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• How to organize deployment process in Chef-controlled environment?

  - by Alex

  I have a web Linux-based infrastructure which consists of 15 virtual machines and over 50 various services. It is fully controlled by Chef. Most of the services are developed internally. Basically the current deployment process is triggered by a shell script. A build system (a mix of Python and shell scripts) packages the services as .deb files and puts these packages into a repo. It runs apt-get update on all 15 nodes then because the standard Chef apt cookbook only runs apt-get once per day and we definitely do not want to run apt-get update unconditionally on each chef-client wake. The build system restarts chef-client daemons on all 15 nodes finally (we need this step because of pull Chef nature). The current process has a number of drawbacks we want to address. First off, it is asynchronous because the deployment script does not check chef-client logs after restart so we don't even know if the deployment was successful. It does not even wait for Chef clients to complete the cycle. Second, we definitely do not want to force chef-client restarts on all nodes because we usually deploy only a small number of packages. And third, I am not quite sure using chef-client for deployment is legitimate, probably we are just doing it wrong from the start. Please share your thoughts/experience.

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• Is there a way to restrict access to a public method to only a specific class in C#?

  - by Anon

  I have a class A with a public method in C#. I want to allow access to this method to only class B. Is this possible? UPDATE: This is what i'd like to do: public class Category { public int NumberOfInactiveProducts {get;} public IList<Product> Products {get;set;} public void ProcessInactiveProduct() { // do things... NumberOfInactiveProducts++; } } public class Product { public bool Inactive {get;} public Category Category {get;set;} public void SetInactive() { this.Inactive= true; Category.ProcessInactiveProduct(); } } I'd like other programmers to do: var prod = Repository.Get<Product>(id); prod.SetInactive(); I'd like to make sure they don't call ProcessInactiveProduct manually: var prod = Repository.Get<Product>(id); prod.SetInactive(); prod.Category.ProcessInactiveProduct(); I want to allow access of Category.ProcessInactiveProduct to only class Product. Other classes shouldn't be able to call Category.ProcessInactiveProduct.

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• c# delegate and abstract class

  - by BeraCim

  Hi all: I currently have 2 concrete methods in 2 abstract classes. One class contains the current method, while the other contains the legacy method. E.g. // Class #1 public abstract class ClassCurrent<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllRootNodes(int i) { //some code } } // Class #2 public abstract class MyClassLegacy<T> : BaseClass<T> where T : BaseNode, new() { public List<T> GetAllLeafNodes(int j) { //some code } } I want the corresponding method to run in their relative scenarios in the app. I'm planning to write a delegate to handle this. The idea is that I can just call the delegate and write logic in it to handle which method to call depending on which class/project it is called from (at least thats what I think delegates are for and how they are used). However, I have some questions on that topic (after some googling): 1) Is it possible to have a delegate that knows the 2 (or more) methods that reside in different classes? 2) Is it possible to make a delegate that spawns off abstract classes (like from the above code)? (My guess is a no, since delegates create concrete implementation of the passed-in classes) 3) I tried to write a delegate for the above code. But I'm being technically challenged: public delegate List GetAllNodesDelegate(int k); GetAllNodesDelegate del = new GetAllNodesDelegate(ClassCurrent.GetAllRootNodes); I got the following error: An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, property ClassCurrent<BaseNode>.GetAllRootNodes(int) I might have misunderstood something... but if I have to manually declare a delegate at the calling class, AND to pass in the function manually as above, then I'm starting to question whether delegate is a good way to handle my problem. Thanks.

