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  • Running mysql query using node blocks the whole process and then timesout

    - by lobengula3rd
    I have a node javascript that uses mysql npm (Felix). I have a procedure stored in my DB which I call when the user selects an option to kind of create its own instance of the program. The user chooses for how long he wants that data to be initialized for him. This is suppsoed to be between 1 and 2 years. So if he choose 1 year this query will insert around 20,000 rows into 1 table. If I run this query and a local DB this takes around 30 seconds (I suppose it is reasonable because its a big query which should be done only once in 1 or 2 years so its ok). For some reason my node script freezes as if it can't handle any more calls from other users. The even worse problem is that after like 2 minutes my client ui gets like an error from the server. At this point not all the data that was supposed to enter the DB is entered. After waiting like another minute all the data finally gets to the DB and only then it will accept new requests. This is my connection: this.connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : '********rds.amazonaws.com', user : 'admin', password : '******', database : '*****' }); and this is my query function: this.createCourts = function (req, res, next){ connection.query('CALL filldates("' + req.body['startDate'] + '","' + req.body['endDate'] + '","' + req.body['numOfCourts'] + '","' + req.body['duration'] + '","' + req.body['sundayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['mondayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['fridayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayOpen'] + '","' + req.body['sundayClose'] + '","' + req.body['mondayClose'] + '","' + req.body['tuesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['wednesdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['thursdayClose'] + '","' + req.body['fridayClose'] + '","' + req.body['saturdayClose'] + '");', function(err){ if (err){ console.log(err); } else return res.send(200); }); }; what am i missing here? as i understand connection.query should by async so why is it actually blocking my node script? thanks.

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  • .NET: How to pass value when subscribing to event and obtain it when the event is triggered (Dynamic

    - by Entrase
    The task is to create event handlers in runtime. I need the one method to be called with different parameter value for different events. The events and their number are only known in runtime. So I'm trying to generate dynamic methods, each of which will be assigned to some event, but in general they all just pass some value to an instance method and call it. It would be great if something similar could be done the easier way. I mean passing some value at subscribing stage and then obtaining it when the event is triggered. This is what I'm trying to do now: public class EventSource { public event EventHandler eventOne; public event EventHandler eventTwO; public event EventHandler eventThree; } public class EventListener { SubscribeForEvents() { BindingFlags flags = BindingFlags.IgnoreCase | BindingFlags.Public | BindingFlags.Instance; // Suppose we've already got EventInfo // and target source somewhere // so we can do eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate) // Now we need a delegate. int value = 42; Type tDelegate = eventInfo.EventHandlerType; // http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228976(VS.95).aspx Type returnType = GetDelegateReturnType(tDelegate); DynamicMethod listener = new DynamicMethod("", null, GetDelegateParameterTypes(tDelegate), this.GetType()); ///////// Type[] callParameters = { typeof(int) }; MethodInfo method = this.GetType().GetMethod("ToCallFromDelegate", flags); ILGenerator generator = listener.GetILGenerator(); // No success in this mess. What's wrong? generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldc_I4, value); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, method); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Pop); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); ///////////// Delegate delegate = listener.CreateDelegate(tDelegate); eventInfo.AddEventHandler(target, delegate); // When triggered, there is InvalidProgramException } void ToCallFromDelegate(int value) { doSomething(); } }

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  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

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  • Creating a simple command line interface (CLI) using a python server (TCP sock) and few scripts

