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  • Validation without ServiceLocator

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am getting back again and again to it thinking about the best way to perform validation on POCO objects that need access to some context (ISession in NH, IRepository for example). The only option I still can see is to use S*ervice Locator*, so my validation would look like: public User : ICanValidate { public User() {} // We need this constructor (so no context known) public virtual string Username { get; set; } public IEnumerable<ValidationError> Validate() { if (ServiceLocator.GetService<IUserRepository>().FindUserByUsername(Username) != null) yield return new ValidationError("Username", "User already exists.") } } I already use Inversion Of control and Dependency Injection and really don't like the ServiceLocator due to number of facts: Harder to maintain implicit dependencies. Harder to test the code. Potential threading issues. Explicit dependency only on the ServiceLocator. The code becomes harder to understand. Need to register the ServiceLocator interfaces during the testing. But on the other side, with plain POCO objects, I do not see any other way of performing the validation like above without ServiceLocator and only using IoC/DI. So the question would be: is there any way to use DI/IoC for the situation described above? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • iPhone: TableView inside UIScrollview, show vaccillating scrollbars around

    - by karim
    Hi, I have added some table and other vies in a scrollview. scrolling in tables are working fine. But in the parent scrollview, when scrolling, a vacillating vertical scrollbars are shown, sometimes it even come to the middle of the screen. sometime show at the left side of the screen. and not limited to the vertical scrollbar region. When I set tje showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO, it is not shown. But do you know why the scrollbar is moving around. DashboardView is a subclass of UIScrollView. dashboard=[[DashboardView alloc] initWithFrame:fullScreenRect]; dashboard.contentSize = CGSizeMake(320,700); // must do! dashboard.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = YES; dashboard.bounces = YES; self.view = dashboard; @implementation DashboardView (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code } return self; } (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code } (void) layoutSubviews{ NSArray *views = self.subviews; [UIView beginAnimations:@"CollapseExpand" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseIn]; UIView *view = [views objectAtIndex: 0]; CGRect rect = view.frame; for (int i = 1; i < [views count]; i++ ) { view = [views objectAtIndex:i]; view.frame = CGRectMake(rect.origin.x, rect.origin.y + rect.size.height, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); rect = view.frame; } [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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  • Collection is empty when it arrives on the client

    - by digiduck
    One of my entities has an EntitySet< property with [Composition], [Include] and [Association] attributes. I populate this collection in my domain service but when I check its contents when it is received on the client, the collection is empty. I am using Silverlight 4 RTM as well as RIA Services 1.0 RTM. Any ideas what I am doing wrong? Here is the code on my service side: public class RegionDto { public RegionDto() { Cities = new EntitySet<CityDto>(); } [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } [Include] [Composition] [Association("RegionDto_CityDto", "Id", "RegionId")] public EntitySet<CityDto> Cities { get; set; } } public class CityDto { [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public int RegionId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } [EnableClientAccess()] public class RegionDomainService : LinqToEntitiesDomainService<RegionEntities> { public IEnumerable<RegionDto> GetRegions() { var regions = (ObjectContext.Regions .Select(x => new RegionDto { Id = x.ID, Name = x.Name })).ToList(); foreach (var region in regions) { var cities = (ObjectContext.Cities .Where(x => x.RegionID == region.Id) .Select(x => new CityDto { Id = x.ID, Name = x.Name })).ToList(); foreach (var city in cities) { region.Cities.Add(city); } } // each region's Cities collection is populated at this point // however when the client receives it, the Cities collections are all empty return regions; } }

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  • Publishing to live website

    - by Alienfluid
    Hey there, My friend and I are collaborating on a ASP.NET powered website. To develop it locally, we use Visual Web Developer Express (good enough for our needs). Subversion (using Tortoise SVN) is our source control of choice with the repository residing on Unfuddle.com. We run into problems when we need to update the live site - since there's no version control on it. Currently we use the "Copy to Website" feature in VWD which copies the files using FTP. Here are some problems: VWD only keeps track of files uploaded by one user, so if the other user uploads a newer version of a file to the live site, VWD on my side cannot tell whether the live version of the file is newer or mine is. There's no way to tell whether all the latest changes are available on the live site. We have to be careful not to party all over the shared web.config file since the other user's local DB settings are different from mine, and of course, the live DB settings are a whole other story! What do you guys use to publish to a live site? Does anything out there tie into Subversion so that we can automate the process and always guarantee that the live site is synced to a change list number? Also, how do you manage the different web.config file settings? Thanks!

