Search Results

Search found 12043 results on 482 pages for 'dynamically generated'.

Page 409/482 | < Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >

• WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

  - by Impulse

  Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

  Read the article

• How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

  - by qstarin

  I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

  Read the article

• VS2010 and CSS: What is the best way to position a single form control

  - by George

  OK, I have a ton of controls on my page that I need to individually place. I need to set a margin here, a padding there, etc. None of these particular styles that I want to apply will be applied to more than control. What is the bets practice for determining at which level the style is placed, etc? OK, my choices are 1) External CSS file 1A) Using ClientIdMode = Auto (the default) I could assign a unique CssClass value to the ASP.NET control and, in the external CSS file, create a class selector that would only be applied to that one control. 1B) User Client ID = Predicatable In the external CSS file, I could determine what the ID will be for the controls of interest and create an ID selector (#ControlID{Style} ). However, I fear maintenance issues due to including/removing parent containers that would cause the ID to change. 1C) User Client ID = Static. I could choose static IDs for the controls such that I minimize the likelihood of a clash with auto generated IDs (perhaps by prefixing the ID with "StaticID_" and use an external stylesheet with ID selectors. 2) I could place the style right on the control. The only disadvantage here, as I see it, is that style info is brought down each time instead of being cached , which is what I'd get using an external CSS. If a style isn't resused, I personally don't see much benefit to placing it in an external file, though please explain why if you disagree. Is there moire of a reason that "It's nice to have all the CSS in one place?"

  Read the article

• Symfony form->bind fails

  - by Shawn Craver

  I'm working with a few custom forms, and one of them isn't binding it's values on a POST. I'm using the same logic for each, and only one of them isn't working. Here's the code: public function executeMediaFileUpload(sfWebRequest $request) { $this->form = new MediaFileUploadForm(); if (!$request->isMethod('POST')) $psk = $request->getParameter('psk'); else { $this->form->bind($request->getParameter($this->form->getName()), $request->getFiles($this->form->getName())); $this->logMessage('VALUE: ' . $this->form->getValue('version')); $psk = $this->form->getValue('application'); } $this->logMessage('PSK: ' . $psk); $app = Doctrine::getTable('Application')->find(array($psk)); $this->form->setDefault('application', $app->getPsk()); $this->form->setDefault('version', $app->getVersion()->getLast()->getPsk()); On the initial GET, I can see the value passed in via psk getting set as the default for application in the generated HTML, and all the values show up in the POST request in Firebug, but after I bind the form, it still contains no values.

  Read the article

• Type-safe generic data structures in plain-old C?

  - by Bradford Larsen

  I have done far more C++ programming than "plain old C" programming. One thing I sorely miss when programming in plain C is type-safe generic data structures, which are provided in C++ via templates. For sake of concreteness, consider a generic singly linked list. In C++, it is a simple matter to define your own template class, and then instantiate it for the types you need. In C, I can think of a few ways of implementing a generic singly linked list: Write the linked list type(s) and supporting procedures once, using void pointers to go around the type system. Write preprocessor macros taking the necessary type names, etc, to generate a type-specific version of the data structure and supporting procedures. Use a more sophisticated, stand-alone tool to generate the code for the types you need. I don't like option 1, as it is subverts the type system, and would likely have worse performance than a specialized type-specific implementation. Using a uniform representation of the data structure for all types, and casting to/from void pointers, so far as I can see, necessitates an indirection that would be avoided by an implementation specialized for the element type. Option 2 doesn't require any extra tools, but it feels somewhat clunky, and could give bad compiler errors when used improperly. Option 3 could give better compiler error messages than option 2, as the specialized data structure code would reside in expanded form that could be opened in an editor and inspected by the programmer (as opposed to code generated by preprocessor macros). However, this option is the most heavyweight, a sort of "poor-man's templates". I have used this approach before, using a simple sed script to specialize a "templated" version of some C code. I would like to program my future "low-level" projects in C rather than C++, but have been frightened by the thought of rewriting common data structures for each specific type. What experience do people have with this issue? Are there good libraries of generic data structures and algorithms in C that do not go with Option 1 (i.e. casting to and from void pointers, which sacrifices type safety and adds a level of indirection)?