    - by VN44CA
    I have a Linux box and I want to be able to telnet into it (port 77557) and run few required commands without having to access to the whole Linux box. So, I have a server listening on that port, and echos the entered command on the screen. (for now) Telnet 192.168.1.100 77557 Trying 192.168.1.100... Connected to 192.168.1.100. Escape character is '^]'. hello<br /> You typed: "hello"<br /> NOW: I want to create lot of commands that each take some args and have error codes. Anyone has done this before? It would be great if I can have the server upon initialization go through each directory and execute the init.py file and in turn, the init.py file of each command call into a main template lib API (e.g. RegisterMe()) and register themselves with the server as function call backs. At least this is how I would do it in C/C++. But I want the best Pythonic way of doing this. /cmd/ /cmd/myreboot/ /cmd/myreboot/ini.py (note underscore don't show for some reason) /cmd/mylist/ /cmd/mylist/init.py ... etc IN: /cmd/myreboot/_ini_.py: from myMainCommand import RegisterMe RegisterMe(name="reboot",args=Arglist, usage="Use this to reboot the box", desc="blabla") So, repeating this creates a list of commands and when you enter the command in the telnet session, then the server goes through the list, matches the command and passed the args to that command and the command does the job and print the success or failure to stdout. Thx

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  • Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

    - by williamjones
    I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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  • std::string insert method has ambiguous overloads?

    - by sdg
    Environment: VS2005 C++ using STLPort 5.1.4. Compiling the following code snippet: std::string copied = "asdf"; char ch = 's'; copied.insert(0,1,ch); I receive an error: Error 1 error C2668: 'stlpx_std::basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>::insert' : ambiguous call to overloaded function It appears that the problem is the insert method call on the string object. The two defined overloads are void insert ( iterator p, size_t n, char c ); string& insert ( size_t pos1, size_t n, char c ); But given that STLPort uses a simple char* as its iterator, the literal zero in the insert method in my code is ambiguous. So while I can easily overcome the problem by hinting such as copied.insert(size_t(0),1,ch); My question is: is this overloading and possible ambiguity intentional in the specification? Or more likely an unintended side-effect of the specific STLPort implementation? (Note that the Microsoft-supplied STL does not have this problem as it has a class for the iterator, instead of a naked pointer)

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  • Facebook Application with PHP running losing session

    - by ArneRie
    Iam trying to build an Facebook Application based on PHP. The Application is running under php on my own Webhost inside an Canvas as iFrame. I have included the newest Client Library for PHP from Facebook: facebook-php-sdk-94fcb13 To Authorize the user inside my application iam trying to use Facebook Connect, like the example shipped with the Client. Everything works fine the 1st Login, but when i hit the F5 Key to reload the page, the session is lost and i have to login again. When i call my application outside of the Facebook Canvas everything is fine. Iam not sure, but i think my Browser (Chrome/FireFox - Ubuntu) is not allowing to store an cookie inside an iFrame. Does someone knows an solution for this Problem? Here are some Parts of the Sourcecode: $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => 'x', 'secret' => 'x', 'cookie' => 'true', )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $facebook->setSession($session); $me = null; // Session based API call. if ($session) { try { $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); } catch (FacebookApiException $e) { error_log($e); } } // login or logout url will be needed depending on current user state. if ($me) { $logoutUrl = $facebook->getLogoutUrl(); } else { $loginUrl = $facebook->getLoginUrl(); }

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  • Differences between Assembly Code output of the same program

    - by ultrajohn
    I have been trying to replicate the buffer overflow example3 from this article aleph one I'm doing this as a practice for a project in a computer security course i'm taking so please, I badly need your help. I've been the following the example, performing the tasks as I go along. My problem is the assembly code dumped by gdb in my computer (i'm doing this on a debian linux image running on VM Ware) is different from that of the example in the article. There are some constructs which I find confusing. Here is the one from my computer: here is the one from the article... Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x8000490 <main>: pushl %ebp 0x8000491 <main+1>: movl %esp,%ebp 0x8000493 <main+3>: subl $0x4,%esp 0x8000496 <main+6>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x800049d <main+13>: pushl $0x3 0x800049f <main+15>: pushl $0x2 0x80004a1 <main+17>: pushl $0x1 0x80004a3 <main+19>: call 0x8000470 <function> 0x80004a8 <main+24>: addl $0xc,%esp 0x80004ab <main+27>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x80004b2 <main+34>: movl 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x80004b5 <main+37>: pushl %eax 0x80004b6 <main+38>: pushl $0x80004f8 0x80004bb <main+43>: call 0x8000378 <printf> 0x80004c0 <main+48>: addl $0x8,%esp 0x80004c3 <main+51>: movl %ebp,%esp 0x80004c5 <main+53>: popl %ebp 0x80004c6 <main+54>: ret 0x80004c7 <main+55>: nop As you can see, there are differences between the two. I'm confuse and I can't understand totally the assembly code from my computer. I would like to know the differences between the two. How is pushl different from push, mov vs movl , and so on... what does the expression 0xhexavalue(%register) means? I am sorry If I'm asking a lot, But I badly need your help. Thanks for the help really...

