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• Producing a Form from an Overlay from Reporting Services rdlc Reports

  - by Mike Wills

  I am not sure what you call it in other technologies, on the IBM i (or iSeries) we call it overlays. The overlay is an image of a form that is stored on the server then a program generates the form with fields from the database so you can eliminate preprinted forms. I had a problem last year with the method I was trying at the time. It was a rush job at the time to be revisited at a later point. The work-around at the time was to export to PDF. So now it is "later" and once again is a rush (imagine that). This is all done through a web-based interface. So how do you generate forms from something that was once a preprinted form? What method do you recommend? This is a legal form and must be filled out a certain way and can have many in a batch (up to 50 or so). I would prefer to not have them print one page at a time. Any ideas would be appreciated!

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• Fitting title for my position

  - by lithander

  In the last 2 years my company has developed a boxed and full-price computer game. All the software development has been done collaboratively by me and my co-developer. We know each other from university and got hired at the same day to equal conditions and we share the same responsibilites including the decisions of what technology to license and how to spend development resources and even how team-workflow is organized. But I struggle to find the correct wording for my position. Can I call myself a senior developer with only 3 years working-experience? Can I call myself lead programmer if I don't really have a team to "lead"? All these fancy names used in the industry (Technical Lead, Development Lead, Software Architect) seem to imply that you aren't actually coding anymore or have staff under you. On the other hand titles like "Programmer" or "Software Engineer" seem to imply that there's someone between you and the project management. That makes it hard to fill out a resume or even the badges you typically wear on conferences... people tend to judge you by your title and I'd like to avoid confusion where possible.

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• Linker error: wants C++ virtual base class destructor

  - by jdmuys

  Hi, I have a link error where the linker complains that my concrete class's destructor is calling its abstract superclass destructor, the code of which is missing. This is using GCC 4.2 on Mac OS X from XCode. I saw http://stackoverflow.com/questions/307352/g-undefined-reference-to-typeinfo but it's not quite the same thing. Here is the linker error message: Undefined symbols: "ConnectionPool::~ConnectionPool()", referenced from: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool()in RKConnector.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Here is the abstract base class declaration: class ConnectionPool { public: static ConnectionPool* newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~ConnectionPool() =0; virtual int keepAlive() =0; virtual int disconnect() =0; virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL) =0; virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection) =0; }; Here is the concrete class declaration: class AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool: public ConnectionPool { protected: <snip data members> public: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(); virtual int keepAlive(); // will make sure the connection doesn't time out. Call regularly virtual int disconnect(); // disconnects/destroys all connections. virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL); virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection); }; Needless to say, all those members are implemented. Here is the destructor: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool() { printf("AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool destructor call"); // nothing to destruct in fact } and also maybe the factory routine: ConnectionPool* ConnectionPool::newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b) { return new AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(h, p, u, pw, b); } I can fix this by artificially making my abstract base class concrete. But I'd rather do something better. Any idea? Thanks

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• Sweave can't see a vector if run from a function ?

  - by PaulHurleyuk

  I have a function that sets a vector to a string, copies a Sweave document with a new name and then runs that Sweave. Inside the Sweave document I want to use the vector I set in the function, but it doesn't seem to see it. (Edit: I changed this function to use tempdir(() as suggested by Dirk) I created a sweave file test_sweave.rnw; % \documentclass[a4paper]{article} \usepackage[OT1]{fontenc} \usepackage{Sweave} \begin{document} \title{Test Sweave Document} \author{gb02413} \maketitle <<>>= ls() Sys.time() print(paste("The chosen study was ",chstud,sep="")) @ \end{document} and I have this function; onOK <- function(){ chstud<-"test" message(paste("Chosen Study is ",chstud,sep="")) newfile<-paste(chstud,"_report",sep="") mypath<-paste(tempdir(),"\\",sep="") setwd(mypath) message(paste("Copying test_sweave.Rnw to ",paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""),sep="")) file.copy("c:\\local\\test_sweave.Rnw", paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep=""), overwrite=TRUE) Sweave(paste(mypath,newfile,".Rnw",sep="")) require(tools) texi2dvi(file = paste(mypath,newfile,".tex",sep=""), pdf = TRUE) } If I run the code from the function directly, the resulting file has this output for ls(); > ls() [1] "chstud" "mypath" "newfile" "onOK" However If I call onOK() I get this output; > ls() [1] "onOK" and the print(...chstud...)) function generates an error. I suspect this is an environment problem, but I assumed because the call to Sweave occurs within the onOK function, it would be in the same enviroment, and would see all the objects created within the function. How can I get the Sweave process to see the chstud vector ? Thanks Paul.

