP error log. No failure to move on from. No error output to the screen. Nothing for 5 minutes. So then I had to manually edit the stupid config file. I asked what could possibly be different and I was told "yesterday the database was down, but not the server. today the server is down." Okay...? But I don't see a distinction. I would expect oci_connect to return false if it can't establish any sort of communication with the server. I'd expect it to timeout and error. Not just pass it on when it receives an error code from the server. What if there's a network problem, for example? Is this a bug in oci_connect or is there a possibility that something in our PHP configuration gives oci_connect a crazily long timeout? If it is a sort of "bug" is there some way I can check to see if the server is up first? Like a ping? (Of course when I did a ping through the command prompt I got a response from Server One and then was told, "it's back now" although I am skeptical about the timing on that.) Anyway, if anyone could shed some light on why oci_connect might run endlessly without failing and how to keep it from doing so I'd be grateful. -- Edit: My code looks like the examples on PHP.net only in some loops. $count = count($servers); for($i = 0; $i < $count; $i++){ if((!isset($connection)) || ($connection == false)){ // Attempt to connect to the oracle database $connection = @oci_connect($servers[$i]["user"], $servers[$i]["pass"], $servers[$i]["conid"]) or ($conn_error = oracle_error()); // Try again if there was a failure if(($connection == false) || (isset($con_error))){ // Three (two more) tries per alternative for($j = $st; $j < $fn; $j++){ // Try again to connect $connection = @oci_connect($servers[$i]["user"], $servers[$i]["pass"], $servers[$i]["conid"]) or ($conn_error = oracle_error()); } // for($j = 2; $j < 4; $j++) } // if($connection == false) } // if(!isset($connection) || ($connection == false)) } // for($i = 0; $i < $count; $i++)

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• Effective optimization strategies on modern C++ compilers

  - by user168715

  I'm working on scientific code that is very performance-critical. An initial version of the code has been written and tested, and now, with profiler in hand, it's time to start shaving cycles from the hot spots. It's well-known that some optimizations, e.g. loop unrolling, are handled these days much more effectively by the compiler than by a programmer meddling by hand. Which techniques are still worthwhile? Obviously, I'll run everything I try through a profiler, but if there's conventional wisdom as to what tends to work and what doesn't, it would save me significant time. I know that optimization is very compiler- and architecture- dependent. I'm using Intel's C++ compiler targeting the Core 2 Duo, but I'm also interested in what works well for gcc, or for "any modern compiler." Here are some concrete ideas I'm considering: Is there any benefit to replacing STL containers/algorithms with hand-rolled ones? In particular, my program includes a very large priority queue (currently a std::priority_queue) whose manipulation is taking a lot of total time. Is this something worth looking into, or is the STL implementation already likely the fastest possible? Along similar lines, for std::vectors whose needed sizes are unknown but have a reasonably small upper bound, is it profitable to replace them with statically-allocated arrays? I've found that dynamic memory allocation is often a severe bottleneck, and that eliminating it can lead to significant speedups. As a consequence I'm interesting in the performance tradeoffs of returning large temporary data structures by value vs. returning by pointer vs. passing the result in by reference. Is there a way to reliably determine whether or not the compiler will use RVO for a given method (assuming the caller doesn't need to modify the result, of course)? How cache-aware do compilers tend to be? For example, is it worth looking into reordering nested loops? Given the scientific nature of the program, floating-point numbers are used everywhere. A significant bottleneck in my code used to be conversions from floating point to integers: the compiler would emit code to save the current rounding mode, change it, perform the conversion, then restore the old rounding mode --- even though nothing in the program ever changed the rounding mode! Disabling this behavior significantly sped up my code. Are there any similar floating-point-related gotchas I should be aware of? One consequence of C++ being compiled and linked separately is that the compiler is unable to do what would seem to be very simple optimizations, such as move method calls like strlen() out of the termination conditions of loop. Are there any optimization like this one that I should look out for because they can't be done by the compiler and must be done by hand? On the flip side, are there any techniques I should avoid because they are likely to interfere with the compiler's ability to automatically optimize code? Lastly, to nip certain kinds of answers in the bud: I understand that optimization has a cost in terms of complexity, reliability, and maintainability. For this particular application, increased performance is worth these costs. I understand that the best optimizations are often to improve the high-level algorithms, and this has already been done.

