Search Results

Search found 6342 results on 254 pages for 'behavior'.

Page 41/254 | < Previous Page | 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48  | Next Page >

• Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

  - by Channel72

  I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

  Read the article

• Calling a method on an unitialized object (null pointer)

  - by Florin

  What is the normal behavior in Objective-C if you call a method on an object (pointer) that is nil (maybe because someone forgot to initialize it)? Shouldn't it generate some kind of an error (segmentation fault, null pointer exception...)? If this is normal behavior, is there a way of changing this behavior (by configuring the compiler) so that the program raises some kind of error / exception at runtime? To make it more clear what I am talking about, here's an example. Having this class: @interface Person : NSObject { NSString *name; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *name; - (void)sayHi; @end with this implementation: @implementation Person @synthesize name; - (void)dealloc { [name release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void)sayHi { NSLog(@"Hello"); NSLog(@"My name is %@.", name); } @end Somewhere in the program I do this: Person *person = nil; //person = [[Person alloc] init]; // let's say I comment this line person.name = @"Mike"; // shouldn't I get an error here? [person sayHi]; // and here [person release]; // and here

  Read the article

• WCF throttling and emptying the listenBacklog quickly

  - by user1161625

  I'm sort of a WCF newbie (inheriting tasks from someone) and I'm trying to better throttle my application. We have a service that sends print jobs to the Windows print queue and it seems that rather than dumping all of the jobs into the queue it holds on to them in the listenBacklog and slowly releases them to the Windows print queue. Here is my throttling behavior: <behavior name="throttling"> <serviceThrottling maxConcurrentCalls="144" maxConcurrentSessions="1168" /> <serviceDebug httpHelpPageEnabled="true" includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true"/> </behavior> I'm using a custom binding for this service also which is here: <customBinding> <binding name="oneWayPrintBinding" receiveTimeout="00:30:00"> <reliableSession maxPendingChannels="16" inactivityTimeout="01:30:00" /> <binaryMessageEncoding> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" /> </binaryMessageEncoding> <tcpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="67108864" listenBacklog="1024" /> </binding> </customBinding> Any recommendations would be very helpful. Thank you! -Jim

  Read the article

• iPhone: detect "touch-and-drag" gesture from UIBarButtonItem?

  - by Greg Maletic

  I have an "add" button that's represented by a UIBarButtonItem. Hitting the "add" button adds an object into a list that represents a moment in time. By default, that time is "now"...but I'd like to be able to use dragging behavior to let the user specify earlier times for the object. Here's the behavior I want to implement: If the user touches on the UIBarButtonItem and lets go quickly, an object is added to the list that represents "now." If the user touches on the UIBarButtonItem and drags, a little UI pops up that shows the time that the distance of their drag represents. The further they drag, the further back in time their touch will represent. When they let go, the object representing an earlier time will get added to the list. (Though the description of the behavior is complicated, I'm convinced this will be pretty intuitive for users of the app.) I haven't implemented code for anything but the most simple touches in the past, and I'm at a loss as to the best way to try this. Does anyone have any suggestions, or could point me towards some sample code that implements something like this? Thanks very much.

  Read the article

• What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

  - by R..

  mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

  Read the article

• Approaches to replace cursor in pure AS3 / Flare project?

  - by peteorpeter

  Hi there good lookin, I've got a pure AS3 (no Flex) project that uses Flare to display and interact with a data visualization. I just implemented some panning behavior, so you can click and drag the visualization around, and now I'd like to give the user a visual indicator that this is possible, by switching the arrow cursor with a nice grabby-looking hand icon. The user can click and drag at any time except when the mouse is over a clickable node (at which time the cursor swaps to a pointer - this behavior is already in place). So... 1) Do I need to create my own custom bitmap/sprite or is there a palette of built-in cursors I can use? (I'm not using Flex.) 2) Is there a way to simply replace the default arrow with the pan cursor project-wide, or do I need to attach the swapping to mouse events on display objects? Can I use the stage object to make this behavior apply everywhere? 3) How do I perform the swap? Do I use the Cursor object directly or do I need to get involved with the CursorManager? Any guidance, pseudo-code, or words of wisdom is greatly appreciated!