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  • How do I best display CheckBoxes in SQL Server Reporting Services?

    - by Yadyn
    One of the many quirks of Reporting Services we've run across is the complete and utter lack of a CheckBox control or even something remotely similar. We have a form that should appear automatically filled out based on information pulled from a database. We have several bit datatype fields. Printing out "True" or "False" just looks silly, as this is supposed to look like a form that has been auto-filled out, so we want to have a series of checkboxes and labels that are either checked or unchecked. We are running SSRS 2005 but I'm not aware of SSRS 2008 having added a CheckBox control. Even if it did, we'd need to have an alternative for the time being. The best we've found so far is: use Wingdings use images use text boxes with borders and print a blank/space or a capital X All three approaches require IIF expression shenanigans. The Wingdings approach seemed to work acceptably, and was the most aesthetically pleasing except that for whatever reason it didn't always print correctly. More importantly, PDF exports, also for whatever reason, converted all fonts (generally) to Arial and so we got funky letters instead of the Windings dingbats. Images, being a pixel-based raster, don't do so well when printed along side vector stuff like text. Unless handled carefully, they tend to stretch, pixelate, and do other unprofessional looking things. While these methods do work (some with limitations as mentioned above) none of them are particularly elegant. Are we missing something obvious? Not so obvious? Does someone at Microsoft have a good reason why such a control was not provided in SSRS 2000, let alone 2 versions and 8 years later? This can't be the first time this issue has come up...

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  • Submit information to url, but also open PDF

    - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding
    I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

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  • How to test views in ASP.NET MVC2 (ala RSpec)

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am really missing heavily the ability to test Views independently of controllers. The way RSpec allows to do it. What I want to do is to perform assertions on the rendered view (where no controller is involved!). In order to do so I should provide required Model, ViewData and maybe some details from HttpContextBase (when will we get rid of HttpContext!). So far I have not found anything that allows doing it. Also it might heavily depend on the ViewEngine being used. List of things that views might contain are: Partial views (may be nested deeply). Master pages (or similar in other view engines). Html helpers generating links and other elements. Generally almost anything in a range of common sense :) . Also please note that I am not talking about client-side testing and thus Selenium is just not related to it at all. It is just plain .NET testing. So are there any options to actually do the testing of views? Thanks, Dmitriy.

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  • String length differs from Javascript to Java code

    - by François P.
    I've got a JSP page with a piece of Javascript validation code which limits to a certain amount of characters on submit. I'm using a <textarea> so I can't simply use a length attribute like in a <input type="text">. I use document.getElementById("text").value.length to get the string length. I'm running Firefox 3.0 on Windows (but I've tested this behavior with IE 6 also). The form gets submitted to a J2EE servlet. In my Java servlet the string length of the parameter is larger than 2000! I've noticed that this can easily be reproduced by adding carriage returns in the <textarea>. I've used Firebug to assert the length of the <textare> and it really is 2000 characters long. On the Java side though, the carriage returns get converted to UNIX style (\r\n, instead of \n), thus the string length differs! Am I missing something obvious here or what ? If not, how would you reliably (cross-platform / browser) make sure that the <textarea> is limited.

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  • SSL HandShakeException: No_Certificate. Using IBM's J9 JVM and Apache Tomcat

    - by DaveJohnston
    I am developing a mobile application that is to run on a Windows Mobile PDA. The application is written in Java and to run it we are using the J9 JVM from IBM. The application communicates with an Apache Tomcat server over HTTP and we are trying to set it up now to use SSL. I have generated public/private keys for both the client and the server, exported their self signed certificates and imported them into the respective keystores. Initially I tried to just get it working using only server side authentication and that was successful. But I am now trying to get mutual authentication by setting clientAuth="true" in the server.xml file in the apache conf directory. I have enabled the SSL logging on the server and when the client connects the server reports an SSLProtocolException: handshake alert: no_certificate. The client logs also show an exception: javax.net.ssl.SSLHandshakeException: unexpected_message at com.ibm.j9.jsse.SSLSocketImpl.completeHandshake(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.j9.jsse.SSLSocketImpl.startHandshake(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.oti.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnection.openSocket(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.oti.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnection.connect(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.oti.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnection.sendRequest(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.oti.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnection.doRequest(Unknown Source) at com.ibm.oti.net.www.protocol.https.HttpsURLConnection.getInputStream(Unknown Source) The client keystore and truststore is configured by setting the following System Properties: javax.net.ssl.trustStore javax.net.ssl.trustStorePassword javax.net.ssl.keyStore javax.net.ssl.keyStorePassword Does anyone have any ideas how I can set up client authentication on the J9 JVM?