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• GAE Simple Request Handler only run once

  - by Hiro

  Good day! https://developers.google.com/appengine/docs/python/gettingstarted/helloworld this is the hello world that I'm trying to run. I can seeing the Hello, world! Status: 500 message. however it will be turned to a "HTTP Error 500" after I hit the refresh. and... it seems that the appengine only shows me the good result once after I re-save either app.yaml or helloworld.py This is the trace for the good result Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 239, in _LoadHandler raise ImportError('%s has no attribute %s' % (handler, name)) ImportError: <module 'helloworld' from 'D:\work\[GAE] tests\helloworld\helloworld.pyc'> has no attribute app INFO 2012-06-23 01:47:28,522 dev_appserver.py:2891] "GET /hello HTTP/1.1" 200 - ERROR 2012-06-23 01:47:30,040 wsgi.py:189] and this is the trace for the Error 500 Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 187, in Handle handler = _config_handle.add_wsgi_middleware(self._LoadHandler()) File "C:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\runtime\wsgi.py", line 239, in _LoadHandler raise ImportError('%s has no attribute %s' % (handler, name)) ImportError: <module 'helloworld' from 'D:\work\[GAE] tests\helloworld\helloworld.pyc'> has no attribute app INFO 2012-06-23 01:47:30,127 dev_appserver.py:2891] "GET /hello HTTP/1.1" 500 - here's my helloworld.py print 'Content-Type: text/plain' print '' print 'Hello, world!' my main.py. (app is used instead of application) import webapp2 class hello(webapp2.RequestHandler): def get(self): self.response.out.write('normal hello') app = webapp2.WSGIApplication([ ('/', hello), ], debug = True) and the app.yaml application: helloworld version: 1 runtime: python27 api_version: 1 threadsafe: true handlers: - url: /favicon\.ico static_files: favicon.ico upload: favicon\.ico - url: /hello script: helloworld.app - url: /.* script: main.app libraries: - name: webapp2 version: "2.5.1" any clue what's causing this? Regards,

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• Twitter O-Auth Callback url

  - by jtymann

  I am having a problem with Twitter's oauth authentication and using a callback url. I am coding in php and using the sample code referenced by the twitter wiki, http://github.com/abraham/twitteroauth I got that code, and tried a simple test and it worked nicely. However I want to programatically specify the callback url, and the example did not support that. So I quickly modified the getRequestToken() method to take in a parameter and now it looks like this: function getRequestToken($params = array()) { $r = $this->oAuthRequest($this->requestTokenURL(), $params); $token = $this->oAuthParseResponse($r); $this->token = new OAuthConsumer($token['oauth_token'], $token['oauth_token_secret']); return $token; } and my call looks like this $tok = $to->getRequestToken(array('oauth_callback' => 'http://127.0.0.1/twitter_prompt/index.php')); This is the only change I made, and the redirect works like a charm, however I am getting an error when I then try and use my newly granted access to try and make a call. I get a "Could not authenticate you" error. Also the application never actually gets added to the users authorized connections. Now I read the specs and I thought all I had to do was specify the parameter when getting the request token. Could someone a little more seasoned in oauth and twitter possibly give me a hand? Thank You

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• Cannot access Class methods from previous windows form - C#

  - by George

  I am writing an app, still, where I need to test some devices every minute for 30 minutes. It made sense to use a timer set to kick off every 60 secs and do whats required in the event handler. However, I need the app to wait for the 30 mins until I have finished with the timer since the following code alters the state of the devices I am trying to monitor. I obviously don't want to use any form of loop to do this. I thought of using another windows form, since I also display the progress, which will simply kick off the timer and wait until its complete. The problem I am having with this is that I use a device Class and cant seem to get access to the methods in the device class from the 2nd (3rd actually - see below) windows form. I have an initial windows form where I get input from the user, then call the 2nd windows form where it work out which tests need to be done and which device classes need to be used, and then I want to call the 3rd windows form to handle the timer. I will have up to 6-7 device classes and so wanted to only instantiate them when actually requiring them, from the 2nd form. Should I have put this logic into the 1st windows form (program class ??) ? Would I not still have the problem of not being able to access device class methods from there too ? Anyway, perhaps someone knows of a better way to do the checks every minute without the rest of the code executing (and changing the status of the devices) or how I should be accessing the methods in the app ?? Well that's the problem, I cant get that part of it to work correctly. Here is the definition for the calling form including the device class - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTCalib : Form { NDTClass NDT = new NDTClass(); public fclsNDTCalib() (new fclsNDTTicker(NDT)).ShowDialog(); Here is the class def for the called form - namespace NdtStart { public partial class fclsNDTTicker : Form { public fclsNDTTicker() I tried lots but couldn't get the arguments to work.