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• Differences between Assembly Code output of the same program

  - by ultrajohn

  I have been trying to replicate the buffer overflow example3 from this article aleph one I'm doing this as a practice for a project in a computer security course i'm taking so please, I badly need your help. I've been the following the example, performing the tasks as I go along. My problem is the assembly code dumped by gdb in my computer (i'm doing this on a debian linux image running on VM Ware) is different from that of the example in the article. There are some constructs which I find confusing. Here is the one from my computer: here is the one from the article... Dump of assembler code for function main: 0x8000490 <main>: pushl %ebp 0x8000491 <main+1>: movl %esp,%ebp 0x8000493 <main+3>: subl $0x4,%esp 0x8000496 <main+6>: movl $0x0,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x800049d <main+13>: pushl $0x3 0x800049f <main+15>: pushl $0x2 0x80004a1 <main+17>: pushl $0x1 0x80004a3 <main+19>: call 0x8000470 <function> 0x80004a8 <main+24>: addl $0xc,%esp 0x80004ab <main+27>: movl $0x1,0xfffffffc(%ebp) 0x80004b2 <main+34>: movl 0xfffffffc(%ebp),%eax 0x80004b5 <main+37>: pushl %eax 0x80004b6 <main+38>: pushl $0x80004f8 0x80004bb <main+43>: call 0x8000378 <printf> 0x80004c0 <main+48>: addl $0x8,%esp 0x80004c3 <main+51>: movl %ebp,%esp 0x80004c5 <main+53>: popl %ebp 0x80004c6 <main+54>: ret 0x80004c7 <main+55>: nop As you can see, there are differences between the two. I'm confuse and I can't understand totally the assembly code from my computer. I would like to know the differences between the two. How is pushl different from push, mov vs movl , and so on... what does the expression 0xhexavalue(%register) means? I am sorry If I'm asking a lot, But I badly need your help. Thanks for the help really...

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• Recursion in prepared statements

  - by Rob

  I've been using PDO and preparing all my statements primarily for security reasons. However, I have a part of my code that does execute the same statement many times with different parameters, and I thought this would be where the prepared statements really shine. But they actually break the code... The basic logic of the code is this. function someFunction($something) { global $pdo; $array = array(); static $handle = null; if (!$handle) { $handle = $pdo->prepare("A STATEMENT WITH :a_param"); } $handle->bindValue(":a_param", $something); if ($handle->execute()) { while ($row = $handle->fetch()) { $array[] = someFunction($row['blah']); } } return $array; } It looked fine to me, but it was missing out a lot of rows. Eventually I realised that the statement handle was being changed (executed with different param), which means the call to fetch in the while loop will only ever work once, then the function calls itself again, and the result set is changed. So I am wondering what's the best way of using PDO prepared statements in a recursive way. One way could be to use fetchAll(), but it says in the manual that has a substantial overhead. The whole point of this is to make it more efficient. The other thing I could do is not reuse a static handle, and instead make a new one every time. I believe that since the query string is the same, internally the MySQL driver will be using a prepared statement anyway, so there is just the small overhead of creating a new handle on each recursive call. Personally I think that defeats the point. Or is there some way of rewriting this?