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  • Why Java language does not offer a way to declare getters and setters of a given "field" through ann

    - by zim2001
    I actually happily design and develop JEE Applications for quite 9 years, but I realized recently that as time goes by, I feel more and more fed up of dragging all these ugly bean classes with their bunch of getters and setters. Considering a basic bean like this : public class MyBean { // needs getter AND setter private int myField1; // needs only a getter, no setter private int myField2; // needs only a setter, no getter private int myField3; /** * Get the field1 * @return the field1 */ public int getField1() { return myField1; } /** * Set the field1 * @param value the value */ public void setField1(int value) { myField1 = value; } /** * Get the field2 * @return the field2 */ public int getField2() { return myField2; } /** * Set the field3 * @param value the value */ public void setField3(int value) { myField3 = value; } } I'm dreaming of something like this : public class MyBean { @inout(public,public) private int myField1; @out(public) private int myField2; @in(public) private int myField3; } No more stupid javadoc, just tell the important thing... It would still be possible to mix annotation and written down getters or setters, to cover cases when it should do non-trivial sets and gets. In other words, annotation would auto-generate the getter / setter code piece except when a literate one is provided. Moreover, I'm also dreaming of replacing things like that : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.getField1(); b.setField3(v+1); by such : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.field1; b.field3 = v+1; In fact, writing "b.field1" on the right side of an expression would be semantically identical to write "b.getField1()", I mean as if it has been replaced by some kind of a preprocessor. It's just an idea but I'm wondering if I'm alone on that topic, and also if it has major flaws. I'm aware that this question doesn't exactly meet the SO credo (we prefer questions that can be answered, not just discussed) so I flag it community wiki...

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  • C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

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  • Unknown Exception on trying to initialize the web service stub created by Axis C++

    - by Harsha Reddy
    Hi, I am trying out the sample calculator program given in the folder of axis c++. I am mainly interested in the client side. So I used the wsdl to create the stubs and my main is pretty much the same as given in the sample. However on executing the call Calculator ws (endpoint) I get an unknown exception "First-chance exception at 0x7c0024b9 in CalculatorClient.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000. First-chance exception at 0x7c812afb in CalculatorClient.exe: Microsoft C++ exception: [rethrow] at memory location 0x00000000.. Unhandled exception at 0x7c0024b9 in CalculatorClient.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000000." and the exception causing code is Calculator::Calculator(const char* pchEndpointUri, AXIS_PROTOCOL_TYPE eProtocol) :Stub(pchEndpointUri, eProtocol) { } I had earlier tried to run a a webservice using Axis C++ but had received the same error. At that time my web service was a java ws on WAS. Then I later tried the calculator client (but this time I did not have any server hosting the ws as I just wanted to check if the Client could initialize). Is the problem caused due to the web service not being hosted on Apache in C++ (though I highly doubt it). Any help would be appreciated. Thanks, Harsha

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  • subgraph cluster ranking in dot

    - by Chris Becke
    I'm trying to use graphviz on media wiki as a documentation tool for software. First, I documented some class relationships which worked well. Everything was ranked vertically as expected. But, then, some of our modules are dlls, which I wanted to seperate into a box. When I added the nodes to a cluster, they got edged, but clusters seem to have a LR ranking rule. Or being added to a cluster broke the TB ranking of the nodes as the cluster now appears on the side of the graph. This graph represents what I am trying to do: at the moment, cluster1 and cluster2 appear to the right of cluster0. I want/need them to appear below. <graphviz> digraph d { subgraph cluster0 { A -> {B1 B2} B2 -> {C1 C2 C3} C1 -> D; } subgraph cluster1 { C2 -> dll1_A; dll1_A -> B1; } subgraph cluster2 { C3 -> dll2_A; } dll1_A -> dll2_A; } </graphviz>

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  • Touch coordinates in iPhone landscape mode app

    - by gok
    I am trying to make this landscape only iphone app. I only use this code for this purpose: - (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation { return (interfaceOrientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight); } However when I click clip subviews checkbox from interface builder, the view is clipped from the middle. I also don't receive any touch events from outside of view bounds obviously. - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { CGPoint fingerPos = [[touches anyObject] locationInView:self.view]; NSLog(@"%f %f",fingerPos.x,fingerPos.y); } only prints for coordinates between 20 and 320 for X. But Y works fine. When i try to modify bounds by hand, everything works fine; View is positioned and shown correctly, printed coordinates are correct, I receive touch from all of the screen except between 0 and 20 for X. So Left side of the screen is unresponsive to touch events for only 20 pixels. Code I use to modify bounds: self.view.bounds = CGRectMake(-180.0f, 0.0f, 680.0f, 480.0f); What might be causing this? Weird!