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• Using CreateSourceQuery in CTP4 Code First

  - by Adam Rackis

  I'm guessing this is impossible, but I'll throw it out there anyway. Is it possible to use CreateSourceQuery when programming with the EF4 CodeFirst API, in CTP4? I'd like to eagerly load properties attached to a collection of properties, like this: var sourceQuery = this.CurrentInvoice.PropertyInvoices.CreateSourceQuery(); sourceQuery.Include("Property").ToList(); But of course CreateSourceQuery is defined on EntityCollection<T>, whereas CodeFirst uses plain old ICollection (obviously). Is there some way to convert? I've gotten the below to work, but it's not quite what I'm looking for. Anyone know how to go from what's below to what's above (code below is from a class that inherits DbContext)? ObjectSet<Person> OSPeople = base.ObjectContext.CreateObjectSet<Person>(); OSPeople.Include(Pinner => Pinner.Books).ToList(); Thanks! EDIT: here's my version of the solution posted by zeeshanhirani - who's book by the way is amazing! dynamic result; if (invoice.PropertyInvoices is EntityCollection<PropertyInvoice>) result = (invoices.PropertyInvoices as EntityCollection<PropertyInvoice>).CreateSourceQuery().Yadda.Yadda.Yadda else //must be a unit test! result = invoices.PropertyInvoices; return result.ToList(); EDIT2: Ok, I just realized that you can't dispatch extension methods whilst using dynamic. So I guess we're not quite as dynamic as Ruby, but the example above is easily modifiable to comport with this restriction EDIT3: As mentioned in zeeshanhirani's blog post, this only works if (and only if) you have change-enabled proxies, which will get created if all of your properties are declared virtual. Here's another version of what the method might look like to use CreateSourceQuery with POCOs public class Person { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string FName { get; set; } public virtual string LName { get; set; } public virtual double Weight { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Book> Books { get; set; } } public class Book { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual int Pages { get; set; } public virtual int OwnerID { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Genre> Genres { get; set; } public virtual Person Owner { get; set; } } public class Genre { public virtual int ID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual Genre ParentGenre { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Book> Books { get; set; } } public class BookContext : DbContext { public void PrimeBooksCollectionToIncludeGenres(Person P) { if (P.Books is EntityCollection<Book>) (P.Books as EntityCollection<Book>).CreateSourceQuery().Include(b => b.Genres).ToList(); }

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• How to determine if CNF formula is satisfiable in Scheme?

  - by JJBIRAN

  Program a SCHEME function sat that takes one argument, a CNF formula represented as above. If we had evaluated (define cnf '((a (not b) c) (a (not b) (not d)) (b d))) then evaluating (sat cnf) would return #t, whereas (sat '((a) (not a))) would return (). You should have following two functions to work: (define comp (lambda (lit) ; This function takes a literal as argument and returns the complement literal as the returning value. Examples: (comp 'a) = (not a), and (comp '(not b)) = b. (define consistent (lambda (lit path) This function takes a literal and a list of literals as arguments, and returns #t whenever the complement of the first argument is not a member of the list represented by the 2nd argument; () otherwise. . Now for the sat function. The real searching involves the list of clauses (the CNF formula) and the path that has currently been developed. The sat function should merely invoke the real "workhorse" function, which will have 2 arguments, the current path and the clause list. In the initial call, the current path is of course empty. Hints on sat. (Ignore these at your own risk!) (define sat (lambda (clauselist) ; invoke satpath (define satpath (lambda (path clauselist) ; just returns #t or () ; base cases: ; if we're out of clauses, what then? ; if there are no literals to choose in the 1st clause, what then? ; ; then in general: ; if the 1st literal in the 1st clause is consistent with the ; current path, and if << returns #t, ; then return #t. ; ; if the 1st literal didn't work, then search << ; the CNF formula in which the 1st clause doesn't have that literal Don't make this too hard. My program is a few functions averaging about 2-8 lines each. SCHEME is consise and elegant! The following expressions may help you to test your programs. All but cnf4 are satisfiable. By including them along with your function definitions, the functions themselves are automatically tested and results displayed when the file is loaded. (define cnf1 '((a b c) (c d) (e)) ) (define cnf2 '((a c) (c))) (define cnf3 '((d e) (a))) (define cnf4 '( (a b) (a (not b)) ((not a) b) ((not a) (not b)) ) ) (define cnf5 '((d a) (d b c) ((not a) (not d)) (e (not d)) ((not b)) ((not d) (not e)))) (define cnf6 '((d a) (d b c) ((not a) (not d) (not c)) (e (not c)) ((not b)) ((not d) (not e)))) (write-string "(sat cnf1) ") (write (sat cnf1)) (newline) (write-string "(sat cnf2) ") (write (sat cnf2)) (newline) (write-string "(sat cnf3) ") (write (sat cnf3)) (newline) (write-string "(sat cnf4) ") (write (sat cnf4)) (newline) (write-string "(sat cnf5) ") (write (sat cnf5)) (newline)