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• Strange problem with PHP and sessions

  - by Jhorra

  So the basis of this page is I set a session value when the page loads, and clear it on any other page they visit. Then the page can make an ajax call to download a file. If the session value matches the value I pass through the URL I allow them to download the file. If not I return a 404 error. I was having some weird issues, so I removed the 404 and set it to echo out the values instead to see what I was getting. Here is the top of the code on the page: $code = $this->_request->getParam('code'); $confirm = $_SESSION['mp3_code']; echo $code."-1-".$confirm; if($code != $confirm) echo $code."-2-".$confirm;//header("HTTP/1.1 404 Not Found"); else { Here is what displays on the page from the ajax call 12723430-1-12723430-2- As you can see when it echos out the first time they exist, then somehow after I compare them and it fails you see that it echos out blank values like they suddenly ceased to exist. Any ideas?

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• Counting string length in javascript and Ruby on Rails

  - by williamjones

  I've got a text area on a web site that should be limited in length. I'm allowing users to enter 255 characters, and am enforcing that limit with a Rails validation: validates_length_of :body, :maximum => 255 At the same time, I added a javascript char counter like you see on Twitter, to give feedback to the user on how many characters he has already used, and to disable the submit button when over length, and am getting that length in Javascript with a call like this: element.length Lastly, to enforce data integrity, in my Postgres database, I have created this field as a varchar(255) as a last line of defense. Unfortunately, these methods of counting characters do not appear to be directly compatible. Javascript counts the best, in that it counts what users consider as number of characters where everything is a single character. Once the submission hits Rails, however, all of the carriage returns have been converted to \r\n, now taking up 2 characters worth of space, which makes a close call fail Rails validations. Even if I were to handcode a different length validation in Rails, it would still fail when it hits the database I think, though I haven't confirmed this yet. What's the best way for me to make all this work the way the user would want? Best Solution: an approach that would enable me to meet user expectations, where each character of any type is only one character. If this means increasing the length of the varchar database field, a user should not be able to sneakily send a hand-crafted post that creates a row with more than 255 letters. Somewhat Acceptable Solution: a javascript change that enables the user to see the real character count, such that hitting return increments the counter 2 characters at a time, while properly handling all symbols that might have these strange behaviors.

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• Utility of List<T>.Sort() versus List<T>.OrderBy() for a member of a custom container class

  - by ccomet

  I've found myself running back through some old 3.5 framework legacy code, and found some points where there are a whole bunch of lists and dictionaries that must be updated in a synchronized fashion. I've determined that I can make this process infinitely easier to both utilize and understand by converging these into custom container classes of new custom classes. There are some points, however, where I came to concerns with organizing the contents of these new container classes by a specific inner property. For example, sorting by the ID number property of one class. As the container classes are primarily based around a generic List object, my first instinct was to write the inner classes with IComparable, and write the CompareTo method that compares the properties. This way, I can just call items.Sort() when I want to invoke the sorting. However, I've been thinking instead about using items = items.OrderBy(Func) instead. This way it is more flexible if I need to sort by any other property. Readability is better as well, since the property used for sorting will be listed in-line with the sort call rather than having to look up the IComparable code. The overall implementation feels cleaner as a result. I don't care for premature or micro optimization, but I like consistency. I find it best to stick with one kind of implementation for as many cases as it is appropriate, and use different implementations where it is necessary. Is it worth it to convert my code to use the LINQ OrderBy instead of using List.Sort? Is it a better practice to stick with the IComparable implementation for these custom containers? Are there any significant mechanical advantages offered by either path that I should be weighing the decision on? Or is their end-functionality equivalent to the point that it just becomes coder's preference?

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• Why don't copy this dokument attributes from the source xml file??