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  • performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: not working from scrollViewDidZoom

    - by oldbeamer
    Hi all, I feel like I should know this but I've been stumped for hours now and I've run out of ideas. The theory is simple, the user manipulates the zoom and positioning in a scrollview using a pinch. If they hold that pinch for a short period of time then the scrollview records the zoom level and content offsets. So I thought I'd start a performSelector:withObject:withDelay on the scrollViewDidZoom delegate method. If it expires then I record the settings. I delete the scheduled call every time scrollViewDidZoom is called and when the pinch gesture finishes. This is what I have: - (void)scrollViewDidZoom:(UIScrollView *)scrollView{ NSLog(@"resetting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; [self performSelector:@selector(positionLock) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.4]; } -(void)positionLock{ NSLog(@"position locked "); } - (void)scrollViewDidEndZooming:(UIScrollView *)scrollView withView:(UIView *)view atScale:(float)scale{ NSLog(@"deleting timer"); [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(positionLock) object:nil]; } This is the output: 2010-05-19 22:43:01.931 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:01.964 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.231 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.253 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.269 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:02.298 resetting timer 2010-05-19 22:43:05.399 deleting timer As you can see the delay between the last and second last events should have been more than enough for the delayed selector call to execute. If I replace performSelector:withObject:withDelay with plain old performSelector: I get this: 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.333 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.366 resetting timer 2010-05-19 23:08:30.367 position locked 2010-05-19 23:08:30.688 deleting timer Which isn't what I want but serves to show that it's only the delay that's causing it to not function, not something to do with the selector not being declared in the header, being misspelt or any other reason. Any ideas as to why it's not working?

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  • NSOpenGLFullScreen and SetSystemUIMode freeze bug!?

    - by Mattias
    Hi! I have a really strange problem which is perfectly re-producable using sample code! If I use Apple's NSOpenGLFullScreen sample I can click a button to enter fullscreen OpenGL mode. However if I click the mouse in the area where the menubar would be if I was running windowed mode, the entire program freezes because I really activate the menu-choice behind the OpenGL screen, so to speak. The solution I have found after some Googling is to use SetSystemUIMode to hide the menubar. Also I want to initiate the application to fullscreen at startup by adding a call to EnterFullScreen after initialization. Entering FullScreen works perfectly, BUT - if I add the call to SetSystemUIMode I get a really strange error! The entire screen hangs, the animation stops and no mouse coordinates seem to be reported. If I then exit the Fullscreen mode and press the FullScreen button again everything works and the menubar is gone.. What could be wrong here? I mean it obviously works to remove the menubar in that manner and it obviously works to enter fullscreen mode like that (using Cocoa), but why doesn't the combination work!? Pleeease help :) Sincerely, / Mattias

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  • Facing error in apple multitasking code

    - by user366584
    Actually I am working for multitasking and facing error please assist me, as I need to work on background application and also in foreground application - (void)applicationDidEnterBackground:(UIApplication *)application { UIApplication* app = [UIApplication sharedApplication]; // Request permission to run in the background. Provide an // expiration handler in case the task runs long. NSAssert(bgTask == UIBackgroundTaskInvalid, nil); bgTask = [app beginBackgroundTaskWithExpirationHandler:^{ // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the task actually finishes at around the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }]; // Start the long-running task and return immediately. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_global_queue(DISPATCH_QUEUE_PRIORITY_DEFAULT, 0), ^{ // Do the work associated with the task. // Synchronize the cleanup call on the main thread in case // the expiration handler is fired at the same time. dispatch_async(dispatch_get_main_queue(), ^{ if (bgTask != UIBackgroundTaskInvalid) { [app endBackgroundTask:bgTask]; bgTask = UIBackgroundTaskInvalid; } }); }); }

