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• Secure Password Storage and Transfer

  - by Andras Zoltan

  I'm developing a new user store for my organisation and am now tackling password storage. The concepts of salting, HMAC etc are all fine with me - and want to store the users' passwords either salted and hashed, HMAC hashed, or HMAC salted and hashed - not sure what the best way will be - but in theory it won't matter as it will be able to change over time if required. I want to have an XML & JSON service that can act as a Security Token Service for client-side apps. I've already developed one for another system, which requires that the client double-encrypts a clear-text password using SHA1 first and then HMACSHA1 using a 128 unique key (or nonce) supplied by the server for that session only. I'd like to repeat this technique for the new system - upgrading the algo to SHA256 (chosen since implementations are readily available for all aforementioned platforms - and it's much stronger than SHA1) - but there is a problem. If I'm storing the password as a salted hash in the user-store, the client will need to be sent that salt in order to construct the correct hash before being HMACd with the unique session key. This would completely go against the point of using a salt in the first place. Equally, if I don't use salt for password storage, but instead use HMAC, it's still the same problem. At the moment, the only solution I can see is to use naked SHA256 hashing for the password in the user store, so that I can then use this as a starting point on both the server and the client for a more secure salted/hmacd password transfer for the web service. This still leaves the user store vulnerable to a dictionary attack were it ever to be accessed; and however unlikely that might be - assuming it will never happen simply doesn't sit well with me. Greatly appreciate any input.

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• Flash video player doesn't play after rewriting a url

  - by Joel

  Hi! I recently started a new job working on a content management system. One of the jobs was to implement url rewriting, which i've done, but for some reason the URL rewriting has killed the ability to play flv files through FLVPlayer_Progressive. An example can be seen below: Working if you then follow the link on the menu and go to Campaigns It's a Living Thing you can see how it's not working when the url is being re-written. Below is the html for the object tag i'm setting within a gui editor on the admin side, everything on that end works also! <object height="160" width="284" classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" codebase="http://download.macromedia.com/pub/shockwave/cabs/flash/swflash.cab#version=8,0,0,0" id="FLVPlayer"> <param name="movie" value="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf"> <param name="salign" value="lt"> <param name="quality" value="high"> <param name="scale" value="noscale"> <param name="FlashVars" value="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt"> <embed src="/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/FLVPlayer_Progressive.swf" flashvars="&amp;MM_ComponentVersion=1&amp;skinName=Clear_Skin_1&amp;autoPlay=true&amp;autoRewind=true&amp;streamName=/sitefiles/PeachSocial/flash/dept_envrnmnt" quality="high" scale="noscale" name="FLVPlayer" salign="LT" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" pluginspage="http://www.adobe.com/shockwave/download/download.cgi?P1_Prod_Version=ShockwaveFlash" width="284" height="160"> </object> I would have thought giving the path the way i am would have taken it back to the server root and gone from there, but it doesn't seem to like it once the url rewriting happens. Anyways i'm outta ideas after a pretty frustrating day of trying to pass the thing absolute urls, relative paths and the like and am hoping a fresh set of eyes may help.

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• Can I write this regex in one step?

  - by Marin Doric

  This is the input string "23x +y-34 x + y+21x - 3y2-3x-y+2". I want to surround every '+' and '-' character with whitespaces but only if they are not allready sourrounded from left or right side. So my input string would look like this "23x + y - 34 x + y + 21x - 3y2 - 3x - y + 2". I wrote this code that does the job: Regex reg1 = new Regex(@"\+(?! )|\-(?! )"); input = reg1.Replace(input, delegate(Match m) { return m.Value + " "; }); Regex reg2 = new Regex(@"(?<! )\+|(?<! )\-"); input = reg2.Replace(input, delegate(Match m) { return " " + m.Value; }); explanation: reg1 // Match '+' followed by any character not ' ' (whitespace) or same thing for '-' reg2 // Same thing only that I match '+' or '-' not preceding by ' '(whitespace) delegate 1 and 2 just insert " " before and after m.Value ( match value ) Question is, is there a way to create just one regex and just one delegate? i.e. do this job in one step? I am a new to regex and I want to learn efficient way.