  Read the article

• why does entity framework+mysql provider enumeration returns partial results with no exceptions

  - by Freddy Rios

  I'm trying to make sense of a situation I have using entity framework on .net 3.5 sp1 + MySQL 6.1.2.0 as the provider. It involves the following code: Response.Write("Products: " + plist.Count() + "<br />"); var total = 0; foreach (var p in plist) { //... some actions total++; //... other actions } Response.Write("Total Products Checked: " + total + "<br />"); Basically the total products is varying on each run, and it isn't matching the full total in plist. Its varies widely, from ~ 1/5th to half. There isn't any control flow code inside the foreach i.e. no break, continue, try/catch, conditions around total++, anything that could affect the count. As confirmation, there are other totals captured inside the loop related to the actions, and those match the lower and higher total runs. I don't find any reason to the above, other than something in entity framework or the mysql provider that causes it to end the foreach when retrieving an item. The body of the foreach can have some good variation in time, as the actions involve file & network access, my best shot at the time is that when the .net code takes beyond certain threshold there is some type of timeout in the underlying framework/provider and instead of causing an exception it is silently reporting no more items for enumeration. Can anyone give some light in the above scenario and/or confirm if the entity framework/mysql provider has the above behavior? Update: I can't reproduce the behavior by using Thread.Sleep in a simple foreach in a test project, not sure where else to look for this weird behavior :(.

  Read the article

• Class initialization and synchronized class method

  - by nybon

  Hi there, In my application, there is a class like below: public class Client { public synchronized static print() { System.out.println("hello"); } static { doSomething(); // which will take some time to complete } } This class will be used in a multi thread environment, many threads may call the Client.print() method simultaneously. I wonder if there is any chance that thread-1 triggers the class initialization, and before the class initialization complete, thread-2 enters into print method and print out the "hello" string? I see this behavior in a production system (64 bit JVM + Windows 2008R2), however, I cannot reproduce this behavior with a simple program in any environments. In Java language spec, section 12.4.1 (http://java.sun.com/docs/books/jls/second_edition/html/execution.doc.html), it says: A class or interface type T will be initialized immediately before the first occurrence of any one of the following: T is a class and an instance of T is created. T is a class and a static method declared by T is invoked. A static field declared by T is assigned. A static field declared by T is used and the reference to the field is not a compile-time constant (§15.28). References to compile-time constants must be resolved at compile time to a copy of the compile-time constant value, so uses of such a field never cause initialization. According to this paragraph, the class initialization will take place before the invocation of the static method, however, it is not clear if the class initialization need to be completed before the invocation of the static method. JVM should mandate the completion of class initialization before entering its static method according to my intuition, and some of my experiment supports my guess. However, I did see the opposite behavior in another environment. Can someone shed me some light on this? Any help is appreciated, thanks.

  Read the article

• SharePoint Permissions: User with Contribute change cannot change a list item they did not create?

  - by antik

  I've build a custom SharePoint list that programatically adjusts permissions per list item. This part of the app works by clearing all permissions in the list item and adding permissions to the folks I want to grant Read or Contribute permission to. I believe this part of the application to be correct: selecting Manage Permissions on a list item I can see the appropriate users and roles for the list items in question in the Permissions list. However, I was surprised to realize that only the user who submitted a list item can successfully edit the item. I'll describe what I'm seeing with the following two users: UserA and UserB. UserA submitted the list item. UserB is trying to edit the same list item after the permissions have been assigned (either manually or programatically). UserB cannot edit the list item: UserB can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserB can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserB makes changes and presses submit, UserB encounters the out of box SharePoint "Access Denied" error page. The event handler for the list item update does not fire. Manually elevating UserB's permission to include Full Control does not affect the behavior above. By contrast, UserA encounters far more predictable behavior: UserA can see the Edit Item link on the item toolbar. UserA can click the link and will see EditForm.aspx. When UserA submits, the changes are persisted and the user is redirected back to the item list. Event Handlers fire after UserA submits. This leaves me with several questions: Is this an expected behavior for SharePoint that I managed to overlook? What can I do to allow UserB to modify the list item?