  - by siegfried storr

  Hi anyone, i'm working the first time with xslt and i really don't understand why this xsl don't copy attributes from the source xml. Perhaps someone can give me a hint?? <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes"/> <xsl:variable name="rpl" select="document('ParamInvoice.xml')"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="* | @*"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="*"> <xsl:variable name="vInvoiceElement" select="$rpl/StoraInvoice/*[name()=name(current())]"/> <xsl:copy> <xsl:if test="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"> <xsl:call-template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:with-param name="pAttr" select="$vInvoiceElement/Attribute"/> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:if> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="AttributeErzeugen"> <xsl:param name="pAttr"/> <xsl:for-each select="$pAttr"> <xsl:attribute name="{@name}"><xsl:value-of select="."/></xsl:attribute> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet>

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• c# multi inheritance

  - by user326839

  So ive got a base class which requires a Socket: class Sock { public Socket s; public Sock(Socket s) { this.s = s; } public virtual void Process(byte[] data) { } ... } then ive got another class. if a new socket gets accepted a new instance of this class will be created: class Game : Sock { public Random Random = new Random(); public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; public Game(Socket s) : base(s) { } public static void ReceiveNewSocket(object s) { Game Client = new Game((Socket)s); Client.Start(); } public override void Process(byte[] buf) { Timers = new Timerr(s); Test = new Test(s); Test.T(); } } in the Sock class ive got a virtual function that gets overwritten by the Game class.(Process function) in this function im calling a function from the Test Class(Test+ Timerr Class: class Test : Game { public Test(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void T() { Console.WriteLine(Random.Next(0, 10)); Timers.Start(); } } class Timerr : Game { public Timerr(Socket s) : base(s) { } public void Start() { Console.WriteLine("test"); } } ) So in the Process function im calling a function in Test. And in this function(T) i need to call a function from the Timerr Class.But the problem is its always NULL , although the constructor is called in Process. And e.g. the Random Class can be called, i guess its because its defined with the constructor.: public Random Random = new Random(); and thats why the other classes(without a constructor): public Timerr Timers; public Test Test; are always null in the inherited class Test.But its essentiel that i call other Methods of other classes in this function.How could i solve that?

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• ASP.NET forgets dlls in bin directory

  - by Timothy Strimple

  We have a plugin system on a WCF service that checks libraries placed in the bin folder for certain assembly level attributes and loads them. This allows customization of certain service calls based on which client is making the call. This works great most of the time. However, sometimes it seems to lose the dll, which causes the service to revert back to the default implementation for every client. The solution so far has been to just move the dll file out of the bin folder, and back in. This causes asp.net to pick up the file and customizations start working again. I'm at a loss for why the assembly is getting missed like that after a certain amount of time. Any ideas as to what might be causing this?

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• Function with parameter type that has a copy-constructor with non-const ref chosen?

  - by Johannes Schaub - litb

  Some time ago I was confused by the following behavior of some code when I wanted to write a is_callable<F, Args...> trait. Overload resolution won't call functions accepting arguments by non-const ref, right? Why doesn't it reject in the following because the constructor wants a Test&? I expected it to take f(int)! struct Test { Test() { } // I want Test not be copyable from rvalues! Test(Test&) { } // But it's convertible to int operator int() { return 0; } }; void f(int) { } void f(Test) { } struct WorksFine { }; struct Slurper { Slurper(WorksFine&) { } }; struct Eater { Eater(WorksFine) { } }; void g(Slurper) { } void g(Eater) { } // chooses this, as expected int main() { // Error, why? f(Test()); // But this works, why? g(WorksFine()); } Error message is m.cpp: In function 'int main()': m.cpp:33:11: error: no matching function for call to 'Test::Test(Test)' m.cpp:5:3: note: candidates are: Test::Test(Test&) m.cpp:2:3: note: Test::Test() m.cpp:33:11: error: initializing argument 1 of 'void f(Test)' Can you please explain why one works but the other doesn't?