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• Why Java language does not offer a way to declare getters and setters of a given "field" through ann

  - by zim2001

  I actually happily design and develop JEE Applications for quite 9 years, but I realized recently that as time goes by, I feel more and more fed up of dragging all these ugly bean classes with their bunch of getters and setters. Considering a basic bean like this : public class MyBean { // needs getter AND setter private int myField1; // needs only a getter, no setter private int myField2; // needs only a setter, no getter private int myField3; /** * Get the field1 * @return the field1 */ public int getField1() { return myField1; } /** * Set the field1 * @param value the value */ public void setField1(int value) { myField1 = value; } /** * Get the field2 * @return the field2 */ public int getField2() { return myField2; } /** * Set the field3 * @param value the value */ public void setField3(int value) { myField3 = value; } } I'm dreaming of something like this : public class MyBean { @inout(public,public) private int myField1; @out(public) private int myField2; @in(public) private int myField3; } No more stupid javadoc, just tell the important thing... It would still be possible to mix annotation and written down getters or setters, to cover cases when it should do non-trivial sets and gets. In other words, annotation would auto-generate the getter / setter code piece except when a literate one is provided. Moreover, I'm also dreaming of replacing things like that : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.getField1(); b.setField3(v+1); by such : MyBean b = new MyBean(); int v = b.field1; b.field3 = v+1; In fact, writing "b.field1" on the right side of an expression would be semantically identical to write "b.getField1()", I mean as if it has been replaced by some kind of a preprocessor. It's just an idea but I'm wondering if I'm alone on that topic, and also if it has major flaws. I'm aware that this question doesn't exactly meet the SO credo (we prefer questions that can be answered, not just discussed) so I flag it community wiki...

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• Best Practice for Uploading Many (2000+) Images to A Server

  - by bob

  Hello, I have a general question about this. When you have a gallery, sometimes people need to upload 1000's of images at once. Most likely, it would be done through a .zip file. What is the best way to go about uploading this sort of thing to a server. Many times, server have timeouts etc. that need to be accounted for. I am wondering what kinds of things should I be looking out for and what is the best way to handle a large amount of images being uploaded. I'm guessing that you would allow a user to upload a zip file (assuming the timeout does not effect you), and this zip file is uploaded to a specific directory, lets assume in this case a directory is created for each user in the system. You would then unzip the directory on the server and scan the user's folder for any directories containing .jpg or .png or .gif files (etc.) and then import them into a table accordingly. I'm guessing labeled by folder name. What kind of server side troubles could I run into? I'm aware that there may be many issues. Even general ideas would be could so I can then research further. Thanks! Also, I would be programming in Ruby on Rails but I think this question applies accross any language.

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• Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

  - by drasto

  In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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• delayed evaluation of code in subroutines - 5.8 vs. 5.10 and 5.12

  - by Brock

  This bit of code behaves differently under perl 5.8 than it does under perl 5.12: my $badcode = sub { 1 / 0 }; print "Made it past the bad code.\n"; [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/bin/perl -v This is perl, v5.8.8 built for i486-linux-gnu-thread-multi [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/bin/perl badcode.pl Illegal division by zero at badcode.pl line 1. [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/local/bin/perl -v This is perl 5, version 12, subversion 0 (v5.12.0) built for i686-linux [brock@chase tmp]$ /usr/local/bin/perl badcode.pl Made it past the bad code. Under perl 5.10.1, it behaves as it does under 5.12: brock@laptop:/var/tmp$ perl -v This is perl, v5.10.1 (*) built for i486-linux-gnu-thread-multi brock@laptop:/var/tmp$ perl badcode.pl Made it past the bad code. I get the same results with a named subroutine, e.g. sub badcode { 1 / 0 } I don't see anything about this in the perl5100delta pod. Is this an undocumented change? A unintended side effect of some other change? (For the record, I think 5.10 and 5.12 are doing the Right Thing.)