  Read the article

• Page URL and database organization.

  - by shurik2533

  I want that its name would be the page address. For example, if page has heading "Some Page", than its address should be http://somesite/some_page/. "some_page"-name generated by system automatically. "some_page" - is the unique identifier of page. The problem in that the user in the future can enter a name which already exists that will cause an error. It is necessary to find an optimum variant of the decision of a problem for great volumes of the data. I have solved a problem as follows: The page identifier in a database is the name of page and a suffix which is by default equal to zero. At page addition there is a check on existence. If such page does not exist, the suffix is equal 0 and its name is "some_page", if page is exist, than - search for the maximum number of a suffix and suffix=suffix+1 and page name become "some_page_1". For this I create in a database the compound key from fields "suffix" and "pageName": Table Pages suffix|pageName |pageTitle 0 |some_page |Some Page 1 |some_page |Some Page 0 |other_page|Other Page Addition of pages occurs through stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE addPage (pageNameVal VARCHAR(100), pageTitleVal VARCHAR(100)) BEGIN DECLARE v INT DEFAULT 0; SELECT MAX(suffix) FROM pages WHERE pageName=pageNameVal INTO v; IF v >= 0 THEN SET v = v + 1; ELSE SET v = 0; END IF; INSERT INTO pages (suffix, pageName) VALUES (pageNameVal, v, pageTitleVal); END; Whether there are more the best decisions?

  Read the article

• How can I tell when the Text of a System.Windows.Forms.GroupBox wraps to the next line?

  - by fre0n

  I'm creating a GroupBox at runtime and setting its Text property. Usually, the text is only on one line, but sometimes it wraps. The problem is that the controls contained in the GroupBox cover up the GroupBox's text. What I'd like to do is determine if and when the text wraps. Specifically, I'd like to determine how much extra height the wrapped text takes up as compared to a single line. That way, I can reposition the GroupBox's controls and adjust its height. Initially, I thought I'd do this by calling the GroupBox's CreateGraphics() method, and using the Graphics to measure the string. Something like this: private void SetGroupBoxText(GroupBox grp, string text) { const int somePadding = 10; Graphics g = grp.CreateGraphics(); SizeF textSize = g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font); if (textSize.Width > (grp.Width - somePadding)) { // Adjust height, etc. } } The problem is that the size generated by g.MeasureString(text, grp.Font) doesn't seem to be accurate. I determined that it wasn't accurate by putting enough of a single character to cause a wrap, then measuring the resulting string. For example, it took 86 pipes (|) to until a wrap happened. When I measured that string, its width was ~253. And it took 16 capital W's to force a wrap - its string had a width of ~164. These were the two extremes that I tested. My GroupBox's width was 189. (a's took 29 and had a width of ~180, O's took 22 and had a width of ~189) Does anyone have any ideas? (hacks, WinAPI, etc. are welcome solutions)

  Read the article

• Is it possible to create multi-tiered WHERE statements in mySQL

  - by Brendan

  I'm currently developing a program that will generate reports based upon lead data. My issue is that I'm running 3 queries for something that I would like to only have to run one query for. For instance, I want to gather data for leads generated in the past day submission_date > (NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY) and I would like to find out how many total leads there were, and how many sold leads there were in that timeframe. (sold=1 / sold=0). The issue comes with the fact that this query is currently being done with 2 queries, one with WHEREsold= 1 and one with WHEREsold= 0. This is all well and good, but when I want to generate this data for the past day,week,month,year,and all time I will have to run 10 queries to obtain this data. I feel like there HAS to be a more efficient way of doing this. I know I can create a mySQL function for this, but I don't see how this could solve the problem. Thanks!!