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• How to make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method

  - by johnrock

  I have a Spring Security (form based authentication) web app running CXF JAX-RS webservices and I am trying to connect to this webservice from an Android app that can be authenticated on a per user basis. Currently, when I add an @Secured annotation to my webservice method all requests to this method are denied. I have tried to pass in credentials of a valid user/password (that currently exists in the Spring Security based web app and can log in to the web app successfully) from the android call but the request still fails to enter this method when the @Secured annotation is present. The SecurityContext parameter returns null when calling getUserPrincipal(). How can I make a request from an android app that can enter a Spring Security secured webservice method? Here is the code I am working with at the moment: Android call: httpclient.getCredentialsProvider().setCredentials( //new AuthScope("192.168.1.101", 80), new AuthScope(null, -1), new UsernamePasswordCredentials("joeuser", "mypassword")); String userAgent = "Android/" + getVersion(); HttpGet httpget = new HttpGet(MY_URI); httpget.setHeader("User-Agent", userAgent); httpget.setHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml"); HttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(httpget); HttpEntity entity = response.getEntity(); ... parse xml Webservice Method: @GET @Path("/payload") @Produces("application/XML") @Secured({"ROLE_USER","ROLE_ADMIN","ROLE_GUEST"}) public Response makePayload(@Context Request request, @Context SecurityContext securityContext){ Payload payload = new Payload(); payload.setUsersOnline(new Long(200)); if (payload == null) { return Response.noContent().build(); } else{ return Response.ok().entity(payload).build(); } }

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• Fix hard-coded display setting without source (24-bit, need 32-bit)

  - by FerretallicA

  I wrote a program about 10 years ago in Visual Basic 6 which was basically a full-screen game similar to Breakout / Arkanoid but had 'demoscene'-style backgrounds. I found the program, but not the source code. Back then I hard-coded the display mode to 800x600x24, and the program crashes whenever I try to run it as a result. No virtual machine seems to support 24-bit display when the host display mode is 16/32-bit. It uses DirectX 7 so DOSBox is no use. I've tried all sorts of decompiler and at best they give me the form names and a bunch of assembly calls which mean nothing to me. The display mode setting was a DirectX 7 call but there's no clear reference to it in the decompilation. In this situation, is there any pointers on how I can: pin-point the function call in the program which is setting the display mode to 800x600x24 (ResHacker maybe?) and change the value being passed to it so it sets 800x600x32 view/intercept DirectX calls being made while it's running or if that's not possible, at least run the program in an environment that emulates a 24-bit display I don't need to recover the source code (as nice as it would be) so much as just want to get it running.

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• Loading Jscript files into Firefox extension

  - by colon3l

  Hi ! Let's get directly to the problem : I'm actually doing a firefox extension in which i would like to implement the jWebsocket API in order to build a small chat. I got my main script file, named test.js, and the jWebsocket lib into a js folder. Just for you to know, this is my first firefox extension ever. So in my XUL file I got this (for the script part only of course, the interface code is not shown) : <overlay id="test-overlay" xmlns="http://www.mozilla.org/keymaster/gatekeeper/there.is.only.xul"> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/test.js" /> <script type="application/x-javascript" src="chrome://test/content/js/jwebsocket.js" /> jwebsocket.js being the file I need to call according to jWebsocket website. In my main script file test.js I start with : if (jws.browserSupportsWebSockets()) { jWebSocketClient = new jws.jWebSocketJSONClient(); } else { var lMsg = jws.MSG_WS_NOT_SUPPORTED; alert(lMsg); } jws being the namespace created into the jwebsocket.js file. Of course I've got the required stand-alone server running in background, and working. So from what I understood looking on various websites, is that if a js file is loaded into the javascript allocated memory space (with the tag), all namespace/function should be available between each file. But this was mostly for HTML-oriented issues, so I'm not sure if it applies to XUL/Firefox environment. But the script keep failing at the first jws call. Any ideas on what goes wrong here ? I'm stuck for 2 days now :/