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• LPX-00607 for ora:contains in java but not sqlplus

  - by Windle

  Hey all, I am trying to doing some sql querys out of Oracle 11g and am having issues using ora:contains. I am using spring's jdbc impl and my code generates the sql statement: select * from view_name where column_a = ? and column_b = ? and existsNode(xmltype(clob_column), 'record/name [ora:contains(text(), "name1") 0]', 'xmlns:ora="http://xmlns.oralce.com/xdb"') = 1 I have removed the actual view / column names obviously, but when I copy that into sqlplus and substitute in random values, the select executes properly. When I try to run it in my DAO code I get this stack trace: org.springframework.jdbc.UncatergorizedSQLException: PreparedStatementCallback; uncatergorizedSQLException for SQL [the big select above]; SQL state [99999]; error code [31011]; ORA-31011: XML parsing failed. ORA-19202: Error occured in XML processing LPX-00607: Invalid reference: 'contains' ;nested exception is java.sql.SQLException: ORA-31011: XML parsing failed ORA-19202: Error occured in XML processing LPX-00607: Invalid reference: 'contains' (continues on like this for awhile....) I think it is worth mentioning that I am using maven and it is possible I am missing some dependency that is required for this. Sorry the post is so long, but I wanted to err on the side of too much info. Thanks for taking the time to read this at least =) -Windle

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• BlazeDS StreamingAMF: How to detect when flex client closes the connection?

  - by Adrian Pirvulescu

  Hello, I have a Flex application that connects to a BlazeDS server using the StreamingAMF channel. On the server-side the logic is handled by a custom adapter that extends ActionScriptAdapter and implements FlexSessionListener and FlexClientListener interfaces. I am asking how can I detect which "flex-client" has closed a connection when for example the user is closing the browser? (so I can clean some infos inside the database) I tried using the following: 1. To manually manage the command messages: @Override public Object manage(final CommandMessage commandMessage) { switch (commandMessage.getOperation()) { case CommandMessage.SUBSCRIBE_OPERATION: System.out.println("SUBSCRIBE_OPERATION = " + commandMessage.getHeaders()); break; case CommandMessage.UNSUBSCRIBE_OPERATION: System.out.println("UNSUBSCRIBE_OPERATION = " + commandMessage.getHeaders()); break; } return super.manage(commandMessage); } But the clientID's are always different from the ones that came. 2. Listening for sessionDestroyed and clientDestroyed events @Override public void clientCreated(final FlexClient client) { client.addClientDestroyedListener(this); System.out.println("clientCreated = " + client.getId()); } @Override public void clientDestroyed(final FlexClient client) { System.out.println("clientDestroyed = " + client.getId()); } @Override public void sessionCreated(final FlexSession session) { System.out.println("sessionCreated = " + session.getId()); session.addSessionDestroyedListener(this); } @Override public void sessionDestroyed(final FlexSession session) { System.out.println("sessionDestroyed = " + session.getId()); } But those sessionDestroyed and clientDestroyed methods are never called. :(

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• Best practice when using WebMethods and session

  - by Abdel Olakara

  Hi all, I want to reduce postback in one of my application page and use ajax instead. I used the WebMethod to do so.. I have a static WebMethod that needs to access the session variables and modify. and on the client side, i am calling this method using jQuery. I tried accessing the session as follows: [WebMethod] public static void TestWebMethod() { if (HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"] != null) { log.Debug("Using the existing list"); Product prod = (Product)HttpContext.Current.Session["pitems"]; List<Configs> confs = cart.GetConfigs(); foreach (Configs citem in confis) { log.Info(citem.Description); } } log.Info("Inside the method!"); } The values are displayed correctly and seems to work.. but i would like to know if this practice is allowed as the method is a static methods and would like to know how it will behave if multiple people access the application. I would also like to know how developers do these kind of tasks in ASP if this is not the right method. Thanks in advance for your suggestions and ideas, Abdel Olakara