  Read the article

• Rails: RESTful Find, Initialize, or Create

  - by Andrew

  I have an app that has Cities in it. I'm looking for some suggestions on how to RESTfully structure a controller so that I can lookup, initialize, and create city records via AJAX requests. For instance: Given a text field city_name A user enters the name of a City, like "Paris, France" The app checks this location to see if there is such a city in the database already If there is, it returns the city object If there is not, it returns a new record initialized with the name "Paris" and the country "France", and prompts the user to confirm they want to add this city to the database If the user says "Yes" the record is saved. If not the record is discarded and the form is cleared. Now, my first approach was to change the Create action to use find_or_create, so that an AJAX post to cities_path would result in either returning the existing city or creating it and returning it. That works ok... However, it would be better to setup controller actions that would take a string input, find , or else initialize and return, then only create if the user confirms the generated record is correct. The ideal scenario would put this all in one action so AJAX request can go to that url, the server responds with JSON objects, and javascript can handle things from there. I'd like to keep all the user-interaction logic client side, and also minimize the number of requests it takes to achieve this. Any suggestions on the cleanest, most RESTful way to accomplish this?

  Read the article

• nServiceBus registering subscribers but subscribers not receiving messages

  - by Rob Ellis

  My subscriber queue isn't picking up messages. The only unusual aspect to this is that the publisher is receiving messages which are generated from a website (and then a class library) which are then WCF'd to the publisher who publishes on behalf of the website/class library. If I remove the publisher's <add Messages=""> then I get an error saying the publisher doesn't know where to route the messages. Help! I've almost cut'n'pasted the WcfIntegration and PubSub samples, so I don't know why it isn't working! PUBLISHER: <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_InputQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig> SUBSCRIBER: <!-- SUBSCRIBER --> <MsmqTransportConfig InputQueue="RSApp_SubscriberQueue" ErrorQueue="error" NumberOfWorkerThreads="1" MaxRetries="5" /> <UnicastBusConfig DistributorControlAddress="" DistributorDataAddress="" ForwardReceivedMessagesTo=""> <MessageEndpointMappings> <add Messages="Messages" Endpoint="RSApp_InputQueue" /> </MessageEndpointMappings> </UnicastBusConfig>

  Read the article

• .Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

  - by RobV

  I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

  Read the article

• MySQL PHP | "SELECT FROM table" using "alphanumeric"-UUID. Speed vs. Indexed Integer / Indexed Char

  - by dropson

  At the moment, I select rows from 'table01' using: SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE UUID = 'whatever'; The UUID column is a unique index. I know this isn't the fastest way to select data from the database, but the UUID is the only row-identifier that is available to the front-end. Since I have to select by UUID, and not ID, I need to know what of these two options I should go for, if say the table consists of 100'000 rows. What speed differences would I look at, and would the index for the UUID grow to large, and lag the DB? Get the ID before doing the "big" select 1. $id = "SELECT ID FROM table01 WHERE UUID = '{alphanumeric character}'"; 2. $rows = SELECT * FROM table01 WHERE ID = $id; Or keep it the way it is now, using the UUID. 1. SELECT FROM table01 WHERE UUID '{alphanumeric character}'; Side note: All new rows are created by checking if the system generated uniqueid exists before trying to insert a new row. Keeping the column always unique. The "example" table. CREATE TABLE Table01 ( ID int NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, UUID char(15), name varchar(100), url varchar(255), `date` datetime ) ENGINE = InnoDB; CREATE UNIQUE INDEX UUID ON Table01 (UUID);

  Read the article

• 2-column table with two foreign keys. Performance/design question.