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• Windows FTP batch sript to read & dl from external user list

  - by Will Sims

  i have several old, unused batches that i'm redoing.. I have a batch file for an old network arch from several years ago.. the main thing I'd like it to do now is read a list of files.. I'll explain the setup.. Server updates a complete list [CurrentMediaStores.txt] 2x a day. The laptops can set settings to DL this list through their start.bat which also runs addins and updates I aply to my pc's, to give my batches and myself a break from slavish folder assignments and add a lil more dynamics and less adminin the bats now call on a list the user makes by simply copying a line from the CMS.txt file and pasting it into their [Grab_List.txt] My problem is though I have the branch :: off right now and the code that detects if LAN is connected or not to switch to an ftp connection. I'd like for the ftp batch to call/ use the Grab_List also. but I just can't/ don't know how to pass and do the for loop with a ftp session to loop through x amount of files in the users req list.. Anyhelp would be greatly appreciated

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• XSLT - Catching parameters

  - by Brian Roisentul

  The situation is I have two xslt files: one is called from my ASP.NET code, and there, the second xslt file is imported. What I'd like to accomplish is to pass a parameter to the first one so the second xslt(the one that is imported at the first xslt) can read it. My c# code looks like this: var oArgs = new XsltArgumentList(); oArgs.AddParam("fbLikeFeatureName", "", "Facebook_Like_Button"); ltlContentBody.Text = xmlUtil.TransformXML(oXmlDoc, Server.MapPath(eSpaceId + "/styles/ExploringXSLT/ExploreContentObjects.xslt"), true); And I'm catching the param at the first xslt this way: <xsl:param name="fbLikeFeatureName" /> And then, passing it to the second xslt like this(previously, I import that file): <xsl:call-template name="Articles"> <xsl:with-param name="fbLikeFeatureName"></xsl:with-param> </xsl:call-template> Finally, I'm catching the param on the second xslt file as following: <xsl:value-of select="$fbLikeButtonName"/> What Am I doing wrong? I'm kind of new at xslt.

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• Trying to find a PHP5 API-based embeddable CMS

  - by StrangeElement

  I've been making the rounds for a CMS that I can use as an API, in a sort of "embedded" mode. I mean by this that I don't want the CMS to do any logic or presentation. I want it to be used as an API, which I can then use within an existing site. I don't want to be tied to the architecture of the CMS. A good example of this is NC-CMS (http://www.nconsulting.ca/nc-cms/). All it needs is an include at the top, then wherever editable content is desired it's only a function call with a unique label. It's also perfect in the sense that it allows to differentiate between small strings (like titles, labels) and texts (which require a rich-text editor). It's the only CMS I found that fits this description, but it is a little too light as it does not handle site structure. I need to be able to allow my client to add pages, choosing an existing template for the layout. A minimal back-end is required. Wordpress also fits some requirements in that it handles only content editing and allows freedom for the themes by letting them call the content where and how they want it. But it is article-based and backwards, in that it embeds sites (as themes) within its structure, rather than being embeddable in sites like NC. It's funny how checking out all the CMS out there, almost all of them claim that most CMS are not self-sufficient, that they do not handle application logic, while (almost) every single on I found with only one exception do so. Many are mostly article-based blog engines, which does not fit my need. I would appreciate any CMS that fits the general description.

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• How do I implement a listener pattern over RMI using Spring?