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  • Can I write this regex in one step?

    - by Marin Doric
    This is the input string "23x +y-34 x + y+21x - 3y2-3x-y+2". I want to surround every '+' and '-' character with whitespaces but only if they are not allready sourrounded from left or right side. So my input string would look like this "23x + y - 34 x + y + 21x - 3y2 - 3x - y + 2". I wrote this code that does the job: Regex reg1 = new Regex(@"\+(?! )|\-(?! )"); input = reg1.Replace(input, delegate(Match m) { return m.Value + " "; }); Regex reg2 = new Regex(@"(?<! )\+|(?<! )\-"); input = reg2.Replace(input, delegate(Match m) { return " " + m.Value; }); explanation: reg1 // Match '+' followed by any character not ' ' (whitespace) or same thing for '-' reg2 // Same thing only that I match '+' or '-' not preceding by ' '(whitespace) delegate 1 and 2 just insert " " before and after m.Value ( match value ) Question is, is there a way to create just one regex and just one delegate? i.e. do this job in one step? I am a new to regex and I want to learn efficient way.

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  • How to get the sending email address from outlook 2007

    - by Naresh
    I am working on outlook add-in project using Visual studio 2008 for MS Outlook 2007 in C#. Here I am explaining my problem... I got multiple accounts (3 Accounts) with my outlook 2007. I need to get accounts form Account box in New Mail Message window. When we click New Mail Message, a new window will appear from which we can send a new mail. Here (On this window) we can see Account Dropdown (Left side) under the Send Button. If we have multiple accounts with outlook, we can see all the accounts in Account Drop Down if we click on Account Box. If we click on the particular email, a right mark will appear to that Email Account and a message can bee seen on the top of the Send button is "This message will be sent via [email protected]". So, I want to get these email accounts into a string and that particular email account (which has right mark) into another string. I got these 3 email accounts into a string. But, I am not getting the particular email account(which has the right mark when we send a new email). I am using this code.... using Outlook = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; using Office = Microsoft.Office.Core; using Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook; Outlook._Application myOutlookApp = new Outlook.Application(); Outlook.Accounts myAccounts = myOutlookApp.Session.Accounts; foreach (Outlook.Account account in myAccounts) { string emailAddress = account.SmtpAddress; } I am able to get all the accounts from the above code..But, I just want to get the email address which we will use for sending an email at that particular moment..

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  • Prerequisites for Account management via an IPhone App?

    - by Icky
    Hello. I have been reading a couple of threads for this topic on this site. I want to create an App, which communicates with a server and has the following features: the User can create/manage an account on the server the App communicates with the server via a secure connection the User is updated about important news through messages From what I understood so far, I need to take care of the following: establish a secure connection with the server send account information(user data, password) to the server and authenticate the client side management and encryption of account data/information is handled by the server, so the App only sends data, the server stores/encrypts (no need for me to take care of anything) So far, I think, I have covered the most important features. I have read, that NSURLConnection can be used, to send the authentication data. But how is further communication ensured? And how is the encryption managed? Are there any useful tutorials on this, because this is the first time I delve into this topic, and any guidance is greatly appreciated! Also, if I have missed anything important (e.g. with managing accounts) please tell me.

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  • How to create a rails habtm that deletes/destroys without error?