  Read the article

• Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

  - by Dave

  I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

  Read the article

• `this` in global scope in ECMAScript 6

  - by Nathan Wall

  I've tried looking in the ES6 draft myself, but I'm not sure where to look: Can someone tell me if this in ES6 necessarily refers to the global object? Will this object have same members as the global scope? If you could answer for ES5 that would be helpful as well. I know this in global scope refers to the global object in the browser and in most other ES environments, like Node. I just want to know if that's the defined behavior by the spec or if that's extended behavior that implementers have added (and if this behavior will continue in ES6 implementations). In addition, is the global object always the same thing as the global scope? Or are there distinctions? Update - Why I want to know: I am basically trying to figure out how to get the global object reliably in ES5 & 6. I can't rely on window because that's specific to the browser, nor can I rely on global because that's specific to environments like Node. I know this in Node can refer to module in module scope, but I think it still refers to global in global scope. I want a cross-environment ES5 & 6 compliant way to get the global object (if possible). It seems like in all the environments I know of this in global scope does that, but I want to know if it's part of the actual spec (and so reliable across any environment that I may not be familiar with). I also need to know if the global scope and the global object are the same thing by the spec. In other words will all variables in global scope be the same as globalobject.variable_name?

  Read the article

• Inserting Row in Table inside Form tag autosubmitting in firefox/chrome

  - by user1861489

  I have a form that will have dynamic elements inserted with javascript and am experiencing some strange behavior. When I click the button to add another element to the table in the form, it adds the element but seems to to a form post immediately (without intending to submit the form yet) I have created a simplified example of the page that has the same behavior. the first table element is created on page load and subsequent elements are added when clicking on the button. this form works successfully in IE. does anyone have an idea of how to prevent this behavior? here is the code sample. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Test Creating Form</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <style type="text/css"> td{font-family:verdana;} </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var counter = 0; function makeTitle(title){ if(counter){ title += " " + counter; } counter++; var tbl = document.getElementById('tbl'); var tr = tbl.insertRow(-1) var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.innerHTML = title; } function load1(){ makeTitle('Primary Specimen'); } </script> </head> <body onload="load1();"> <form action="formtest.htm" method="post" name="testForm" id="testForm"> <table id="tbl" border="1"></table> <button onclick="makeTitle('Alternate Specimen')" id="clone" >Add Another Specimen</button> </form> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Why doesn't Firefox redownload images already on a page?

  - by vvo

  Hello, i just read this article : https://developer.mozilla.org/en/HTTP_Caching_FAQ There's a firefox behavior (and some other browsers i guess) i'd like to understand : if i take any webpage and try to insert the same image multiple times in javascript, the image is only downloaded ONCE even if i specifiy all needed headers to say "do no ever use cache". (see article) I know there are workarounds (like addind query strings to end of urls etc) but why do firefox act like that, if i say that an image do not have to be cached, why is the image still taken from cache when i try to re-insert it ? Plus, what cache is used for this ? (I guess it's the memory cache) Is this behavior the same for dynamic inclusion for example ? ANSWSER IS NO :) I just tested it and the same headers for a js script will make firefox redownload it each time you append the script to the DOM. PS: I know you're wondering WHY i need to do that (appending same image multiple times and force to redownload but this is the way our app works) thank you The good answer is : firefox will store images for the current page load in the memory cache even if you specify he doesnt have to cache them. You can't change this behavior but this is odd because it's not the same for javascript files for example Could someone explain or link to a document describing how firefox cache WORKS?

  Read the article

• Can a member struct be zero-init from the constructor initializer list without calling memset?

  - by selbie

  Let's say I have the following structure declaration (simple struct with no constructor). struct Foo { int x; int y; int z; char szData[DATA_SIZE]; }; Now let's say this struct is a member of a C++ class as follows: class CFoobar { Foo _foo; public: CFoobar(); }; If I declare CFoobar's constructor as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() { printf("_foo = {%d, %d, %d}\n", _foo.x, _foo.y,_foo.z); for (int x = 0; x < 100; x++) printf("%d\n", _foo.szData[x]); } As you would expect, when CFoobar's constructor runs, garbage data gets printed out Obviously, the easy fix is to memset or ZeroMemory &_foo. It's what I've always done... However, I did notice that if add _foo to the constructor's initialization list with no parameters as follows: CFoobar::CFoobar() : _foo() { That this appears to zero-out the member variables of _foo. At least that was the case with g++ on linux. Now here's my question: Is this standard C++, or is this compiler specific behavior? If it's standard behavior, can someone quote me a reference from an official source? Any "gotchas" in regards to implicit zero-init behavior with more complicated structs and classes?

