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  • accessing private variable from member function in PHP

    - by Carson Myers
    I have derived a class from Exception, basically like so: class MyException extends Exception { private $_type; public function type() { return $this->_type; //line 74 } public function __toString() { include "sometemplate.php"; return ""; } } Then, I derived from MyException like so: class SpecialException extends MyException { private $_type = "superspecial"; } If I throw new SpecialException("bla") from a function, catch it, and go echo $e, then the __toString function should load a template, display that, and then not actually return anything to echo. This is basically what's in the template file <div class="<?php echo $this->type(); ?>class"> <p> <?php echo $this->message; ?> </p> </div> in my mind, this should definitely work. However, I get the following error when an exception is thrown and I try to display it: Fatal error: Cannot access private property SpecialException::$_type in C:\path\to\exceptions.php on line 74 Can anyone explain why I am breaking the rules here? Am I doing something horribly witty with this code? Is there a much more idiomatic way to handle this situation? The point of the $_type variable is (as shown) that I want a different div class to be used depending on the type of exception caught.

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  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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  • Dealing with SQLException with spring,hibernate & Postgres

    - by mad
    Hi im working on a project using HibernateDaoSUpport from my Daos from Spring & spring-ws & hibernate & postgres who will be used in a national application (means a lot of users) Actually, every exception from hibernate is automatically transformed into some specific Spring dataAccesException. I have a table with a keyword on the dabatase & a unique constraint on the keywords : no duplicate keywords is allowed. I have found twows ways to deal with with that in the Insert Dao: 1- Check for the duplicate manually (with a select) prior to doing your insert. I means that the spring transaction will have a SERIALIZABLE isolation level. The obvious drawback is that we have now 2 queries for a simple insert.Advantage: independent of the database 2-let the insert gone & catch the SqlException & convert it to a userfriendly message & errorcode to the final consumer of our webservices. Solution 2: Spring has developped a way to translate specific exeptions into customized exceptions. see http://www.oracle.com/technology/pub/articles/marx_spring.html In my case i would have a ConstraintViolationException. Ideally i would like to write a custom SQLExceptionTranslator to map the duplicate word constraint in the database with a DuplicateWordException. But i can have many unique constraints on the same table. So i have to get the message of the SQLEXceptions in order to find the name of the constraint declared in the create table "uq_duplicate-constraint" for example. Now i have a strong dependency with the database. Thanks in advance for your answers & excuse me for my poor english (it is not my mother tongue)

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  • ASP.NET MVC Unit Testing Controllers - Repositories

    - by Brian McCord
    This is more of an opinion seeking question, so there may not be a "right" answer, but I would welcome arguments as to why your answer is the "right" one. Given an MVC application that is using Entity Framework for the persistence engine, a repository layer, a service layer that basically defers to the repository, and a delete method on a controller that looks like this: public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } I am looking for the proper way to Unit Test this. Currently, I have a fake repository that gets used in the service, and my unit test looks like this: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange var stateService = GetService(); var stateController = new StateController( stateService ); ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; stateController = new StateController( stateService ); var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Is this overkill? Do I need to check to see if the record actually got deleted (as I already have Service and Repository tests that verify this)? Should I even use a fake repository here or would it make more sense just to mock the whole thing? The examples I'm looking at used this model of doing things, and I just copied it, but I'm really open to doing things in a "best practices" way. Thanks.

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  • values not equal in sqlite and json array in android

    - by Venkat
    I am trying to compare the value in sqlite table and id of the webservice what i have done so far is if(data_exist!=bookProduct.length()){ Log.i("in update","m here"); Cursor cursors = getRawEvents("select id from bcuk_book"); try{ for (int i = 0; i < bookProduct.length(); i++) { JSONObject c = bookProduct.getJSONObject(i); String Bid = c.getString(TAG_ID); ArrayList<String> mapId = new ArrayList<String>(); while(cursors.moveToNext()) { Log.e("cursors",cursors.getString(0)); Log.i(Bid,Bid); if(cursors.getString(0)!=c.getString(TAG_ID)){ Log.e("fas",Bid); } } mapId.add(TAG_ID); Log.e(Bid,Bid); } } My issue is i am getting same values in logs.. if(cursors.getString(0)!=c.getString(TAG_ID)){ this condition says if they are not equal then print the log..But the issue is i am entering into that block even i am getting same values from sqlite and TAG_ID i.e from json webservice..How to solve this.Where i done wrong?