  - by Emanuel

  Hello everyone! I recently ran into a quite complex problem and after looking around a lot I couldn't find a solution to it. I've found answers to my questions many times before on stackoverflow.com, so I decided to post here. So I'm making a user/group managment system for a web-based project, and I'm storing all related data into a postgreSQL database. This system relies on three tables: USERS GROUPS GROUP_USERS The two first tables simply define all the users and all the groups on the site, and the last table, GROUP_USERS, stores the groups every user is part of. It only has two columns: USER_ID GROUP_ID Since every user can be a member of several groups, I decided to make a separate table for this purpose, rather than storing a comma separated column in the USERS-table. Now, both columns are foreign keys, and I want to make them both primary keys as well, this since each combination of USER_ID and GROUP_ID has to be unique, and if I give them the constraint UNIQUE pgAdmin tells me that each table should have at least one Primary key. But now I am stuck with what seems to be a lot of indexes and relations to a very small table only containing numbers. In the end, I want this table to be as fast as possible, even if containing tens of thousands of rows. Size on disk shouldn't be a problem since its just all numbers anyway, but it feels quite stupid to have a full-sized index refering to a smaller table. Should I stick with my current solution, store comma-separated values in a column in the USERS-table or is there any other solution I should be aware of. PS. I don't want to use an array-column, even if they are supported by postgreSQL. I want to be as generic as possible so I can switch database later on, if necessary. EDIT: I other words, will using a compound primary key and two foreign keys in one table with only two columns have a negative impact on performance rather than the opposite due to the size of the generated index? Thank you!

  Read the article

• html in do_GET() method of a simple Python webserver

  - by Meeri_Peeri

  I am relatively new to Python but have been doing a lot of different things with it recently and I am liking it a lot. However, I ran into trouble/block with the following code. import http.server import socketserver import glob import random class Server(http.server.SimpleHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): self.send_response(200, 'OK') self.send_header('Content-type', 'html') self.end_headers() self.wfile.write(bytes("<html> <head><title> Hello World </title> </head> <body>", 'UTF-8')) images = glob.glob('*.jpg') rand = random.randint(0,len(images)-1) imagestring = "<img src = \"" + images[rand] + "\" height = 1028 width = 786 align = \"right\"/> </body> </html>" self.wfile.write(bytes(imagestring, 'UTF-8')) def serve_forever(port): socketserver.TCPServer(('', port), Server).serve_forever() if __name__ == "__main__": Server.serve_forever(8000) What I am trying to do here is grab a random image from multiple images in the directory and add it into the response to a web request. The code works fine but when I access the server via browser, the image is not displayed. The html of the page is as intended though. The permissions on the files are 755. Also I tried to create an index.html file in the do_GET method. That didn't work either. I mean the index.html was generated fine, but the response in the browser this time did not show anything (not even the hello world in the title). Am I missing anything very simple here? I was thinking should I overload the handle_request of the underlying SocketServer.BaseServer as the documentation says you should never override BaseHTTPServer's handle() method and should rather override the corresponding do_* method?

  Read the article

• Processing forms that generate many rows in DB

  - by Zack

  I'm wondering what the best approach to take here is. I've got a form that people use to register for a class and a lot of times the manager of a company will register multiple people for the class at the same time. Presently, they'd have to go through the registration process multiple times and resubmit the form once for every person they want to register. What I want to do is give the user a form that has a single <input/> for one person to register with, along with all the other fields they'll need to fill out (Email, phone number, etc); if they want to add more people, they'll be able to press a button and a new <input/> will be generated. This part I know how to do, but I'm including it to best describe what I'm aiming to do. The part I don't know how to approach is processing that data the form submits, I need some way of making a new row in the Registrant table for every <input/> that's added and include the same contact information (phone, email, etc) as the first row with that row. For the record, I'm using the Django framework for my back-end code. What's the best approach here? Should it just POST the form x times for x people, or is there a less "brute force" way of handling this?

  Read the article

• How to run an async task afor every x mins in android?