  Read the article

• Maximize/Minimize is causing Close Button to be re-enabled after disabling it -- Why?

  - by Brainsick

  I have used P/Invoke to call GetSystemMenu and EnableMenuItem (win32api) to disable the close functionality. However, after minimizing or maximizing my Windows Forms application the button is re-enabled. Obviously minimizing or maximizing is causing the behavior, but how? I'm not sure where to look to prevent this behavior. Should I be preventing the maximize and minimize behavior or is there something particularly wrong with the way in which I P/Invoked the calls? Once the application (main form) has loaded, I call the static method from a button click. class PInvoke { // P/Invoke signatures [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr GetSystemMenu(IntPtr hWnd, bool bRevert); [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern bool EnableMenuItem(IntPtr hMenu, uint uIDEnableItem, uint uEnable); // SysCommand (WM_SYSCOMMAND) constant internal const UInt32 SC_CLOSE = 0xF060; // Constants used with Add/Check/EnableMenuItem internal const UInt32 MF_BYCOMMAND = 0x00000000; internal const UInt32 MF_ENABLED = 0x00000000; internal const UInt32 MF_GRAYED = 0x00000001; internal const UInt32 MF_DISABLED = 0x00000002; /// <summary> /// Sets the state of the Close (X) button and the System Menu close functionality. /// </summary> /// <param name="window">Window or Form</param> /// <param name="bEnabled">Enabled state</param> public static void EnableCloseButton(IWin32Window window, bool bEnabled) { IntPtr hSystemMenu = GetSystemMenu(window.Handle, false); EnableMenuItem(hSystemMenu, SC_CLOSE, MF_BYCOMMAND | (bEnabled ? MF_ENABLED : MF_GRAYED)); } }

  Read the article

• C# form - checkboxes do not respond to plus/minus keys - easy workaround?

  - by Scott

  On forms created with pre dotNET VB and C++ (MFC), a checkbox control responded to the plus/minus key without custom programming. When focus was on the checbox control, pressing PLUS would check the box, no matter what the previous state (checked/unchecked), while pressing MINUS would uncheck it, no matter the previous state. C# winform checkboxes do not seem to exhibit this behavior. Said behavior was very, very handy for automation, whereby the automating program would set focus to a checkbox control and issue a PLUS or MINUS to check or uncheck it. Without this capability, that cannot be done, as the automation program (at least the one I am using) is unable to query the current state of the checkbox (so it can decide whether to issue a SPACE key to toggle the state to the desired one). I've gone over the properties of a checkbox in the Visual Studio 2008 IDE and could not find anything that would restore/enable response to PLUS/MINUS. Since I am in control of the sourcecode for the WinForms in question, I could replace all checkbox controls with a custom checkbox control, but blech, I'd like to avoid that - heck, I don't think I could even consider that given the amount of refactoring that would need to be done. So the bottom line is: does anyone know of a way to get this behavior back more easily than a coding change?

  Read the article

• Deleted array value still showing up on foreach loop in AS3 (bug in flash?)