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  • Runing bcdedit from python in Windows 2008 SP2

    - by Lee-Man
    I do not know windows well, so that may explain my dilemma ... I am trying to run bcdedit in Windows 2008R2 from Python 2.6. My Python routine to run a command looks like this: def run_program(cmd_str): """Run the specified command, returning its output as an array of lines""" dprint("run_program(%s): entering" % cmd_str) cmd_args = cmd_str.split() subproc = subprocess.Popen(cmd_args, stdout=subprocess.PIPE, stderr=subprocess.PIPE, shell=True) (outf, errf) = (subproc.stdout, subproc.stderr) olines = outf.readlines() elines = errf.readlines() if Options.debug: if elines: dprint('Error output:') for line in elines: dprint(line.rstrip()) if olines: dprint('Normal output:') for line in olines: dprint(line.rstrip()) errf.close() outf.close() res = subproc.wait() dprint('wait result=', res) return (res, olines) I call this function thusly: (res, o) = run_program('bcdedit /set {current} MSI forcedisable') This command works when I type it from a cmd window, and it works when I put it in a batch file and run it from a command window (as Administrator, of course). But when I run it from Python (as Administrator), Python claims it can't find the command, returning: bcdedit is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file Also, if I trying running my batch file from Python (which works from the command line), it also fails. I've also tried it with the full path to bcdedit, with the same results. What is it about calling bcdedit from Python that makes it not found? Note that I can call other EXE files from Python, so I have some level of confidence that my Python code is sane ... but who knows. Any help would be most appreciated.

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  • Objective-C subclass and base class casting

    - by ryanjm.mp
    I'm going to create a base class that implements very similar functions for all of the subclasses. This was answered in a different question. But what I need to know now is if/how I can cast various functions (in the base class) to return the subclass object. This is both for a given function but also a function call in it. (I'm working with CoreData by the way) As a function within the base class (this is from a class that is going to become my subclass) +(Structure *)fetchStructureByID:(NSNumber *)structureID inContext:(NSManagedObjectContext *)managedObjectContext {...} And as a function call within a given function: Structure *newStructure = [Structure fetchStructureByID:[currentDictionary objectForKey:@"myId"]]; inContext:managedObjectContext]; Structure is one of my subclasses, so I need to rewrite both of these so that they are "generic" and can be applied to other subclasses (whoever is calling the function). How do I do that? Update: I just realized that in the second part there are actually two issues. You can't change [Structure fetch...] to [self fetch...] because it is a class method, not an instance method. How do I get around that too?

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  • Page content layout issues

    - by Prupel
    I'm designing a theme for a blog and I'm having some trouble trying to get a layout working. Here's an image of what I want. This diagram represents the individual posts and not the website itself, so it will be contained in a box of it's own, lets call it .container. Also the purple and green are in another box, let's call it .content. The other elements will be called by their color for now. so here's more or less what the CSS looks like: .container { display:block; margin:0 25px; } .gray, .blue, .content { display:block; width:100%; } .purple { display:inline-block; width:125px; height:100%; text-align:center; } .green { display:inline-block; } That's all there is at the moment. I tried float but that made no effect. What's happening is something like this. Here's a few more things you should know: .container's width is NOT set it is auto .purple and .green don't necessarily need to be the same size as long as .green doesn't go to that side. .purple CAN have a set height .green is where the meat is, that's where the actual post goes, keep that in mind. I don't think tables will help, the problem is inside .content.