  - by Shan

  how to run the async task at specific time? (I want to run it every 2 mins) I tried using post delayed but it's not working? tvData.postDelayed(new Runnable(){ @Override public void run() { readWebpage(); }}, 100); In the above code readwebpage is function which calls the async task for me.. Right now below is the method which I am using public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { readwebapage(); } public void readWebpage() { DownloadWebPageTask task = new DownloadWebPageTask(); task.execute("http://www.google.com"); } private class DownloadWebPageTask extends AsyncTask<String, Void, String> { @Override protected String doInBackground(String... urls) { String response1 = ""; response1=read(); //read is my another function which does the real work response1=read(); super.onPostExecute(response1); return response1; } protected void onPostExecute(String result) { try { Thread.sleep(100); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } TextView tvData = (TextView) findViewById(R.id.TextView01); tvData.setText(result); DownloadWebPageTask task = new DownloadWebPageTask(); task.execute(new String[] { "http://www.google.com" }); } } This is what I my code is and it works perfectly fine but the big problem I drains my battery?

  Read the article

• asp.net gridview bind dateformat not working with update

  - by Brabbeldas

  I have a GridView with a TemplateField column which shows a DateTime from a DataSource. <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Start Date"> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDateStart" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'</asp:TextBox> </EditItemTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server" Text='<%# Bind("dtDateStart", "{0:dd/MM/yyyy}") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> Displaying the date in the correct format works as it should. Note that the format starts with DAY followed by MONTH. When I switch to edit mode, change the date in the TextBox to '31-01-2013' and press the GridView's update-link i get an error: Cannot convert value of parameter 'dtDateStart' from 'System.String' to 'System.DateTime' The error is generated by the GridView not my own code. It happens before the UpdateMethod of my DataSource is called. When i type '01-31-2012' the data is processed correctly and the value is updated into the database. Somehow when the date is displayed it uses format dd-MM-yyyy (just as I need it to) But when it reads the new value form the TextBox it uses MM-dd-yyyy Can somebody please help me?

  Read the article

• DIV inside TD to make it appear correctly

  - by Daniel Svensson

  Hi, I have a <table> generated from code-behind and now facing a problem. In one of the TD i need to have a DIV that is setup with JQuery so that when i click a link the DIV slideToggles. Now i need the TD belonging to that TR not to expand the TR. To solve this i have used an old trick that is to place the JQuery DIV inside another surrounding DIV with height 1px and make the TR not expanding with the heigth of the DIV that slides out. In IE the sliding DIV is partially under the table and in Firefox the DIV appears over the table but it's trasparent, the text from the data in the table shows thru. I have tried to alter the Z-index in various ways but it's no good. Anyone that has an idea or alternatively solution that has worked for them. HtmlGenericControl containerDiv = new HtmlGenericControl("div"); containerDiv.ID = "containerDiv"; containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Width, "100%"); containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Height, "1px"); containerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.ZIndex, "999"); HtmlGenericControl innerDiv = new HtmlGenericControl("div"); innerDiv.ID = System.Guid.NewGuid().ToString() + "_annualDiv"; inner.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Width, "100%"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.Height, "300px"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.ZIndex, "1000"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderStyle, "solid"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderColor, "Black"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BorderWidth, "1px"); innerDiv.Style.Add(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriterStyle.BackgroundColor, "white"); innerDiv.InnerHtml = "Here is a list of links coming later"; conDiv.Controls.Add(innerDiv);

  Read the article

• Executing a process in windows server 2003 and ii6 from code - permissions error

  - by kurupt_89

  I have a problem executing a process from our testing server. On my localhost using windows XP and iis5.1 I changed the machine.config file to have the line - I then changed the login for iis to log on as local system account and allow server to interact with desktop. This fixed my problem executing a process from code in xp. When using the same method on windows server 2003 (using iis6 isolation mode) the process does not get executed. Here is the code to execute the process (I have tested the inputs to iecapt through the command line and an image is generated) - public static void GenerateImageToDisk(string ieCaptPath, string url, string path, int delay) { url = FixUrl(url); ieCaptPath = FixPath(ieCaptPath); string arguments = @"--url=""{0}"" --out=""{1}"" --min-width=0 --delay={2}"; arguments = string.Format(arguments, url, path, delay); ProcessStartInfo ieCaptProcessStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo(ieCaptPath + "IECapt.exe"); ieCaptProcessStartInfo.RedirectStandardOutput = true; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.UseShellExecute = false; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.Arguments = arguments; ieCaptProcessStartInfo.WorkingDirectory = ieCaptPath; Process ieCaptProcess = Process.Start(ieCaptProcessStartInfo); ieCaptProcess.WaitForExit(600000); ieCaptProcess.Close(); }

  Read the article

• How do i prevent my code from being stolen?