  - by predhme

  So here is a generalized version of our application desgin: @Controller public class MyController { @Autowired private MyServiceInterface myServiceInterface; @RequestMapping("/myURL") public @ResponseBody String doSomething() { MyListenerInterface listener = new MyListenerInterfaceImpl(); myServiceInterface.doThenCallListener(listener); // do post stuff } } public interface MyListenerInterface { public void callA(); public void callB(); } public class MyListenerInterfaceImpl implements MyListenerInterface { // ... omitted for clarity } public interface MyServiceInterface { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener); } public class MyServiceImpl { public void doThenCallListener(MyListenerInterface listener) { // do stuff listener.callA(); } } Basically I have a controller that is being called via AJAX in which I am looking to return a response as a string. However, I need to make a call to the backend (MyServiceInterface). That guy is exposed through RMI by using Spring (man that was easy). But the service method as described requires a listener to be registered for invokation completion purposes. So what I assume I need to achieve is transparently to the backend make it so that when the listener methods are called, really the call is going over RMI. I would have thought Spring would have a simple way to wrap a POJO (not a service singleton) with RMI calls. I looked through their documentation but they had nothing besides exposing services via RMI. Could someone point me in the right direction?

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• accessing a method from a button within a class?

  - by flo

  #import "GameObject.h" #import "Definitions.h" @implementation GameObject @synthesize owner; @synthesize state; @synthesize mirrored; @synthesize button; @synthesize switcher; - (id) init { if ( self = [super init] ) { [self setOwner: EmptyField]; button = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [self setSwitcher: FALSE]; } return self; } - (UIButton*) display{ button.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, GO_Width, GO_Height); [button setBackgroundImage:[UIImage imageNamed:BlueStone] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [button addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; return button; } -(void)buttonPressed:(id) sender { //... } } - (void) dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Hi! i would like to know if the above is possible somehow within a class (in my case it is called GameObject) or if i HAVE to have the button call a methode in the viewcontroller... the above results with the app crashing. i would call display within a loop on the viewcontroller and id like to change some of the GameObjects instance variables within buttonPressed. Also id like to change some other stuff by calling some other methods from within buttonPressed but i think that will be the lesser of my problems ;) also id like to know how i can pass some variables to the buttonPressed method... cant find it anywhere :( help on this one would be much appreciated ;) thanks flo

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• Rebind dymanically created forms after jQuery ajax response

  - by Pjack

  I'm kinda new to jQuery but understand it for the most part. My problem is that when my ajax call which refreshes the entire div is done, all my dynamically created forms don't work. If you try and submit them, the event doens't work properly and just tries to do a normal form submit. I have all the other items such as links bound using the .live() which seem to work great. Just the form dies. How do I rebind the dynamically created forms after the ajax call? They all have id of formname_id. I tried to use bind but it doesn't work as below. Any help is appreciated. Here is the code jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("form[id^='commentform_']").each(function(){ var id = parseInt(this.id.replace("commentform_", "")); jQuery(this).bind('submit', function(e) { var action = jQuery('#action_' + id).attr('value'); var act_id = ('1'); jQuery.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ajax/modify.php", data: "action="+ action +"& act_id="+ act_id, success: function(response){ jQuery('#CommentsContainer_' + id).html(response); jQuery('#commentform_' + id)[0].reset(); } }); return false; }); }); });

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• ControlCollection extension method optimazation

  - by Johan Leino

  Hi, got question regarding an extension method that I have written that looks like this: public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance) where T : class { T control; foreach (Control ctrl in instance) { if ((control = ctrl as T) != null) { yield return control; } foreach (T child in FindControlsOfType<T>(ctrl.Controls)) { yield return child; } } } public static IEnumerable<T> FindControlsOfType<T>(this ControlCollection instance, Func<T, bool> match) where T : class { return FindControlsOfType<T>(instance).Where(match); } The idea here is to find all controls that match a specifc criteria (hence the Func<..) in the controls collection. My question is: Does the second method (that has the Func) first call the first method to find all the controls of type T and then performs the where condition or does the "runtime" optimize the call to perform the where condition on the "whole" enumeration (if you get what I mean). secondly, are there any other optimizations that I can do to the code to perform better. An example can look like this: var checkbox = this.Controls.FindControlsOfType<MyCustomCheckBox>( ctrl => ctrl.CustomProperty == "Test" ) .FirstOrDefault();