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• Trying to packetize TCP with non-blocking IO is hard! Am I doing something wrong?

  - by Ricket

  Oh how I wish TCP was packet-based like UDP is! But alas, that's not the case, so I'm trying to implement my own packet layer. Here's the chain of events so far (ignoring writing packets) Oh, and my Packets are very simply structured: two unsigned bytes for length, and then byte[length] data. (I can't imagine if they were any more complex, I'd be up to my ears in if statements!) Server is in an infinite loop, accepting connections and adding them to a list of Connections. PacketGatherer (another thread) uses a Selector to figure out which Connection.SocketChannels are ready for reading. It loops over the results and tells each Connection to read(). Each Connection has a partial IncomingPacket and a list of Packets which have been fully read and are waiting to be processed. On read(): Tell the partial IncomingPacket to read more data. (IncomingPacket.readData below) If it's done reading (IncomingPacket.complete()), make a Packet from it and stick the Packet into the list waiting to be processed and then replace it with a new IncomingPacket. There are a couple problems with this. First, only one packet is being read at a time. If the IncomingPacket needs only one more byte, then only one byte is read this pass. This can of course be fixed with a loop but it starts to get sorta complicated and I wonder if there is a better overall way. Second, the logic in IncomingPacket is a little bit crazy, to be able to read the two bytes for the length and then read the actual data. Here is the code, boiled down for quick & easy reading: int readBytes; // number of total bytes read so far byte length1, length2; // each byte in an unsigned short int (see getLength()) public int getLength() { // will be inaccurate if readBytes < 2 return (int)(length1 << 8 | length2); } public void readData(SocketChannel c) { if (readBytes < 2) { // we don't yet know the length of the actual data ByteBuffer lengthBuffer = ByteBuffer.allocate(2 - readBytes); numBytesRead = c.read(lengthBuffer); if(readBytes == 0) { if(numBytesRead >= 1) length1 = lengthBuffer.get(); if(numBytesRead == 2) length2 = lengthBuffer.get(); } else if(readBytes == 1) { if(numBytesRead == 1) length2 = lengthBuffer.get(); } readBytes += numBytesRead; } if(readBytes >= 2) { // then we know we have the entire length variable // lazily-instantiate data buffers based on getLength() // read into data buffers, increment readBytes // (does not read more than the amount of this packet, so it does not // need to handle overflow into the next packet's data) } } public boolean complete() { return (readBytes > 2 && readBytes == getLength()+2); } Basically I need feedback on my code. Please suggest any improvements. Even overhauling my entire system would be okay, if you have suggestions for how better to implement the whole thing. Book recommendations are welcome too; I love books. I just get the feeling that something isn't quite right.

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• CSS optimization - extra classes in dom or preprocessor-repetitive styling in css file?