  - by Calmarius

  What happens exactly when I launch a .NET exe? I know that C# is compiled to IL code and I think the generated exe file just a launcher that starts the runtime and passes the IL code to it. But how? And how complex process is it? IL code is embedded in the exe. I think it can be executed from the memory without writing it to the disk while ordinary exe's are not (ok, yes but it is very complicated). My final aim is extracting the IL code and write my own encrypted launcher to prevent scriptkiddies to open my code in Reflector and just steal all my classes easily. Well I can't prevent reverse engineering completely. If they are able to inspect the memory and catch the moment when I'm passing the pure IL to the runtime then it won't matter if it is a .net exe or not, is it? I know there are several obfuscator tools but I don't want to mess up the IL code itself. EDIT: so it seems it isn't worth trying what I wanted. They will crack it anyway... So I will look for an obfuscation tool. And yes my friends said too that it is enough to rename all symbols to a meaningless name. And reverse engineering won't be so easy after all.

  Read the article

• Use jquery ':contains' to find specific javascript within a span

  - by Rob

  This is my first time here, I hope that this is clear. So i will have code similar to this this. <span class="mediaSource ui-draggable" id="purchsePlay7915504"> <a href="" onclick="return popup_window(this, 'MediaView', 850, 680)" class="control" enter code hereid="GenericLink"></a> <img id="Any_71" alt="Media Source" src="images/9672web.gif" class="mediaStationIcons mediaWin"/> <img class="player" alt="Media Source" src="images/playmedia.gif" style="display: none;"/> </span> The href portion is generated on the backend, and I have no access to it. I need to modify some existing jquery code to do something based on what the 'onclick' function is(there are different ones e.g. popup_window1,popup_window2 etc.) . I tried something like this: $('.segmentLeft span.mediaSource').click(function(){ if ($('span:contains("popup_window")').length > 0) { do something } }); but it does not seem to work.

  Read the article

• How do I find the highest level TR that contains a specific ID nested in a table

  - by Mykroft

  I have some HTML that looks like this (NOTE: I know this code isn't great but I didn't design it originally and some of it is auto generated): <table id="tab1"> <tr> <td><span>Some text</span></td> <td><span>more text</span></td> <td><input type="text" id="inp1" onclick="DoSomething(this);" /></td> </tr> <tr> <td><span>Some text</span></td> <td><span>more text</span></td> <td><table id="tab2"> <tr><td><input type="radio" id="inp2" onclick="DoSomething(this);" /><span>item</span></td></tr> </table></td> </tr> </table> All of that is embedded in a table which is also embedded in a table and so on. In the DoSomething(this) function I want to retrieve the TR underneath the table tab1. I'm having trouble figuring out the jquery necessary for this. Currently I'm doing something like this: function DoSomething(control) { var parentTab = '<%=tab1.ClientID %>'; var tr = $('#' + parentTab + ' > tbody > tr').has('#' + $(control).attr('id')).get(0); } This seems really messy but works. Is there a cleaner way to do this? If it helps the input inside the table will always be a radio button and a radio button will never appear outside of a sub table. Ideally I'd like to do this without having to know the id of tab1 but that seems impossible.

  Read the article

• Automating Excel through the PIA makes VBA go squiffy.