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• C++0x rvalue references and temporaries

  - by Doug

  (I asked a variation of this question on comp.std.c++ but didn't get an answer.) Why does the call to f(arg) in this code call the const ref overload of f? void f(const std::string &); //less efficient void f(std::string &&); //more efficient void g(const char * arg) { f(arg); } My intuition says that the f(string &&) overload should be chosen, because arg needs to be converted to a temporary no matter what, and the temporary matches the rvalue reference better than the lvalue reference. This is not what happens in GCC and MSVC. In at least G++ and MSVC, any lvalue does not bind to an rvalue reference argument, even if there is an intermediate temporary created. Indeed, if the const ref overload isn't present, the compilers diagnose an error. However, writing f(arg + 0) or f(std::string(arg)) does choose the rvalue reference overload as you would expect. From my reading of the C++0x standard, it seems like the implicit conversion of a const char * to a string should be considered when considering if f(string &&) is viable, just as when passing a const lvalue ref arguments. Section 13.3 (overload resolution) doesn't differentiate between rvalue refs and const references in too many places. Also, it seems that the rule that prevents lvalues from binding to rvalue references (13.3.3.1.4/3) shouldn't apply if there's an intermediate temporary - after all, it's perfectly safe to move from the temporary. Is this: Me misreading/misunderstand the standard, where the implemented behavior is the intended behavior, and there's some good reason why my example should behave the way it does? A mistake that the compiler vendors have somehow all made? Or a mistake based on common implementation strategies? Or a mistake in e.g. GCC (where this lvalue/rvalue reference binding rule was first implemented), that was copied by other vendors? A defect in the standard, or an unintended consequence, or something that should be clarified?

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• What happens when value types are created?

  - by Bob

  I'm developing a game using XNA and C# and was attempting to avoid calling new struct() type code each frame as I thought it would freak the GC out. "But wait," I said to myself, "struct is a value type. The GC shouldn't get called then, right?" Well, that's why I'm asking here. I only have a very vague idea of what happens to value types. If I create a new struct within a function call, is the struct being created on the stack? Will it simply get pushed and popped and performance not take a hit? Further, would there be some memory limit or performance implications if, say, I need to create many instances in a single call? Take, for instance, this code: spriteBatch.Draw(tex, new Rectangle(x, y, width, height), Color.White); Rectangle in this case is a struct. What happens when that new Rectangle is created? What are the implications of having to repeat that line many times (say, thousands of times)? Is this Rectangle created, a copy sent to the Draw method, and then discarded (meaning no memory getting eaten up the more Draw is called in that manner in the same function)? P.S. I know this may be pre-mature optimization, but I'm mostly curious and wish to have a better understanding of what is happening.

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• Should java try blocks be scoped as tightly as possible?

  - by isme

  I've been told that there is some overhead in using the Java try-catch mechanism. So, while it is necessary to put methods that throw checked exception within a try block to handle the possible exception, it is good practice performance-wise to limit the size of the try block to contain only those operations that could throw exceptions. I'm not so sure that this is a sensible conclusion. Consider the two implementations below of a function that processes a specified text file. Even if it is true that the first one incurs some unnecessary overhead, I find it much easier to follow. It is less clear where exactly the exceptions come from just from looking at statements, but the comments clearly show which statements are responsible. The second one is much longer and complicated than the first. In particular, the nice line-reading idiom of the first has to be mangled to fit the readLine call into a try block. What is the best practice for handling exceptions in a funcion where multiple exceptions could be thrown in its definition? This one contains all the processing code within the try block: void processFile(File f) { try { // construction of FileReader can throw FileNotFoundException BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(f)); // call of readLine can throw IOException String line; while ((line = in.readLine()) != null) { process(line); } } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); } } This one contains only the methods that throw exceptions within try blocks: void processFile(File f) { FileReader reader; try { reader = new FileReader(f); } catch (FileNotFoundException ex) { handle(ex); return; } BufferedReader in = new BufferedReader(reader); String line; while (true) { try { line = in.readLine(); } catch (IOException ex) { handle(ex); break; } if (line == null) { break; } process(line); } }