  - by anna.mi

  I'm starting on a fairly large project and I'm considering the option of using LESS for pre-processing my css. the useful thing about LESS is that you can define a mixin that contains for example: .border-radius(@radius) { -webkit-border-radius: @radius; -moz-border-radius: @radius; -o-border-radius: @radius; -ms-border-radius: @radius; border-radius: @radius; } and then use it in a class declaration as .rounded-div { .border-radius(10px); } to get the outputted css as: .rounded-div { -webkit-border-radius: 10px; -moz-border-radius: 10px; -o-border-radius: 10px; -ms-border-radius: 10px; border-radius: 10px; } this is extremely useful in the case of browser prefixes. However this same concept could be used to encapsulate commonly-used css, for example: .column-container { overflow: hidden; display: block; width: 100%; } .column(@width) { float: left; width: @width; } and then use this mixin whenever i need columns in my design: .my-column-outer { .column-container(); background: red; } .my-column-inner { .column(50%); font-color: yellow; } (of course, using the preprocessor we could easily expand this to be much more useful, eg. pass the number of columns and the container width as variables and have LESS determine the width of each column depending on the number of columns and container width!) the problem with this is that when compliled, my final css file would have 100 such declarations, copy&pasted, making the file huge and bloated and repetitive. The alternative to this would be to use a grid system which has predefined classes for each column-layout option, eg .c-50 ( with a "float: left; width:50%;" definition ), .c-33, .c-25 to accomodate for a 2-column, 3-column and 4-column layout and then use these classes to my dom. i really mislike the idea of the extra classes, from experience it results to bloated dom (creating extra divs just to attach the grid classes to). Also the most basic tutorial for html/css would tell you that the dom should be separated from the styling - grid classes are styling related! to me, its the same as attaching a "border-radius-10" class to the .rounded-div example above! on the other hand, the large css file that would result from the repetitive code is also a disadvantage so i guess my question is, which one would you recommend? and which do you use? and, which solution is best for optimization? apart from the larger file size, has there even been any research on whether browser renders multiple classes faster than a large css file, or the other way round? tnx! i'd love to hear your opinion!

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• PHP Form - Empty input enter this text - Validation

  - by James Skelton

  No doubt very simple question for someone with php knowledge. I have a form with a datepicker, all is fine when a user has selected a date the email is send with: Date: 2012 04 10 But i would like if the user has skipped this and left blank (as i have not made this required) to send as: Date: Not Entered (<-- Or something) Instead at the minute of course it reads: Date: Form input <input type="text" class="form-control" id="datepicker" name="datepicker" size="50" value="Date Of Wedding" /> This is the validator $(document).ready(function(){ //validation contact form $('#submit').click(function(event){ event.preventDefault(); var fname = $('#name').val(); var validInput = new RegExp(/^[a-zA-Z0-9\s]+$/); var email = $('#email').val(); var validEmail = new RegExp(/^([a-zA-Z0-9_\.\-])+\@(([a-zA-Z0-9\-])+\.)+([a-zA-Z0-9]{2,4})+$/); var message = $('#message').val(); if(fname==''){ showError('<div class="alert alert-danger">Please enter your name.</div>', $('#name')); $('#name').addClass('required'); return;} if(!validInput.test(fname)){ showError('<div class="alert alert-danger">Please enter a valid name.</div>', $('#name')); $('#name').addClass('required'); return;} if(email==''){ showError('<div class="alert alert-danger">Please enter an email address.</div>', $('#email')); $('#email').addClass('required'); return;} if(!validEmail.test(email)){ showError('<div class="alert alert-danger">Please enter a valid email.</div>', $('#email')); $('#email').addClass('required'); return;} if(message==''){ showError('<div class="alert alert-danger">Please enter a message.</div>', $('#message')); $('#message').addClass('required'); return;} // setup some local variables var request; var form = $(this).closest('form'); // serialize the data in the form var serializedData = form.serialize(); // fire off the request to /contact.php request = $.ajax({ url: "contact.php", type: "post", data: serializedData }); // callback handler that will be called on success request.done(function (response, textStatus, jqXHR){ $('.contactWrap').show( 'slow' ).fadeIn("slow").html(' <div class="alert alert-success centered"><h3>Thank you! Your message has been sent.</h3></div> '); }); // callback handler that will be called on failure request.fail(function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown){ // log the error to the console console.error( "The following error occured: "+ textStatus, errorThrown ); }); }); //remove 'required' class and hide error $('input, textarea').keyup( function(event){ if($(this).hasClass('required')){ $(this).removeClass('required'); $('.error').hide("slow").fadeOut("slow"); } }); // show error showError = function (error, target){ $('.error').removeClass('hidden').show("slow").fadeIn("slow").html(error); $('.error').data('target', target); $(target).focus(); console.log(target); console.log(error); return; } });

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• What's my best approach on this simple hierarchy Java Problem?