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• jquery: prepopulating autocomplete fields

  - by David Tildon

  I'm using the tokenizing autocomplete plugin for jquery ( http://loopj.com/2009/04/25/jquery-plugin-tokenizing-autocomplete-text-entry ). I mostly use Ruby, and I'm really unfamiliar with javascript, though. My basic setup looks like this, and works fine for a new, blank form: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search" }); }); The problem comes when I try to prepopulate it, like for an edit page. I'm trying to do something like this (where the "#tag_ids_field" text box contains the JSON when the page is loaded - that way is just cleaner on the application side of things). $(document).ready(function () { var tags = $("#tag_ids_field").html(); $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: tags }); }); However, when the page loads I see that it's just filled with hundreds of entries that read 'undefined'. I get this even if I take the JSON output that Rails provides and try sticking it right in the .js file: $(document).ready(function () { $("#tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: "[{\"id\":\"44\",\"name\":\"omnis sit impedit et numquam voluptas enim\"},{\"id\":\"515\",\"name\":\"deserunt odit id doloremque reiciendis aliquid qui vel\"},{\"id\":\"943\",\"name\":\"exercitationem numquam possimus quasi iste nisi illum\"}]" }); }); That's obviously not a solution, I just tried it out of frustration and I get the same behavior. My two questions: One, why are my text boxes being filled with "undefined" tags when I try to prepopulate, and how can I get them to prepopulate successfully? Two, I'm planning on having many autocomplete fields like this on the same page (for when several records are edited at once - they all query the same place). How can I make each autocomplete field take it's prepopulated values from it's own textbox? Something like (applying these settings to all input boxes with a certain class, not just the one of a particular id): $(document).ready(function () { $(".tag_ids_field").tokenInput("/tags", { queryParam: "search", prePopulate: (the contents of that particular ".tag_ids_field" input box) }); });

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• Validating Application Settings Key Values in Isolated Storage for Windows Phone Applications

  - by Martin Anderson

  Hello everyone. I am very new at all this c# Windows Phone programming, so this is most probably a dumb question, but I need to know anywho... IsolatedStorageSettings appSettings = IsolatedStorageSettings.ApplicationSettings; if (!appSettings.Contains("isFirstRun")) { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; MessageBox.Show("isFirstRun not found - creating as true"); appSettings.Add("isFirstRun", "true"); appSettings.Save(); firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else { if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "true") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = true; } else if (appSettings["isFirstRun"] == "false") { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 1; firstrunCheckBox.IsChecked = false; } else { firstrunCheckBox.Opacity = 0.5; } } I am trying to firstly check if there is a specific key in my Application Settings Isolated Storage, and then wish to make a CheckBox appear checked or unchecked depending on if the value for that key is "true" or "false". Also I am defaulting the opacity of the checkbox to 0.5 opacity when no action is taken upon it. With the code I have, I get the warnings Possible unintended reference comparison; to get a value comparison, cast the left hand side to type 'string' Can someone tell me what I am doing wrong. I have explored storing data in an Isolated Storage txt file, and that worked, I am now trying Application Settings, and will finally try to download and store an xml file, as well as create and store user settings into an xml file. I want to try understand all the options open to me, and use which ever runs better and quicker

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• Class/Model Level Validation (as opposed to Property Level)? (ASP.NET MVC 2.0)