  - by nexus

  It took me many hours to narrow down a problem in some code to this reproducible error, which seems to me like a bug in AVM2. Can anyone shed light on why this is occurring or how to fix it? When the value at index 1 is deleted and a value is subsequently set at index 0, the non-existent (undefined) value at index 1 will now show up in a foreach loop. I have only been able to produce this outcome with index 1 and 0 (not any other n and n-1). Run this code: package { import flash.display.Sprite; public class Main extends Sprite { public function Main():void { var bar : Array = new Array(6); out(bar); //proper behavior trace("bar[1] = 1", bar[1] = 1); out(bar); //proper behavior trace("delete bar[1]", delete bar[1]); out(bar); //proper behavior trace("bar[4] = 4", bar[4] = 4); out(bar); //for each loop will now iterate over the undefined position at index 1 trace("bar[0] = 0", bar[0] = 0); out(bar); trace("bar[3] = 3", bar[3] = 3); out(bar); } private function out(bar:Array):void { trace(bar); for each(var i : * in bar) { trace(i); } } } } It will give this output: ,,,,, bar[1] = 1 1 ,1,,,, 1 delete bar[1] true ,,,,, bar[4] = 4 4 ,,,,4, 4 bar[0] = 0 0 0,,,,4, 0 undefined 4 bar[3] = 3 3 0,,,3,4, 0 undefined 4 3

  Read the article

• Calling a WCF service from another WCF service

  - by ultraman69

  Hi ! I have a WCF service hosted on a windows service on my Server1. It also has IIS on this machine. I call the service from a web app and it works fine. But within this service, I have to call another WCF sevice (also hosted on a windows service) located on Server2. The security credentials are set to "Message" and "Username". I have an error like "SOAP protcol negociation failed". It's a problem with my server certificate public key that doesn't seem to be recognise. However, if I call the service on the Server2 from Server1 in a console app, it works fine. I followed this tutorial to set up my certificates : http://www.codeproject.com/KB/WCF/wcf_certificates.aspx Here's the config file from my service on Server1 that tries to call the second one : <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ITraitement" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> <client> <endpoint address="http://Server2:8000/servicemodelsamples/service" behaviorConfiguration="myClientBehavior" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="MybindingCon" contract="Microsoft.ServiceModel.Samples.ICalculator" name=""> <identity> <dns value="ODWCertificatServeur" /> </identity> </endpoint> </client> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="MybindingCon"> <security mode="Message"> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="ServiceTraitementBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="myClientBehavior"> <clientCredentials> <clientCertificate findValue="MachineServiceTraitement" x509FindType="FindBySubjectName" storeLocation="LocalMachine" storeName="My" /> <serviceCertificate> <authentication certificateValidationMode="ChainTrust" revocationMode="NoCheck"/> </serviceCertificate> </clientCredentials> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> And here's the config file from the web app that calls the service on Server1 : <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="WSHttpBinding_ITraitement" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" bypassProxyOnLocal="false" transactionFlow="false" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536" messageEncoding="Text" textEncoding="utf-8" useDefaultWebProxy="true" allowCookies="false"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:10:00" enabled="false" /> <security mode="Message"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" proxyCredentialType="None" realm="" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" negotiateServiceCredential="true" algorithmSuite="Default" establishSecurityContext="true" /> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:8020/ServiceTraitementPC" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="WSHttpBinding_ITraitement" contract="ITraitement" name="WSHttpBinding_ITraitement"> </endpoint> </client> Any idea why it works if if I call it in a console app and not from my service ? Maybe it has something to do with the certificateValidationMode="ChainTrust" ?

  Read the article

• Internet Explorer keeps asking for NTLM credentials in Intranet zone

  - by Tomalak

  Long text, sorry for that. I'm trying to be as specific as possible. I'm on Windows 7 and I experience a very frustrating Internet Explorer 8 behavior. I'm in a company LAN with some intranet servers and a proxy for connecting with the outside world. On sites that are clearly recognized as being "Local Intranet" (as indicated in the IE status bar) I keep getting "Windows Security" dialog boxes that ask me to log in. These pages are served off an IIS6 with "Integrated Windows Security" enabled, NTFS permits Everyone:Read on the files themselves. If I enter my Windows credentials, the page loads fine. However, the dialog boxes will be popping up the next time, regardless if I ticked "Remember my credentials" or not. (Credentials are stored in the "Credential Manager" but that does not make any difference as to how often these login boxes appear.) If I click "Cancel", one of two things can happen: Either the page loads with certain resources missing (images, styleheets, etc), or it does not load at all and I get HTTP 401.2 (Unauthorized: Logon Failed Due to Server Configuration). This depends on whether the logon box was triggered by the page itself, or a referenced resource. The behavior appears to be completely erratic, sometimes the pages load smoothly, sometimes one resource triggers a logon message, sometimes it does not. Even simply re-loading the page can result in changed behavior. I'm using WPAD as my proxy detection mechanism. All Intranet hosts do bypass the proxy in the PAC file. I've checked every IE setting I can think of, entered host patterns, individual host names, IP ranges in every thinkable configuration to the "Local Intranet" zone, ticked "Include all sites that bypass the proxy server", you name it. It boils down to "sometimes it just does not work", and slowly I'm losing my mind. ;-) I'm aware that this is related to IE not automatically passing my NTLM credentials to the webserver but asking me instead. Usually this should only happen for NTLM-secured sites that are not recognized as being in the "Intranet" zone. As explained, this is not the case here. Especially since half of a page can load perfectly and without interruption and some page's resources (coming from the same server!) trigger the login message. I've looked at http://support.microsoft.com/kb/303650, which gives the impression of describing the problem, but nothing there seems to work. And frankly, I'm not certain if "manually editing the registry" is the right solution for this kind of problem. I'm not the only person in the world with an IE/intranet/IIS configuration, after all. I'm at a loss, can somebody give me a hint?