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  • How could I cache images that I'm pulling from a magento database through ajax?

    - by wes
    Here's script being called through ajax: <?php require_once '../app/Mage.php'; umask(0); /* not Mage::run(); */ Mage::app('default'); $cat_id = ($_POST['cat_id']) ? $_POST['cat_id'] : NULL; try { $category = new Mage_Catalog_Model_Category(); $category->load($cat_id); $collection = $category->getProductCollection(); $output = '<ul>'; foreach ($collection as $product) { $cProduct = Mage::getModel('catalog/product'); $cProduct->load($product->getId()); $output .= '<li><img id="'.$product->getId().'" src="' . (string)Mage::helper('catalog/image')->init($cProduct, 'small_image')->resize(75) . '" class="thumb" /></li>'; } $output .= '</ul>'; echo $output; } catch (Exception $e) { echo 'Caught exception: ', $e->getMessage(), "\n"; } I'm just passing in the Category ID, which I've tacked onto the navigation links, then doing some work to eventually just pass back all product images in that category. I'm using this on a drag and drop build-a-bracelet type of application, and the amount of images returned is sometimes in the 500s. So it get's pretty held up during transmission, sometimes 10 seconds or so. I know I'd do good by caching them some way, just not sure how to go about it. Any help is much appreciated. Thanks. -Wes

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  • Why there is no scoped locks for multiple mutexes in C++0x or Boost.Thread?

    - by Vicente Botet Escriba
    C++0x thread library or Boost.thread define non-member variadic template function that lock all lock avoiding dead lock. template <class L1, class L2, class... L3> void lock(L1&, L2&, L3&...); While this function avoid help to deadlock, the standard do not includes the associated scoped lock to write exception safe code. { std::lock(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock li l2 exception safe } That means that we need to use other mechanism as try-catch block to make exception safe code or define our own scoped lock on multiple mutexes ourselves or even do that { std::lock(l1,l2); std::unique_lock lk1(l1, std::adopted); std::unique_lock lk2(l2, std::adopted); // do some thing // unlock li l2 on destruction of lk1 lk2 } Why the standard doesn't includes a scoped lock on multiple mutexes of the same type, as for example { std::array_unique_lock<std::mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } or tuples of mutexes { std::tuple_unique_lock<std::mutex, std::recursive_mutex> lk(l1,l2); // do some thing // unlock l1 l2 on destruction of lk } Is there something wrong on the design?

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  • Why does this asp.net mvc unit test fail?

    - by Brian McCord
    I have this unit test: [TestMethod] public void Delete_Post_Passes_With_State_4() { //Arrange ViewResult result = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var model = (State)result.ViewData.Model; //Act RedirectToRouteResult redirectResult = stateController.Delete( model ) as RedirectToRouteResult; var newresult = stateController.Delete( 4 ) as ViewResult; var newmodel = (State)newresult.ViewData.Model; //Assert Assert.AreEqual( redirectResult.RouteValues["action"], "Index" ); Assert.IsNull( newmodel ); } Here are the two controller actions that handle deleting: // // GET: /State/Delete/5 public ActionResult Delete(int id) { var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); return View(x); } // // POST: /State/Delete/5 [HttpPost] public ActionResult Delete(State model) { try { if( model == null ) { return View( model ); } _stateService.Delete( model ); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View( model ); } } What I can't figure out is why this test fails. I have verified that the record actually gets deleted from the list. If I set a break point in the Delete method on the line: var x = _stateService.GetById( id ); The GetById does indeed return a null just as it should, but when it gets back to the newresult variable in the test, the ViewData.Model is the deleted model. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Problem in getting response from server in jquery