  - by Erx_VB.NExT.Coder

  Basically, what the title says. I have several properties that combine together to really make one logical answer, and i would like to run a server-side validation code (that i write) which take these multiple fields into account and hook up to only one validation output/error message that users see on the webpage. I looked at scott guthries method of extending an attribute and using it in yoru dataannotations declarations, but, as i can see, there is no way to declare a dataannotations-style attribute on multiple properties, and you can only place the declarations (such as [Email], [Range], [Required]) over one property :(. i have looked at the PropertiesMustMatchAttribute in the default mvc 2.0 project that appears when you start a new project, this example is as useful as using a pair of pins to check your motor oil - useless! i have tried this method, however, creating a class level attribute, and have no idea how to display the error from this in my aspx page. i have tried html.ValidationMessage("ClassNameWhereAttributeIsAdded") and a variety of other thing, and it has not worked. and i should mention, there is NOT ONE blog post on doing validation at this level - despite this being a common need in any project or business logic scenario! can anyone help me in having my message displayed in my aspx page, and also if possible a proper document or reference explaining validation at this level?

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• Making that move from junior > mid level

  - by dotnetdev

  Hi, Before I start, I know there is another thread about this very issue (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2352874/moving-from-junior-developer-to-mid-level). I am in this very same situation, but of course every person and the company/employment-history is not the same. In my current company, I have not done one piece of coding from start to finish with the oversight of my manager and a Project Manager to manage the work/deadlines etc. I am basically an odd-jobs type of guy. The coding I do is on the side to whatever boring spreadsheet/word document I have to write. Very illogical that you're a coder and you're doing it in secret. In another job I had for 3 months (Was made redundant), it required 1 years experience, perhaps because of the fact I was the sole developer. It wasn't too hard, but then I was solely responsible and I learnt a lot from that. I had 2 other 3 months jobs (contracts), so I have been working for 1 year 9 months. I know found a job which I'm in the last stage for, which needs 3 years .NET experience and 2 years Sharepoint. How can I know if I am ready for this job? My current job has been going on for 1 year, but it doesn't mean squat apart from explaining how I have spent my time. It does not tell me what level I am at (apart from the huge skills gap I have opened up against my peers because I practise at home). So 1 year of doing nothing at work, but 1 year of doing loads at home. In fact, I take 1 week off and do more at home then in the company since I started. How can I know if I am ready for such a job? I am generally very confident given all I've achieved in coding, but I have no idea what a job with this sort of experience entails (what day-to-day-problems I would be facing). Is there any advice on how to handle this transition? Thanks

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• SeriesInterpolate - removing data at start of array

  - by Allan Jardine

  Hello all, I've been experimenting with Flex Charts (in Flash Builder 4) recently, but have run into one area which didn't quite work as I was expecting. Specifically, when adding and removing a data point from an array, with SeriesInterpolate set. I've put up three examples, as I expect these will make a lot more sense than me trying to explain it with words only!: http://sprymedia.co.uk/media/misc/flex/linechart/LineChart-Add.swf - Clicking the button in the top right adds a new data point to the end of the data array, and the chart is smoothly updated (almost smoothly there is a 1px shift when animating which is odd...) http://sprymedia.co.uk/media/misc/flex/linechart/LineChart-Delete.swf - Clicking the button (which is now labelled incorrectly) will remove the item at the start of the data array - but the chart draws this as if it were removing the end element. http://sprymedia.co.uk/media/misc/flex/linechart/LineChart-AddDelete.swf - This is sort of what I'm eventually aiming for - a smooth side scroll chart, where new data is added at the end and the old data is sifted off the front. However the delete behaviour makes this look a bit odd. Does anyone know if there is a way to get the smooth transition I'm looking with SeriesInterpolate? Or is it possible to implement a custom transition? Many thanks, Allan

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• Game login authentication and security.