  - by Jon Artus

  I have absolutely no idea how to start diagnosing this, and just wondered if anyone had any suggestions. I'm generating an Excel spreadsheet by calling some Macros from a C# application, and during the generation process it somehow breaks. I've got a VBA class containing all of my logging/error-handling logic, which I instantiate using a singleton-esque accessor, shown here: Private mcAppFramework As csys_ApplicationFramework Public Function AppFramework() As csys_ApplicationFramework If mcAppFramework Is Nothing Then Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework Call mcAppFramework.bInitialise End If Set AppFramework = mcAppFramework End Function The above code works fine before I've generated the spreadsheet, but afterwards fails. The problem seems to be the following line; Set mcAppFramework = New csys_ApplicationFramework which I've never seen fail before. If I add a watch to the variable being assigned here, the type shows as csys_ApplicationFramework/wksFoo, where wksFoo is a random worksheet in the same workbook. What seems to be happening is that while the variable is of the right type, rather than filling that slot with a new instance of my framework class, it's making it point to an existing worksheet instead, the equivalent of Set mcAppFramework = wksFoo which is a compiler error, as one might expect. Even more bizarrely, if I put a breakpoint on the offending line, edit the line, and then resume execution, it works. For example, I delete the word 'New' move off the line, move back, re-type 'New' and resume execution. This somehow 'fixes' the workbook and it works happily ever after, with the type of the variable in my watch window showing as csys_ApplicationFramework/csys_ApplicationFramework as I'd expect. This implies that manipulating the workbook through the PIA is somehow breaking it temporarily. All I'm doing in the PIA is opening the workbook, calling several macros using Excel.Application.Run(), and saving it again. I can post a few more details if anyone thinks that it's relevant. I don't know how VBA creates objects behind the scenes or how to debug this. I also don't know how the way the code executes can change without the code itself changing. As previously mentioned, VBA has frankly gone a bit squiffy on me... Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Sync data between a windows desktop app and windows mobile client app

  - by Chris W

  I need to knock up a very quick prototype/proof of concept application to demo to someone within the next couple of days so I've minimal time to research this as fully as I normally would. The set-up is a very simple database application running on a laptop - will only ever be a single user updating a couple of tables so I was thinking of knocking up a basic Win Forms app against SQL Compact. Visual Studio's auto generated data grid edit screens will be fine with a little customisation. The second aspect is to then add a windows mobile client application that can pull data from both tables stored on the laptop, edit some data and insert some extra rows before sending the changes back to the laptop copy of the database. I've not done any WinMo development so what's the best approach for me to look at. Is it easy enough to sync data between the two databases when the WinMo device is connected to the laptop with USB? Most of the samples I've looked at so far seem to be syncing SQL Compact with SQL Standard using IIS which seems a bit overkill. The volumes of data to be synced are so small that I can easily write some manual sync code if it's easy for me to query/update the Compact DB from the laptop application when the device is connected.

  Read the article

• EF 4.0 Guid or Int as A primary Key

  - by bigb

  I am Implementing custom ASPNetMembership using EF 4.0 Is there any reason why i should use Guid as a primary key in User tables? As far as i know Int as a PK on SQL Server more performanced than strings. And Int is easier to iterate. Also, for security purpose if i need to pass this it id somewhere in url i may encrypt it somehow and pass it like a strings with no probs. But if i want to use auto generated Guid on SQL Server side using EF 4.0 i need to do this trick http://leedumond.com/blog/using-a-guid-as-an-entitykey-in-entity-framework-4/ I can't see any cases why i should use Guid as PK, may be only one if system going to have millions ans millions users, but also, theoretically, Guid could be duplicated sometime isn't so? Anyway Int32 size is 2,147.483.647 it is pretty much even for very-very big system, but if this number is still not enough I may go with Int64, in that cases I may have 9,223.372.036.854.775.807 rows. Pretty much huh? From another hand, M$ using Guids as PK in their ASPNetMembership implementation. [aspnetdb].[aspnet_Users] - PK UserId Type uniqueidentifier, should be some reasons/explanation why the did it?! May be some one has any ideas/experience about that?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416  | Next Page >