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• Getting the data inside the C# web service from Jsonified string

  - by gnomixa

  In my JS I use Jquery's $ajax functions to call the web service and send the jsonified data to it. The data is in the following format: var countries = { "1A": { id: "1A", name: "Andorra" }, "2B": { id: 2B name: "Belgium" }, ..etc }; var jsonData = JSON.stringify({ data: data }); //then $ajax is called and it makes the call to the c# web service On the c# side the web service needs to unpack this data, currently it comes in as string[][] data type. How do I convert it to the format so I can refer to the properties such as .id and .name? Assuming I have a class called Sample with these properties? Thanks! EDIT: Here is my JS code: var jsonData = JSON.stringify(countries); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://localhost/MyService.asmx/Foo', contentType: 'application/json; charset=utf-8', data: jsonData, success: function (msg) { alert(msg.d); }, error: function (xhr, status) { switch (status) { case 404: alert('File not found'); break; case 500: alert('Server error'); break; case 0: alert('Request aborted'); break; default: alert('Unknown error ' + status); } } }); inside c# web service I have: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Services; using System.Data; using System.Collections; using System.IO; using System.Web.Script.Services; [WebMethod] [ScriptMethod] public string Foo(IDictionary<string, Country> countries) { return "success"; }

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• Differences between Assembly Code output of the same program

  - by ultrajohn

  I have been trying to replicate the buffer overflow example3 from this article aleph one I'm doing this as a practice for a project in a computer security course i'm taking so please, I badly need your help. I've been the following the example, performing the tasks as I go along. My problem is the assembly code dumped by gdb in my computer (i'm doing this on a debian linux image running on VM Ware) is different from that of the example in the article. There are some constructs which I find confusing. Here is the one from my computer: here is the one from the article... Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x8000490 <main>: pushl %ebp 0x8000491 <main+1>: movl %esp,%ebp 0x8000493 <main+3>: subl $0x4,%esp 0x8000496 <main+6>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x800049d <main+13>: pushl $0x3 0x800049f <main+15>: pushl $0x2 0x80004a1 <main+17>: pushl $0x1 0x80004a3 <main+19>: call 0x8000470 <function> 0x80004a8 <main+24>: addl $0xc,%esp 0x80004ab <main+27>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x80004b2 <main+34>: movl 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x80004b5 <main+37>: pushl %eax 0x80004b6 <main+38>: pushl $0x80004f8 0x80004bb <main+43>: call 0x8000378 <printf> 0x80004c0 <main+48>: addl $0x8,%esp 0x80004c3 <main+51>: movl %ebp,%esp 0x80004c5 <main+53>: popl %ebp 0x80004c6 <main+54>: ret 0x80004c7 <main+55>: nop As you can see, there are differences between the two. I'm confuse and I can't understand totally the assembly code from my computer. I would like to know the differences between the two. How is pushl different from push, mov vs movl , and so on... what does the expression 0xhexavalue(%register) means? I am sorry If I'm asking a lot, But I badly need your help. Thanks for the help really...