  - by Charles

  First off I will say I am completely new to security in coding. I am currently helping a friend develop a small game (in Python) which will have a login server. I don't have much knowledge regarding security, but I know many games do have issues with this. Everything from 3rd party applications (bots) to WPE packet manipulation. Considering how small this game will be and the limited user base, I doubt we will have serious issues, but would like to try our best to limit problems. I am not sure where to start or what methods I should use, or what's worth it. For example, sending data to the server such as login name and password. I was told his information should be encrypted when sending, so in-case someone was viewing it (with whatever means), that they couldn't get into the account. However, if someone is able to capture the encrypted string, wouldn't this string always work since it's decrypted server side? In other words, someone could just capture the packet, reuse it, and still gain access to the account? The main goal I am really looking for is to make sure the players are logging into the game with the client we provide, and to make sure it's 'secure' (broad, I know). I have looked around at different methods such as Public and Private Key encryption, which I am sure any hex editor could eventually find. There are many other methods that seem way over my head at the moment and leave the impression of overkill. I realize nothing is 100% secure. I am just looking for any input or reading material (links) to accomplish the main goal stated above. Would appreciate any help, thanks.

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• JVM/CLR Source-compatible Language Options

  - by Nathan Voxland

  I have an open source Java database migration tool (http://www.liquibase.org) which I am considering porting to .Net. The majority of the tool (at least from a complexity side) is around logic like "if you are adding a primary key and the database is Oracle use this SQL. If database is MySQL use this SQL. If the primary key is named and the database is Postgres use this SQL". I could fork the Java codebase and covert it (manually and/or automatically), but as updates and bug fixes to the above logic come in I do not want to have to apply it to both versions. What I would like to do is move all that logic into a form that can be compiled and used by both Java and .Net versions naively. The code I am looking to convert does not contain any advanced library usage (JDBC, System.out, etc) that would vary significantly from Java to .Net, so I don't think that will be an issue (at worst it can be designed around). So what I am looking for is: A language in which I can code common parts of my app in and compile it into classes usable by the "standard" languages on the target platform Does not add any runtime requirements to the system Nothing so strange that it scares away potential contributors I know Python and Ruby both have implementations on for the JVM and CLR. How well do they fit my requirements? Has anyone been successful (or unsuccesful) using this technique for cross-platform applications? Are there any gotcha's I need to worry about?

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• Question about mixing MEF and Unity

  - by Dave

  I'm finally diving into Unity head first, and have run into my first real problem. I've been gradually changing some things in my app from being MEF-resolved to Unity-resolved. Everything went fine on the application side, but then I realized that my plugins were not being loaded. I started to look into this issue, and I believe it's a case where MEF and Unity don't mix. Plugins are loaded by MEF, but each plugin needs to get access to the shared libraries in my application, like app preferences, logging, etc. Initially, my plugin constructor had the ImportingConstructor attribute. I then replaced it with InjectionConstructor so that Unity could resolve its shared library dependencies. But because I did that, MEF no longer loaded it! Then I used both attributes, which compiled, but then I got a composition error (MEF). I figured that this was because the constructor takes a parameter that was once resolved by a MEF Import, so I removed all parameters. As expected, now MEF was able to load my plugin, but because the constructor needs to call into the interface that was once passed in, construction fails. So now I'm at a point where I can get MEF to start to load my plugin, but can't do anything with it because the plugin relies on shared libraries that are registered with Unity. For those of you that have successfully mixed MEF and Unity, how do you go about resolving the references to the shared libraries with Unity? It seems like a catch-22, where in order to have Unity work with the plugin, I'd have to create the plugin via Resolve, but then it's impossible to use MEF. UPDATE I can work around this problem by using an ImportingConstructor for the plugin that takes an IUnityContainer, and then call Resolve for each interface that I need, but although it works, it is incredibly lame to do it this way, as this would require all plugin authors to remember to save a reference to the passed in IUnityContainer...

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• Why wouldn't a flex remoteobject be able to work within a custom component?