  - by Nazgulled

  First, I'm sorry for the question title but I can't think of a better one to describe my problem. Feel free to change it :) Let's say I have this abstract class Box which implements a couple of constructors, methods and whatever on some private variables. Then I have a couple of sub classes like BoxA and BoxB. Both of these implement extra things. Now I have another abstract class Shape and a few sub classes like Square and Circle. For both BoxA and BoxB I need to have a list of Shape objects but I need to make sure that only Square objects go into BoxA's list and only Circle objects go into BoxB's list. For that list (on each box), I need to have a get() and set() method and also a addShape() and removeShape() methods. Another important thing to know is that for each box created, either BoxA or BoxB, each respectively Shape list is exactly the same. Let's say I create a list of Square's named ls and two BoxA objects named boxA1 and boxA2. No matter what, both boxA1 and boxA2 must have the same ls list. This is my idea: public abstract class Box { // private instance variables public Box() { // constructor stuff } // public instance methods } public class BoxA extends Box { // private instance variables private static List<Shape> list; public BoxA() { // constructor stuff } // public instance methods public static List<Square> getList() { List<Square> aux = new ArrayList<Square>(); for(Square s : list.values()) { aux.add(s.clone()); // I know what I'm doing with this clone, don't worry about it } return aux; } public static void setList(List<Square> newList) { list = new ArrayList<Square>(newList); } public static void addShape(Square s) { list.add(s); } public static void removeShape(Square s) { list.remove(list.indexOf(s)); } } As the list needs to be the same for that type of object, I declared as static and all methods that work with that list are also static. Now, for BoxB the class would be almost the same regarding the list stuff. I would only replace Square by Triangle and the problem was solved. So, for each BoxA object created, the list would be only one and the same for each BoxB object created, but a different type of list of course. So, what's my problem you ask? Well, I don't like the code... The getList(), setList(), addShape() and removeShape() methods are basically repeated for BoxA and BoxB, only the type of the objects that the list will hold is different. I can't think of way to do it in the super class Box instead. Doing it statically too, using Shape instead of Square and Triangle, wouldn't work because the list would be only one and I need it to be only one but for each sub class of Box. How could I do this differently and better? P.S: I could not describe my real example because I don't know the correct words in English for the stuff I'm doing, so I just used a box and shapes example, but it's basically the same.

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• Insert a transformed integer_sequence into a variadic template argument?