  Read the article

• mexTcpBinding in WCF - IMetadataExchange errors

  - by David

  I'm wanting to get a WCF-over-TCP service working. I was having some problems with modifying my own project, so I thought I'd start with the "base" WCF template included in VS2008. Here is the initial WCF App.config and when I run the service the WCF Test Client can work with it fine: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="WcfTcpTest.Service1" behaviorConfiguration="WcfTcpTest.Service1Behavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="http://localhost:8731/Design_Time_Addresses/WcfTcpTest/Service1/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="wsHttpBinding" contract="WcfTcpTest.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfTcpTest.Service1Behavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="True"/> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> This works perfectly, no issues at all. I figured changing it from HTTP to TCP would be trivial: change the bindings to their TCP equivalents and remove the httpGetEnabled serviceMetadata element: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="WcfTcpTest.Service1" behaviorConfiguration="WcfTcpTest.Service1Behavior"> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:1337/Service1/" /> </baseAddresses> </host> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="WcfTcpTest.IService1"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange"/> </service> </services> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="WcfTcpTest.Service1Behavior"> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="True" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> But when I run this I get this error in the WCF Service Host: System.InvalidOperationException: The contract name 'IMetadataExchange' could not be found in the list of contracts implemented by the service Service1. Add a ServiceMetadataBehavior to the configuration file or to the ServiceHost directly to enable support for this contract. I get the feeling that you can't send metadata using TCP, but that's the case why is there a mexTcpBinding option?

  Read the article

• SharePoint threw "Unknown SQL Exception 206 occured." Anyone familiar with this?

  - by dalehhirt

  Our SharePoint instance threw the following errors when attempting to access data through a Content Query Tool: 04/02/2010 10:45:06.12 w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 Windows SharePoint Services Database 5586 Critical Unknown SQL Exception 206 occured. Additional error information from SQL Server is included below. Operand type clash: uniqueidentifier is incompatible with datetime 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25 w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 Office Server Office Server General 900n Critical A runtime exception was detected. Details follow. Message: Operand type clash: uniqueidentifier is incompatible with datetime Techinal Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Operand type clash: uniqueidentifier is incompatible with datetime at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData(... 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25* w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 Office Server Office Server General 900n Critical ...) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlC 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25 w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 8vyd Exception (Watson Reporting Cancelled) System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Operand type clash: uniqueidentifier is incompatible with datetime at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData() at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteRead... 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25* w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 8vyd Exception ...er(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) at Microsoft.SharePoint.Utilities.SqlSession.ExecuteReader(SqlCommand command, ... 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25* w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 8vyd Exception ...CommandBehavior behavior) at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPSqlClient.ExecuteQuery(Boolean& bSucceed) at Microsoft.SharePoint.Library.SPRequestInternalClass.CrossListQuery(String bstrUrl, String bstrXmlWebs, String bstrXmlLists, String bstrXmlQuery, ISP2DSafeArrayWriter pCallback, Object& pvarColumns) at Microsoft.SharePoint.Library.SPRequest.CrossListQuery(String bstrUrl, String bstrXmlWebs, String bstrXmlLists, String bstrXmlQuery, ISP2DSafeArrayWriter pCallback, Object& pvarColumns) at Microsoft.SharePoint.SPWeb.GetSiteData(SPSiteDataQuery query) at Microsoft.SharePoint.Publishing.CachedArea.GetCrossListQuery(SPSiteDataQuery query, SPWeb currentContext) at Microsoft.SharePoint.Publishing.CrossListQueryCache.GetSiteData(CachedArea cachedArea, SPWeb web, SPSiteDataQuery qu... 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25* w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 8vyd Exception ...ery) 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25 w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 78ed Warning Error occured while processing a Content Query Web Part. Performing the following query ' 04/02/2010 10:45:06.25* w3wp.exe (0x062C) 0x1734 CMS Publishing 78ed Warning ...ue" Type="Number"/ The farm is MOSS 2007 with SQL Server 2005 backend. Any ideas are welcomed. Dale