  - by Gary

  Please enlighten this flex noob. I have a remoteobject within my main.mxml. I can call a function on the service from an init() function on my main.mxml, and my java debugger triggers a breakpoint. When I move the remoteobject declaration and function call into a custom component (that is declared within main.mxml), the remote function on java-side no longer gets called, no breakpoints triggered, no errors, silence. How could this be? No spelling errors, or anything like that. What can I do to figure it out? mxml code: < mx:RemoteObject id="myService" destination="remoteService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" > < /mx:RemoteObject > function call is just 'myService.getlist();' when I move it to a custom component, I import mx.core.Application; so the compiler doesn't yell my child component: child.mxml <mx:Panel xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.core.Application; public function init():void { helloWorld.sayHello(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:RemoteObject id="helloWorld" destination="helloService" endpoint="$(Application.application.home}/messagebroker/amf" /> <mx:Label text="{helloWorld.sayHello.lastResult}" /> </mx:Panel> my main.mxml: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="init()" xmlns:test="main.flex.*" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ [Bindable] public var home:String; [Bindable] public var uName:String; public function init():void { //passed in by wrapper html home = Application.application.parameters.appHome; uName = Application.application.parameters.uName; } ]]> </mx:Script> <test:child /> </mx:Application>

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• QueryString malformed after URLDecode

  - by pdavis

  I'm trying to pass in a Base64 string into a C#.Net web application via the QueryString. When the string arrives the "+" (plus) sign is being replaced by a space. It appears that the automatic URLDecode process is doing this. I have no control over what is being passed via the QueryString. Is there any way to handle this server side? Example: http://localhost:3399/Base64.aspx?VLTrap=VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8+PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== Produces: VkxUcmFwIHNldCB0byAiRkRTQT8 PE0iIHBsdXMgb3IgbWludXMgNSBwZXJjZW50Lg== People have suggested URLEncoding the querystring: System.Web.HttpUtility.UrlEncode(yourString) I can't do that as I have no control over the calling routine (which is working fine with other languages). There was also the suggestion of replacing spaces with a plus sign: Request.QueryString["VLTrap"].Replace(" ", "+"); I had though of this but my concern with it, and I should have mentioned this to start, is that I don't know what other characters might be malformed in addition to the plus sign. My main goal is to intercept the QueryString before it is run through the decoder. To this end I tried looking at Request.QueryString.toString() but this contained the same malformed information. Is there any way to look at the raw QueryString before it is URLDecoded? After further testing it appears that .Net expects everything coming in from the QuerString to be URL encoded but the browser does not automatically URL encode GET requests.

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• Cannot connect Linux XAMPP PHP to MS SQL database.

  - by Jim

  I've searched many sites without success. I'm using XAMPP 1.7.3a on Ubuntu 9.1. I have used the methods found at http://www.webcheatsheet.com/PHP/connect_mssql_database.php, they all fail. I am able to "connect" with a linked database through MS Access, however, that is not an acceptable solution as not all users will have Access. The first method (at webcheatsheet) uses mssql_connect, et.al. but I get this error from the mssql_connect() call: Warning: mssql_connect() [function.mssql-connect]: Unable to connect to server: [my server] in [my code] [my server] is the server address, I have used both the host name and the IP address. [my code] is a reference to the file and line number in my .php file. Is there a log file somewhere that would have more information about the failure, both on my machine and the MS SQL server? We do not have a bona-fide DBA, so I will need specific information to pass on if the issue seems to be on the server side. All assistance is appreciated, including RTFM when the location of the M is provided! Thanks

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• Redraw and flicker issues

  - by AngryHacker

  I have an Outlook style app. So basically I have a sidebar on the left and on the right I have a panel control (pnlMainBody) that hosts content. The content is typically a user control that I add to the panel when user clicks appropriate button in the side bar. The way I add the user control to the panel is as follows: // _pnlEmails is the User Control that I am adding to the panel _pnlEmails = new pnlEmails(); _pnlEmails.Dock = DockStyle.Fill; this.pnlMainBody.Controls.Add(_pnlEmails); Some of the user controls that I add to the main panel are quite complex UI-wise. So when this.pnlMainBody.Controls.Add(_pnlEmails); fires, I see the control appear on the screen, then it resizes itself to fill the body of the panel control. It's quite ugly actually, so I was wondering whether there is a way to not show the resizing until it's actually done resizing? I've tried setting the user control's .Visible to false. I've tried doing .SuspendLayout, all to no avail. Is there a way to do this so the screen transitions are smooth?