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• Few Basic Questions in Overriding

  - by Dahlia

  I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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• Java downcasting and is-A has-A relationship

  - by msharma

  HI, I have a down casting question, I am a bit rusty in this area. I have 2 clasess like this: class A{ int i; String j ; //Getters and setters} class B extends A{ String k; //getter and setter} I have a method like this, in a Utility helper class: public static A converts(C c){} Where C are objects that are retireved from the database and then converted. The problem is I want to call the above method by passing in a 'C' and getting back B. So I tried this: B bClasss = (B) Utility.converts(c); So even though the above method returns A I tried to downcast it to B, but I get a runtime ClassCastException. Is there really no way around this? DO I have to write a separate converts() method which returns a B class type? If I declare my class B like: class B { String k; A a;} // So instead of extending A it has-a A, getter and setters also then I can call my existing method like this: b.setA(Utility.converts(c) ); This way I can reuse the existing method, even though the extends relationship makes more sense. What should I do? Any help much appreciated. Thanks.

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• Why is JavaMail Transport.send() a static method?

  - by skiphoppy

  I'm revising code I did not write that uses JavaMail, and having a little trouble understanding why the JavaMail API is designed the way it is. I have the feeling that if I understood, I could be doing a better job. We call: transport = session.getTransport("smtp"); transport.connect(hostName, port, user, password); So why is Eclipse warning me that this: transport.send(message, message.getAllRecipients()); is a call to a static method? Why am I getting a Transport object and providing settings that are specific to it if I can't use that object to send the message? How does the Transport class even know what server and other settings to use to send the message? It's working fine, which is hard to believe. What if I had instantiated Transport objects for two different servers; how would it know which one to use? In the course of writing this question, I've discovered that I should really be calling: transport.sendMessage(message, message.getAllRecipients()); So what is the purpose of the static Transport.send() method? Is this just poor design, or is there a reason it is this way?

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• jQuery validation with submit handler

  - by James

  I setup the form validation using jQuery validation plug-in's validate method and I have a submit handler that modifies the input element's value (I use YUI editor and it needs saveHTML() call to copy the iframe's content to the textarea element.). When submitting the form, I want the validator to validate the form after executing my submit handler. But it doesn't execute my submit handler if it is registered after the validate call. For example, <form id="form1" action="/test"> <input type="text" name="txt1" id="txt1" /> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); }); The form is validated after my submit handler so submit is canceled. $(document).ready(function() { $("#form1").validate({ rules: { txt1: { maxlength: 5 } } }); $("#form1").submit(function() { $("#txt1").val("123456"); }); }); However if I change the order the form is validated before my submit handler.

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• How to overcome the programmer's block ?

  - by Nicolas Dorier

  How do you do when, during the development of your application, you can't decide yourself what to do next. You have no problem technically speaking, you have no problem to write clean code BUT you have a problem to decide yourself on what to code now. And you spend time thinking and thinking again on your design, in the car, in the shower, and you cannot write a single line of code... I think we call this "analysis paralysis". I hate being in this state ! How can you avoid this ? How do you do to not fall in this state ? I think this occurs when we are writting a big chunk of code with no visible improvement, but I'm not sure... UPDATE Like some of you said, this problem is also what we call the "programmer's block" (analogy with the writer's block). Doing some TDD doesn't help because I'm stuck, I can't decide myself what class to code, what methods to put inside (even a name of method). Though I admit that it helps to break a big chunk of code into smaller ones. Like Talesh said my head becomes full of "what-if".

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• curl_multi_exec stops if one url is 404, how can I change that?

  - by Rob

  Currently, my cURL multi exec stops if one url it connects to doesn't work, so a few questions: 1: Why does it stop? That doesn't make sense to me. 2: How can I make it continue? EDIT: Here is my code: $SQL = mysql_query("SELECT url FROM shells") ; $mh = curl_multi_init(); $handles = array(); while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ //load the urls and send GET data $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 5); curl_multi_add_handle($mh, $ch); $handles[] = $ch; } // Create a status variable so we know when exec is done. $running = null; //execute the handles do { // Call exec. This call is non-blocking, meaning it works in the background. curl_multi_exec($mh,$running); // Sleep while it's executing. You could do other work here, if you have any. sleep(2); // Keep going until it's done. } while ($running > 0); // For loop to remove (close) the regular handles. foreach($handles as $ch) { // Remove the current array handle. curl_multi_remove_handle($mh, $ch); } // Close the multi handle curl_multi_close($mh);