  Read the article

• dhcp-snooping option 82 drops valid dhcp requests on 2610 series Procurve switches

  - by kce

  We are slowly starting to implement dhcp-snooping on our HP ProCurve 2610 series switches, all running the R.11.72 firmware. I'm seeing some strange behavior where dhcp-request or dhcp-renew packets are dropped when originating from "downstream" switches due "untrusted relay information from client". The full error: Received untrusted relay information from client <mac-address> on port <port-number> In more detail we have a 48 port HP2610 (Switch A) and a 24 port HP2610 (Switch B). Switch B is "downstream" of Switch A by virtue of a DSL connection to one of Switch A ports. The dhcp server is connected to Switch A. The relevant bits are as follows: Switch A dhcp-snooping dhcp-snooping authorized-server 192.168.0.254 dhcp-snooping vlan 1 168 interface 25 name "Server" dhcp-snooping trust exit Switch B dhcp-snooping dhcp-snooping authorized-server 192.168.0.254 dhcp-snooping vlan 1 interface Trk1 dhcp-snooping trust exit The switches are set to trust BOTH the port the authorized dhcp server is attached to and its IP address. This is all well and good for the clients attached to Switch A, but the clients attached to Switch B get denied due to the "untrusted relay information" error. This is odd for a few reasons 1) dhcp-relay is not configured on either switch, 2) the Layer-3 network here is flat, same subnet. DHCP packets should not have a modified option 82 attribute. dhcp-relay does appear to be enabled by default however: SWITCH A# show dhcp-relay DHCP Relay Agent : Enabled Option 82 : Disabled Response validation : Disabled Option 82 handle policy : append Remote ID : mac Client Requests Server Responses Valid Dropped Valid Dropped ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- 0 0 0 0 SWITCH B# show dhcp-relay DHCP Relay Agent : Enabled Option 82 : Disabled Response validation : Disabled Option 82 handle policy : append Remote ID : mac Client Requests Server Responses Valid Dropped Valid Dropped ---------- ---------- ---------- ---------- 40156 0 0 0 And interestingly enough the dhcp-relay agent seems very busy on Switch B, but why? As far as I can tell there is no reason why dhcp requests need a relay with this topology. And furthermore I can't tell why the upstream switch is dropping legitimate dhcp requests for untrusted relay information when the relay agent in question (on Switch B) isn't modifying the option 82 attributes anyway. Adding the no dhcp-snooping option 82 on Switch A allows the dhcp traffic from Switch B to be approved by Switch A, by virtue of just turning off that feature. What are the repercussions of not validating option 82 modified dhcp traffic? If I disable option 82 on all my "upstream" switches - will they pass dhcp traffic from any downstream switch regardless of that traffic's legitimacy? This behavior is client operating system agnostic. I see it with both Windows and Linux clients. Our DHCP servers are either Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008 R2 machines. I see this behavior regardless of the DHCP servers' operating system. Can anyone shed some light on what's happening here and give me some recommendations on how I should proceed with configuring the option 82 setting? I feel like i just haven't completely grokked dhcp-relaying and option 82 attributes.

  Read the article

• Howto WCF Service HTTPS Binding and Endpoint Configuration in IIS with Load Balancer?