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  • Doubts in executable and relocatable object file

    - by bala1486
    Hello, I have written a simple Hello World program. #include <stdio.h> int main() { printf("Hello World"); return 0; } I wanted to understand how the relocatable object file and executable file look like. The object file corresponding to the main function is 0000000000000000 <main>: 0: 55 push %rbp 1: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4: bf 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%edi 9: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax e: e8 00 00 00 00 callq 13 <main+0x13> 13: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 18: c9 leaveq 19: c3 retq Here the function call for printf is callq 13. One thing i don't understand is why is it 13. That means call the function at adresss 13, right??. 13 has the next instruction, right?? Please explain me what does this mean?? The executable code corresponding to main is 00000000004004cc <main>: 4004cc: 55 push %rbp 4004cd: 48 89 e5 mov %rsp,%rbp 4004d0: bf dc 05 40 00 mov $0x4005dc,%edi 4004d5: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004da: e8 e1 fe ff ff callq 4003c0 <printf@plt> 4004df: b8 00 00 00 00 mov $0x0,%eax 4004e4: c9 leaveq 4004e5: c3 retq Here it is callq 4003c0. But the binary instruction is e8 e1 fe ff ff. There is nothing that corresponds to 4003c0. What is that i am getting wrong? Thanks. Bala

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  • Help with jQuery Validation plugin and a form that uses 'panels'

    - by alex
    I have a form that works in 'sections' that I will refer to as 'panels'. By default, the form is listed out on the page, one panel after the other. However, with JavaScript, it puts the panels into one panel viewer, and displays them one after the other (with prev/next buttons). Example Form Workflow Panel 1: User Details - Panel 2: User Location - Panel 3: User Info - Panel 4: Confirm Details I am using the jQuery Validation plugin. My problem is, I have set up all the rules for all the inputs in the first 3 panels, and I'd like to be able to only validate a subset of them per panel. Example, when pushing 'next panel' after completing name & email (in the 1st, user details panel), I'd like to do a validation only on that panel first, and then get a boolean response (if the 1st panel validated), and if true, then proceed to the next panel. I've played around with a bit of the config, but unfortunately could not get it to work as I wanted. This is my first project with this plugin so I'm quite new to it! Is there a way to add rules dynamically to the plugin? i.e. not on $('form').validate(options) ? What I'd like to do, is call the validate() on the form, with all the error messages, and then on the 'next panel' code, do a switch case to determine which rules to add, and then call a validate() myself.

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  • c# multi inheritance

    - by user326839
    So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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  • Making a jQuery plugin to feed Tumblr to site

    - by tylorreimer
    I have some experience with PHP and a little with JS but I'm far from anything proficient. I'm trying to make a jQuery plugin for my site that I can call in my HTML via something like this: $('.new').tumble({username: "tylor", count: 9}); Which would basically put the Tumblr list the code should make into the DIV with class 'new' in this case. Here is my code so far; the problem seems to be how to get it to pick up class/id from the original call (in the HTML) and use that in the jQuery. Here's the code so far: (function($) { $.fn.tumble = function(options){ var settings = $.extend({ username: null, // [string or array] required to get url for tumblr account count: 3, // [integer] how many posts to display? }, options); //url construction var url = "http://" + settings.username + ".tumblr.com"; var jsonurl = url + "/api/read/json?num=" + settings.count + "&callback=?"; $.getJSON(jsonurl, function(data) { var items = []; $.each(data.posts, function(id, url) { // Goes over each post in the JSON document retrieved from data URL var url = this.url; // Just assigns a variable to the url to avoid constantly writing "this.whatever" var photourl = this['photo-url-250']; // photo-url-xxx needs to be called this way due to integers in the name items.push('<li><a href="' + url + '">' + photourl + '</a></li>'); }); $('<ul/>', { // Creates an empty list html: items.join('') // Takes the values in the item array and puts 'em together }).appendTo('.new'); // I don't want this to have the class set in the jQuery itself }); //end json }; })( jQuery ); Any help you can lend would be wonderful. Thank you

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  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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  • Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

    - by Mike Wills
    I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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  • Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

    - by sonicblis
    I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

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  • Fitting title for my position

    - by lithander
    In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

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  • Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

    - by PaulHurleyuk
    I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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  • Recursion in prepared statements

    - by Rob
    I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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