    - by Bradley
    I created a simple example as a sanity check and still can not seem to destroy an item on either side of a has_and_belongs_to_many relationship in rails. Whenever I try to delete an object from either table, I get the dreaded NameError / "uninitialized constant" error message. To demonstrate, I created a sample rails app with a Boy class and Dog class. I used the basic scaffold for each and created a linking table called boys_dogs. I then added a simple before_save routine to create a new 'dog' any time a boy was created and establish a relationship, just to get things setup easily. dog.rb class Dog < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Boys end boy.rb class Boy < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :Dogs def before_save self.Dogs.build( :name => "Rover" ) end end schema.rb ActiveRecord::Schema.define(:version => 20100118034401) do create_table "boys", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "boys_dogs", :id => false, :force => true do |t| t.integer "boy_id" t.integer "dog_id" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end create_table "dogs", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.datetime "created_at" t.datetime "updated_at" end end I've seen lots of posts here and elsewhere about similar problems, but the solutions are normally using belongs_to and the plural/singular class names being confused. I don't think that is the case here, but I tried switching the habtm statement to use the singular name just to see if it helped (with no luck). I seem to be missing something simple here. The actual error message is: NameError in BoysController#destroy uninitialized constant Boy::Dogs The trace looks like: /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activesupport-2.3.4/lib/active_support/dependencies.rb:105:in const_missing' (eval):3:indestroy_without_callbacks' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/callbacks.rb:337:in destroy_without_transactions' /Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/activerecord-2.3.4/lib/active_record/transactions.rb:229:insend' ... Thanks.

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  • Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

    - by Joel
    Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

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  • Making that move from junior > mid level

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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  • Secure Password Storage and Transfer

    - by Andras Zoltan
    I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

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  • JVM/CLR Source-compatible Language Options

    - by Nathan Voxland
    I have an open source Java database migration tool (http://www.liquibase.org) which I am considering porting to .Net. The majority of the tool (at least from a complexity side) is around logic like "if you are adding a primary key and the database is Oracle use this SQL. If database is MySQL use this SQL. If the primary key is named and the database is Postgres use this SQL". I could fork the Java codebase and covert it (manually and/or automatically), but as updates and bug fixes to the above logic come in I do not want to have to apply it to both versions. What I would like to do is move all that logic into a form that can be compiled and used by both Java and .Net versions naively. The code I am looking to convert does not contain any advanced library usage (JDBC, System.out, etc) that would vary significantly from Java to .Net, so I don't think that will be an issue (at worst it can be designed around). So what I am looking for is: A language in which I can code common parts of my app in and compile it into classes usable by the "standard" languages on the target platform Does not add any runtime requirements to the system Nothing so strange that it scares away potential contributors I know Python and Ruby both have implementations on for the JVM and CLR. How well do they fit my requirements? Has anyone been successful (or unsuccesful) using this technique for cross-platform applications? Are there any gotcha's I need to worry about?

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  • When can a == b be false and a.Equals(b) true?

    - by alastairs
    I ran into this situation today. I have an object which I'm testing for equality; the Create() method returns a subclass implementation of MyObject. MyObject a = MyObject.Create(); MyObject b = MyObject.Create(); a == b; // is false a.Equals(b); // is true Note I have also over-ridden Equals() in the subclass implementation, which does a very basic check to see whether or not the passed-in object is null and is of the subclass's type. If both those conditions are met, the objects are deemed to be equal. The other slightly odd thing is that my unit test suite does some tests similar to Assert.AreEqual(MyObject.Create(), MyObject.Create()); // Green bar and the expected result is observed. Therefore I guess that NUnit uses a.Equals(b) under the covers, rather than a == b as I had assumed. Side note: I program in a mixture of .NET and Java, so I might be mixing up my expectations/assumptions here. I thought, however, that a == b worked more consistently in .NET than it did in Java where you often have to use equals() to test equality.

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  • Hopping from a C++ to a Perl/Unix job

    - by rocknroll
    Hi all, I have been a C++ / Linux Developer till now and I am adept in this stack. Of late I have been getting opportunities that require Perl, Unix (with knowledge of C++,shell scripting) expertise. Organizations are showing interest even though I don't have much scripting experience to boast off. The role is more in a Support, maintenance project involving SQL as well. Off late I am in a fix whether to forgo these offers or not. I don't know the dynamics of an IT organization and thus on one hand I fear that my C++ experience will be nullified and on the positive side I am getting to work on a new technology stack which will only add to my skill set. I am sure, most of you at some point of time have encountered such dilemmas and would have taken some decision. I want you to share your perspectives on such a scenario where a person is required to change his/her technology stack when changing his/her job. What are the merits and demerits in going with either of the choices? Also I know that C++ isn't going anywhere in the near future. What about perl? I have no clue as to what the future holds for perl developer? Whether there are enough opportunities for a perl developer? I am asking this question here because most of my fellow programmers face this career choice dilemma. Thanks.

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