  - by Mike G

  We have a WCF service that is being hosted on a set of 12 machines. There is a load balancer that is a gateway to these machines. Now the site is setup as SSL; as in a user accesses it through using an URL with https. I know this much, the URL that addresses the site is https, but none of the servers has a https binding or is setup to require SSL. This leads me to believe that the load balancer handles the https and the connection from the balancer to the servers are unencrypted (this takes place behind the firewall so no biggie there). The problem we're having is that when a Silverlight client tries to access a WCF service it is getting a "Not Found" error. I've set up a test site along with our developer machines and have made sure that the bindings and endpoints in the web.config work with the client. It seems to be the case in the production environment that we get this error. Is there anything wrong with the following web.config? Should we be setting up how https is handled in a different manner? We're at a loss on this currently since I've tried every programmatic solution with endpoints and bindings. None of the solutions I have found deal with a load balancer in the manner we're dealing. Web.config service model info: <system.serviceModel> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.CRM.CRMServiceBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> <behavior name="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.AccountAggregation.AccountAggregationBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpsGetEnabled="true" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="false" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="SecureCRMCustomBinding"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpsTransport /> </binding> <binding name="SecureAACustomBinding"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpsTransport /> </binding> </customBinding> <mexHttpsBinding> <binding name="SecureMex" /> </mexHttpsBinding> </bindings> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <!--Defines the services to be used in the application--> <services> <service behaviorConfiguration="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.CRM.CRMServiceBehavior" name="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.CRM.CRMService"> <endpoint address="" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureCRMCustomBinding" contract="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.CRM.CRMService" name="SecureCRMEndpoint" /> <!--This is required in order to be able to use the "Update Service Reference" in the Silverlight application--> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> <service behaviorConfiguration="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.AccountAggregation.AccountAggregationBehavior" name="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.AccountAggregation.AccountAggregation"> <endpoint address="" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureAACustomBinding" contract="TradePMR.OMS.Framework.Services.AccountAggregation.AccountAggregation" name="SecureAAEndpoint" /> <!--This is required in order to be able to use the "Update Service Reference" in the Silverlight application--> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexHttpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> The ServiceReferences.ClientConfig looks like this: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <customBinding> <binding name="StandardAAEndpoint"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> <binding name="SecureAAEndpoint"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpsTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> <binding name="StandardCRMEndpoint"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> <binding name="SecureCRMEndpoint"> <binaryMessageEncoding /> <httpsTransport maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" /> </binding> </customBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="https://Service2.svc" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureAAEndpoint" contract="AccountAggregationService.AccountAggregation" name="SecureAAEndpoint" /> <endpoint address="https://Service1.svc" binding="customBinding" bindingConfiguration="SecureCRMEndpoint" contract="CRMService.CRMService" name="SecureCRMEndpoint" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> (The addresses are of no consequence since those are dynamically built so that they will point to a dev's machine or to the production server)

  Read the article

• Help with Ms Access 2007 Combo boxes

  - by Yaaqov

  What's the most efficient way to "chain" combo/boxes in an Access 2007 form, so that the result of the first affected the contents of the second? I already know how to associate a combo box on a form with a query. Here's a example of my scenario: cmbCarMake Behavior: User starts typing, and list shows all manufacturers in a table starting with those characters (e.g., "Ford") cmbCarModel Behavior: Once cmbCarMake has a selected a Make, this object will limit the possible models the user can search for by only displaying models from that one manufacturer. (e.g., "F-150") Thank you for any examples/links.

  Read the article

• Runas Windows Explorer in Windows 7

  - by nsr81

  Hi All, Having a strange issue with Windows Explorer on Windows 7 Professional. When I try to open it up under different user credentials, I get the following error message: Results are the same whether I try it from the context menu or by using runas /user:DOMAIN\User explorer.exe However, if I open up a command prompt (using runas.exe) the behavior is a bit different: typing in just explorer or explorer.exe results in the same error. typing in explorer C: or explorer /E,... doesn't run anything. I'm dropped right back to the prompt. explorer process doesn't start. Has anyone seen this behavior before? If so, how can I go about changing it. Thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48  | Next Page >