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• How to deserialize implementation classes in OSGi

  - by Daniel Schneller

  In an eRCP OSGi based application the user can push a button and go to a lock screen similar to that of Windows or Mac OS X. When this happens, the current state of the application is serialized to a file and control is handed over to the lock screen. In this mobile application memory is very tight, so we need to get rid of the original view/controller when the lock screen comes up. This works fine and we end up with a binary serialized file. Once the user logs back in, the file is read in again and the original state of the application restored. This works fine as well, except when the controller that was serialized contained a reference to an object which comes from a different bundle. In my concrete case the original controller (from bundle A) can call a web service and gets a result back. Nothing fancy, just some Strings and Numbers in a simple value holder class. However the controller only sees this as a Result interface; the actual runtime object (ResultImpl) is defined and created in a different bundle (bundle B, the webservice client implementation) and returned via a service call. When the deserialization now tries to thaw the controller from the file, it throws a ClassNotFound exception, complaining about not being able to deserialize the result object, because deserialization is called from bundle A, which cannot see the ResultImpl class from bundle B. Any ideas on how to work around that? The only thing I could come up with is to clone all the individual values into another object, defined in the controller's bundle, but this seems like quite a hassle.

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• What goes between SQL Server and Client?

  - by worlds-apart89

  This question is an updated version of a previous question I have asked on here. I am new to client-server model with SQL Server as the relational database. I have read that public access to SQL Server is not secure. If direct access to the database is not a good practice, then what kind of layer should be placed between the server and the client? Note that I have a desktop application that will serve as the client and a remote SQL Server database that will provide data to the client. The client will input their username and password in order to see their data. I have heard of terms like VPN, ISA, TMG, Terminal Services, proxy server, and so on. I need a fast and secure n-tier architecture. P.S. I have heard of web services in front of the database. Can I use WCF to retrieve, update, insert data? Would it be a good approach in terms of security and performance?

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• Download dynamic file with GWT

  - by Maksim

  I have a GWT page where user enter data (start date, end date, etc.), then this data goes to the server via RPC call. On the server I want to generate Excel report with POI and let user save that file on their local machine. This is my test code to stream file back to the client but for some reason I think it does not know how to stream file to the client when I'm using RPC: public class ReportsServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements ReportsService { public String myMethod(String s) { File f = new File("/excelTestFile.xls"); String filename = f.getName(); int length = 0; try { HttpServletResponse resp = getThreadLocalResponse(); ServletOutputStream op = resp.getOutputStream(); ServletContext context = getServletConfig().getServletContext(); resp.setContentType("application/octet-stream"); resp.setContentLength((int) f.length()); resp.setHeader("Content-Disposition", "attachment; filename*=\"utf-8''" + filename + ""); byte[] bbuf = new byte[1024]; DataInputStream in = new DataInputStream(new FileInputStream(f)); while ((in != null) && ((length = in.read(bbuf)) != -1)) { op.write(bbuf, 0, length); } in.close(); op.flush(); op.close(); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return "Server says: " + filename; } } I've red somewhere on internet that you can't do file stream with RPC and I have to use Servlet for that. Is there any example of how to use Servlet and how to call that servlet from ReportsServiceImpl. Do I really need to make a servlet or it is possible to stream it back with my RPC?

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• Passing a parameter in a Report's Open Event to a parameter query (Access 2007)