  - by coderforlife

  How do you insert a transformed integer_sequence (or similar since I am targeting C++11) into a variadic template argument? For example I have a class that represents a set of bit-wise flags (shown below). It is made using a nested-class because you cannot have two variadic template arguments for the same class. It would be used like typedef Flags<unsigned char, FLAG_A, FLAG_B, FLAG_C>::WithValues<0x01, 0x02, 0x04> MyFlags. Typically, they will be used with the values that are powers of two (although not always, in some cases certain combinations would be made, for example one could imagine a set of flags like Read=0x1, Write=0x2, and ReadWrite=0x3=0x1|0x2). I would like to provide a way to do typedef Flags<unsigned char, FLAG_A, FLAG_B, FLAG_C>::WithDefaultValues MyFlags. template<class _B, template <class,class,_B> class... _Fs> class Flags { public: template<_B... _Vs> class WithValues : public _Fs<_B, Flags<_B,_Fs...>::WithValues<_Vs...>, _Vs>... { // ... }; }; I have tried the following without success (placed inside the Flags class, outside the WithValues class): private: struct _F { // dummy class which can be given to a flag-name template template <_B _V> inline constexpr explicit _F(std::integral_constant<_B, _V>) { } }; // we count the flags, but only in a dummy way static constexpr unsigned _count = sizeof...(_Fs<_B, _F, 1>); static inline constexpr _B pow2(unsigned exp, _B base = 2, _B result = 1) { return exp < 1 ? result : pow2(exp/2, base*base, (exp % 2) ? result*base : result); } template <_B... _Is> struct indices { using next = indices<_Is..., sizeof...(_Is)>; using WithPow2Values = WithValues<pow2(_Is)...>; }; template <unsigned N> struct build_indices { using type = typename build_indices<N-1>::type::next; }; template <> struct build_indices<0> { using type = indices<>; }; //// Another attempt //template < _B... _Is> struct indices { // using WithPow2Values = WithValues<pow2(_Is)...>; //}; //template <unsigned N, _B... _Is> struct build_indices // : build_indices<N-1, N-1, _Is...> { }; //template < _B... _Is> struct build_indices<0, _Is...> // : indices<_Is...> { }; public: using WithDefaultValues = typename build_indices<_count>::type::WithPow2Values; Of course, I would be willing to have any other alternatives to the whole situation (supporting both flag names and values in the same template set, etc). I have included a "working" example at ideone: http://ideone.com/NYtUrg - by "working" I mean compiles fine without using default values but fails with default values (there is a #define to switch between them). Thanks!

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• StoreGeneratedPattern T4 EntityFramework concern

  - by LoganWolfer

  Hi everyone, Here's the situation : I use SQL Server 2008 R2, SQL Replication, Visual Studio 2010, EntityFramework 4, C# 4. The course-of-action from our DBA is to use a rowguid column for SQL Replication to work with our setup. These columns need to have a StoreGeneratedPattern property set to Computed on every one of these columns. The problem : Every time the T4 template regenerate our EDMX (ADO.NET Entity Data Model) file (for example, when we update it from our database), I need to go manually in the EDMX XML file to add this property to every one of them. It has to go from this : <Property Name="rowguid" Type="uniqueidentifier" Nullable="false" /> To this : <Property Name="rowguid" Type="uniqueidentifier" Nullable="false" StoreGeneratedPattern="Computed"/> The solution : I'm trying to find a way to customize an ADO.NET EntityObject Generator T4 file to generate a StoreGeneratedPattern="Computed" to every rowguid that I have. I'm fairly new to T4, I only did customization to AddView and AddController T4 templates for ASP.NET MVC 2, like List.tt for example. I've looked through the EF T4 file, and I can't seem to find through this monster where I could do that (and how). My best guess is somewhere in this part of the file, line 544 to 618 of the original ADO.NET EntityObject Generator T4 file : //////// //////// Write PrimitiveType Properties. //////// private void WritePrimitiveTypeProperty(EdmProperty primitiveProperty, CodeGenerationTools code) { MetadataTools ef = new MetadataTools(this); #> /// <summary> /// <#=SummaryComment(primitiveProperty)#> /// </summary><#=LongDescriptionCommentElement(primitiveProperty, 1)#> [EdmScalarPropertyAttribute(EntityKeyProperty=<#=code.CreateLiteral(ef.IsKey(primitiveProperty))#>, IsNullable=<#=code.CreateLiteral(ef.IsNullable(primitiveProperty))#>)] [DataMemberAttribute()] <#=code.SpaceAfter(NewModifier(primitiveProperty))#><#=Accessibility.ForProperty(primitiveProperty)#> <#=code.Escape(primitiveProperty.TypeUsage)#> <#=code.Escape(primitiveProperty)#> { <#=code.SpaceAfter(Accessibility.ForGetter(primitiveProperty))#>get { <#+ if (ef.ClrType(primitiveProperty.TypeUsage) == typeof(byte[])) { #> return StructuralObject.GetValidValue(<#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#>); <#+ } else { #> return <#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#>; <#+ } #> } <#=code.SpaceAfter(Accessibility.ForSetter((primitiveProperty)))#>set { <#+ if (ef.IsKey(primitiveProperty)) { if (ef.ClrType(primitiveProperty.TypeUsage) == typeof(byte[])) { #> if (!StructuralObject.BinaryEquals(<#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#>, value)) <#+ } else { #> if (<#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#> != value) <#+ } #> { <#+ PushIndent(CodeRegion.GetIndent(1)); } #> <#=ChangingMethodName(primitiveProperty)#>(value); ReportPropertyChanging("<#=primitiveProperty.Name#>"); <#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#> = StructuralObject.SetValidValue(value<#=OptionalNullableParameterForSetValidValue(primitiveProperty, code)#>); ReportPropertyChanged("<#=primitiveProperty.Name#>"); <#=ChangedMethodName(primitiveProperty)#>(); <#+ if (ef.IsKey(primitiveProperty)) { PopIndent(); #> } <#+ } #> } } private <#=code.Escape(primitiveProperty.TypeUsage)#> <#=code.FieldName(primitiveProperty)#><#=code.StringBefore(" = ", code.CreateLiteral(primitiveProperty.DefaultValue))#>; partial void <#=ChangingMethodName(primitiveProperty)#>(<#=code.Escape(primitiveProperty.TypeUsage)#> value); partial void <#=ChangedMethodName(primitiveProperty)#>(); <#+ } Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance. EDIT : Didn't find answer to this problem yet, if anyone have ideas to automate this, would really be appreciated.