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• Force Oracle error on fetch

  - by Dan

  I am trying to debug a strange behavior in my application. In order to do so, I need to reproduce a scenario where an SQL SELECT query will throw an error, but only while actually fetching from the cursor, not while executing the query itself. Can this be done? Any error will do, but ORA-01722: invalid number seems like the obvious one to try. I created a table with the follwing: KEYCOL INTEGER PRIMARY KEY OTHERCOL VARCHAR2(100) I then created a few hundred rows with unique values for the primary key and the value l for the othercol. I then ran a SELECT * query, picked a row somewhere in the middle, and updated it to the string abcd. I ran the query SELECT KEYCOL, TO_NUMBER(OTHERCOL) FROM SOMETABLE hoping to get some rows of good data an then an error later. But I keep getting ORA-01722: invalid number on the execute step itself. I have gotten this behavior programmatically using ADO (with server-side cursor) and JDBC, as well as from PL/SQL Developer. How can I get the result I'm looking for? thanks Edit - meant to add, when using ADO, I am only calling Command.Execute. I am not creating or opening a Recordset.

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• Ibatis startBatch() only works with SqlMapClient's own start and commit transactions, not with Sprin

  - by Brian

  Hi, I'm finding that even though I have code wrapped by Spring transactions, and it commits/rolls back when I would expect, in order to make use of JDBC batching when using Ibatis and Spring I need to use explicit SqlMapClient transaction methods. I.e. this does batching as I'd expect: dao.getSqlMapClient().startTransaction(); dao.getSqlMapClient().startBatch(); int i = 0; for (MyObject obj : allObjects) { dao.storeChange(obj); i++; if (i % DB_BATCH_SIZE == 0) { dao.getSqlMapClient().executeBatch(); dao.getSqlMapClient().startBatch(); } } dao.getSqlMapClient().executeBatch(); dao.getSqlMapClient().commitTransaction(); but if I don't have the opening and closing transaction statements, and rely on Spring to manage things (which is what I want to do!), batching just doesn't happen. Given that Spring does otherwise seem to be handling its side of the bargain regarding transaction management, can anyone advise on any known issues here? (Database is MySQL; I'm aware of the issues regarding its JDBC pseudo-batch approach with INSERT statement rewriting, that's definitely not an issue here)

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• please clarify some aspects of AJAX with ASP.NET web forms for a beginner

  - by citrus

  Im familiar with asp.net web forms. I would now like to move on to writing web applications that use AJAX. I would like to get to the stage where I can create an app: that has "edit in place" (no page reload) where i can reorder images using drag and drop (also saves the order to DB) that has google like search suggestions while typing on the fly 1)So do I need to learn how to use AJAX.net and Jquery(my JS library of choice)? Can I make do using only AJAX.net or only Jquery? 2)As far a I know, Jquery will allow me to perform client side manipulations/actions and AJAX.net is the part that will allow me to connect some of my actions to the Server. EG. if I wanted to re-order elements using drag and drop, I would use Jquery, but in order to save the result of the re-order to the DB I would have to use AJAX.net correct? 2a)So In order to learn how to do the above Im thinking I should first learn Jquery so I know how to manipulate/ select elements, and then I can lean how to save these changes to the DB. 3)I searched the books titled "ASP.net AJAX in action" and ASP.net 3.5 AJAX, both of these books did not contain any references to "Jquery". Is this because they may be using a different JS library, or perhaps the book focuses on the AJAX user controls? I just found it confusing that 2 popular AJAX books dont make any reference to Jquery. Thanks for any help.

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