  - by JPM

  Hi there, I would like to know if there is a way to set the parameters in an Access 2007 query using VBA. I am new to using VBA in Access, and I have been tasked with adding a little piece of functionality to an existing app. The issue I am having is that the same report can be called in two different places in the application. The first being on a command button on a data entry form, the other from a switchboard button. The report itself is based on a parameter query that has requires the user to enter a Supplier ID. The user would like to not have to enter the Supplier ID on the data entry form (since the form displays the Supplier ID already), but from the switchboard, they would like to be prompted to enter a Supplier ID. Where I am stuck is how to call the report's query (in the report's open event) and pass the SupplierID from the form as the parameter. I have been trying for a while, and I can't get anything to work correctly. Here is my code so far, but I am obviously stumped. Private Sub Report_Open(Cancel As Integer) Dim intSupplierCode As Integer 'Check to see if the data entry form is open If CurrentProject.AllForms("frmExample").IsLoaded = True Then 'Retrieve the SupplierID from the data entry form intSupplierCode = Forms![frmExample]![SupplierID] 'Call the parameter query passing the SupplierID???? DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams" Else 'Execute the parameter query as normal DoCmd.OpenQuery "qryParams"????? End If End Sub I've tried Me.SupplierID = intSupplierCode, and although it compiles, it bombs when I run it. And here is my SQL code for the parameter query: PARAMETERS [Enter Supplier] Long; SELECT Suppliers.SupplierID, Suppliers.CompanyName, Suppliers.ContactName, Suppliers.ContactTitle FROM Suppliers WHERE (((Suppliers.SupplierID)=[Enter Supplier])); I know there are ways around this problem (and probably an easy way as well) but like I said, my lack of experience using Access and VBA makes things difficult. If any of you could help, that would be great!

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• Not able to get response back on java code while http get with S60

  - by Rishabh

  Hi, I am using Net Beans for developing an application on S60. I made one page for user authentication and using .net wcf service to authenticate user. i am able to send data on .net service by HttpGet method but not able to get response back on java page. I have tested it on fiddler with this url its working fine and returning response code 200, but not getting response code by java code. Following code i am using. Is some thing wrong here ? httpConn = (HttpConnection)Connector.open(url); httpConn.setRequestMethod(HttpConnection.GET); httpConn.setRequestProperty("User-Agent", "Profile/MIDP-2.1 Confirguration/CLDC-1.1"); int respCode = httpConn.getResponseCode(); Thanks Rishabh

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• Making it look like the computer is thinking in TicTacToe game

  - by rage

  here is a slice of code that i've written in VB.net Private Sub L00_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles L00.Click, L01.Click, L02.Click, L03.Click, L10.Click, L11.Click, L12.Click, L13.Click, L20.Click, L21.Click, L22.Click, L23.Click, L30.Click, L31.Click, L32.Click, L33.Click Dim ticTac As Label = CType(sender, Label) Dim strRow As String Dim strCol As String 'Once a move is made, do not allow user to change whether player/computer goes first, because it doesn't make sense to do so since the game has already started. ComputerFirstStripMenuItem.Enabled = False PlayerFirstToolStripMenuItem.Enabled = False 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If (ticTac.Text = String.Empty) Then ticTac.Text = "X" ticTac.ForeColor = ColorDialog1.Color ticTac.Tag = 1 'After the player has made his move it becomes the computers turn. computerTurn(sender, e) Else MessageBox.Show("Please pick an empty tile to make next move", "Invalid Move") End If End Sub Private Sub computerTurn(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Call Randomize() row = Int(4 * Rnd()) col = Int(4 * Rnd()) 'Check to make sure clicked tile is a valid tile i.e and empty tile. If Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 1 And Not ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 Then ticTacArray(row, col).Text = "O" ticTacArray(row, col).ForeColor = ColorDialog2.Color ticTacArray(row, col).Tag = 4 checkIfGameOver(sender, e) Else 'Some good ole pseudo-recursion(doesn't require a base case(s)). computerTurn(sender, e) End If End Sub Everything works smoothly, except i'm trying to make it seem like the computer has to "think" before making its move. So what i've tried to do is place a System.Threading.Sleep() call in different places in the code above. The problem is that instead of making the computer look like its thinking, the program waits and then puts the X and O together at the same time. Can someone help me make it so that the program puts an X wherever i click AND THEN wait before it places an O? Edit: in case any of you are wondering, i realize that the computers AI is ridiculously dumb, but its just to mess around right now. Later on i will implement a serious AI..hopefully.

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