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• How to reserve public API to internal usage in .NET?

  - by mark

  Dear ladies and sirs. Let me first present the case, which will explain my question. This is going to be a bit long, so I apologize in advance :-). I have objects and collections, which should support the Merge API (it is my custom API, the signature of which is immaterial for this question). This API must be internal, meaning only my framework should be allowed to invoke it. However, derived types should be able to override the basic implementation. The natural way to implement this pattern as I see it, is this: The Merge API is declared as part of some internal interface, let us say IMergeable. Because the interface is internal, derived types would not be able to implement it directly. Rather they must inherit it from a common base type. So, a common base type is introduced, which would implement the IMergeable interface explicitly, where the interface methods delegate to respective protected virtual methods, providing the default implementation. This way the API is only callable by my framework, but derived types may override the default implementation. The following code snippet demonstrates the concept: internal interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } void IMergeable.Merge(object obj) { Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } All is fine, provided a single common base type suffices, which is usually true for non collection types. The thing is that collections must be mergeable as well. Collections do not play nicely with the presented concept, because developers do not develop collections from the scratch. There are predefined implementations - observable, filtered, compound, read-only, remove-only, ordered, god-knows-what, ... They may be developed from scratch in-house, but once finished, they serve wide range of products and should never be tailored to some specific product. Which means, that either: they do not implement the IMergeable interface at all, because it is internal to some product the scope of the IMergeable interface is raised to public and the API becomes open and callable by all. Let us refer to these collections as standard collections. Anyway, the first option screws my framework, because now each possible standard collection type has to be paired with the respective framework version, augmenting the standard with the IMergeable interface implementation - this is so bad, I am not even considering it. The second option breaks the framework as well, because the IMergeable interface should be internal for a reason (whatever it is) and now this interface has to open to all. So what to do? My solution is this. make IMergeable public API, but add an extra parameter to the Merge method, I call it a security token. The interface implementation may check that the token references some internal object, which is never exposed to the outside. If this is the case, then the method was called from within the framework, otherwise - some outside API consumer attempted to invoke it and so the implementation can blow up with a SecurityException. Here is the modified code snippet demonstrating this concept: internal static class InternalApi { internal static readonly object Token = new object(); } public interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj, object token); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } public void Merge(object obj, object token) { if (!object.ReferenceEquals(token, InternalApi.Token)) { throw new SecurityException("bla bla bla"); } Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } Of course, this is less explicit than having an internally scoped interface and the check is moved from the compile time to run time, yet this is the best I could come up with. Now, I have a gut feeling that there is a better way to solve the problem I have presented. I do not know, may be using some standard Code Access Security features? I have only vague understanding of it, but can LinkDemand attribute be somehow related to it? Anyway, I would like to hear other opinions. Thanks.

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