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• Newsletter send using AJAX to avoid PHP timeout

  - by simPod

  I need to send newsletters. I have already a PHP script that sends mass emails but it won't work for long as email database is growing because of PHP max script run time. So, to avoid it I came up with a solution: I would call my PHP script using AJAX in javascript and I will give it $_GET parameter with a count 20 so the script would sent only 20 emails. Than AJAX would receive success response, and call my script again and again till all emails are send. Is it possible? I'm asking because I have never seen such a solution so I'm wondering if it is real (It's kinda hard to implement this into my PHP framework so I'm asking experts here first) To sum it up here's a code skeleton: <script> var emailCount = 1000; //would get this from DB var runCount = 20; //number of emails sent in one cycle var from = 0; //start number function sendMail(){ if(from<emailCount){ jQuery.ajaxfunction({ path: 'script.php?from='+from+'&count='+runCount successFc: function(){ from+=runCount; sendMail(); } }) } } sendMail(); </script> So, are there any obstacles? Thanks a lot.

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• Passing in a lambda to a Where statement

  - by sonicblis

  I noticed today that if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2); items = items.Where(i => i.Property > 4); Once I access the items var, it executes only the first line as the data call and then does the second call in memory. However, if I do this: var items = context.items.Where(i => i.Property < 2).Where(i => i.Property > 4); I get only one expression executed against the context that includes both where statements. I have a host of variables that I want to use to build the expression for the linq lambda, but their presence or absence changes the expression such that I'd have to have a rediculous number of conditionals to satisfy all cases. I thought I could just add the Where() statements as in my first example above, but that doesn't end up in a single expression that contains all of the criteria. Therefore, I'm trying to create just the lambda itself as such: //bogus syntax if (var1 == "something") var expression = Expression<Func<item, bool>>(i => i.Property == "Something); if (var2 == "somethingElse") expression = expression.Where(i => i.Property2 == "SomethingElse"); And then pass that in to the where of my context.Items to evaluate. A) is this right, and B) if so, how do you do it?

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• Is it important to dispose SolidBrush and Pen?

  - by Joe

  I recently came across this VerticalLabel control on CodeProject. I notice that the OnPaint method creates but doesn't dispose Pen and SolidBrush objects. Does this matter, and if so how can I demonstrate whatever problems it can cause? EDIT This isn't a question about the IDisposable pattern in general. I understand that callers should normally call Dispose on any class that implements IDisposable. What I want to know is what problems (if any) can be expected when GDI+ object are not disposed as in the above example. It's clear that, in the linked example, OnPaint may be called many times before the garbage collector kicks in, so there's the potential to run out of handles. However I suspect that GDI+ internally reuses handles in some circumstances (for example if you use a pen of a specific color from the Pens class, it is cached and reused). What I'm trying to understand is whether code like that in the linked example will be able to get away with neglecting to call Dispose. And if not, to see a sample that demonstrated what problems it can cause. I should add that I have very often (including the OnPaint documentation on MSDN) seen WinForms code samples that fail to dispose GDI+ objects.

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• How to convert model into url properly in asp.net MVC?

  - by 4eburek

  From the SEO standpoint it is nice to see urls in format which explains what is located on a page Let's have a look on such situation (it is just example) We need to display page about some user and decided to have such url template for that page: /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin}. And create for this purpose such model public class UserUrlInfo{ public int UserId{get;set;} public string UserCountry{get;set;} public string UserLogin{get;set;} } I want to create controller method where I pass UserUrlInfo object but not all required fields. Classic controller method for url template shown above is following public ActionResult Index(int UserId, string UserCountry, string UserLogin){ return View(); } and we need to call it like that Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user.UserId, user.UserCountry, user.UserLogin), "See user page") I want to create such controller method public ActionResult Index(UserUrlInfo userInfo){ return View(); } and call it like that: Html.ActionLink<UserController>(x=>Index(user), "See user page") Actually I works when we add one more route and point it to the same controller method, so routing will be: /user/{userInfo} /user/{UserId}/{UserCountry}/{UserLogin} In this situation routing engine gets string method of our model (need to override it) and it works ALMOST always. But sometimes it fails and show url like /page/?userInfo=/US/John So my workaround does not always work properly. Does anybody know how to work with urls in such way?

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