    - by Alvin
    Hello, I'm using $.ajax(options) method to pass the request to server based on username and password, but whenever I try to print the response by XMLHttpRequest object when response gets successful, I'm getting an empty value. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#form").submit(function(){ $.ajax({url:"Chat.jsp",type:"POST",data:$("#form").serialize(),success:function(request) { alert(request.responseText); //This is displaying nothing },error:function(){document.write("YOU can't");}}); }); }); This is what I'm doing in my servlets code after executing query: try { String user = request.getParameter("j_username"); String password = request.getParameter("j_password"); if(user != null && password != null) { String query = "Select * from users where user_name="+"\'"+user+"\'"+"&& user_pass="+"\""+password+"\""; DBCheck db= new DBCheck(); boolean b = db.doExecuteQuery(con.createStatement(),query); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); if(b) { response.getWriter().println("Username already exits"); } else { response.getWriter().println("Username doesn't exit"); } } } catch(SQLException ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } May I know the problem, and how can I fix it?

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  • How should I define a JavaScript 'namespace' to satisfy JSLint?

    - by Matthew Murdoch
    I want to be able to package my JavaScript code into a 'namespace' to prevent name clashes with other libraries. Since the declaration of a namespace should be a simple piece of code I don't want to depend on any external libraries to provide me with this functionality. I've found various pieces of advice on how to do this simply but none seem to be free of errors when run through JSLint (using 'The Good Parts' options). As an example, I tried this from Advanced JavaScript (section Namespaces without YUI): "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } Running this through JSLint gives the following errors: Problem at line 2 character 12: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Problem at line 3 character 5: 'MyNamespace' is not defined. Implied global: MyNamespace 2,3 The 'Implied global' error can be fixed by explicitly declaring MyNamespace... "use strict"; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { var MyNamespace = {}; } ...and the other two errors can be fixed by declaring the variable outside the if block. "use strict"; var MyNamespace; if (typeof(MyNamespace) === 'undefined') { MyNamespace = {}; } So that works, but it seems to me that (since MyNamespace will always be undefined at the point it is checked?) it is equivalent to the much simpler: "use strict"; var MyNamespace = {}; JSLint is content with this but I'm concerned that I've simplified the code to such an extent that it will no longer function correctly as a namespace. Is this final formulation sensible?

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  • java : how to handle the design when template methods throw exception when overrided method not throw

    - by jiafu
    when coding. try to solve the puzzle: how to design the class/methods when InputStreamDigestComputor throw IOException? It seems we can't use this degisn structure due to the template method throw exception but overrided method not throw it. but if change the overrided method to throw it, will cause other subclass both throw it. So can any good suggestion for this case? abstract class DigestComputor{ String compute(DigestAlgorithm algorithm){ MessageDigest instance; try { instance = MessageDigest.getInstance(algorithm.toString()); updateMessageDigest(instance); return hex(instance.digest()); } catch (NoSuchAlgorithmException e) { LOG.error(e.getMessage(), e); throw new UnsupportedOperationException(e.getMessage(), e); } } abstract void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance); } class ByteBufferDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ private final ByteBuffer byteBuffer; public ByteBufferDigestComputor(ByteBuffer byteBuffer) { super(); this.byteBuffer = byteBuffer; } @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { instance.update(byteBuffer); } } class InputStreamDigestComputor extends DigestComputor{ // this place has error. due to exception. if I change the overrided method to throw it. evey caller will handle the exception. but @Override void updateMessageDigest(MessageDigest instance) { throw new IOException(); } }

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  • joomla and allow_url_fopen [closed]

    - by liz
    so i have been reading of the pros and cons of allowing: allow_url_fopen. but i am still confused. after a recent hacking incident (which i believe had nothing to do with allow_url_fopen) my host turned allow_url_fopen off. so the thing i dont get is, in joomla 2.5.x there is an updating feature.you can search for new versions and be notified if things are out of date. there is a big security hole if joomla or its extensions get out of date. But the catch it needs allow_url_fopen turned on. so why did joomla build a security risk into a feature to improve security??is it okay to turn allow_url_fopen on and have the updating feature? to clarify: my question is. i have Joomla installed. I have CURl installed. when i run the discover updates through NATIVE joomla i get a request for fopen. shouldn't i not need to enable a security risk? i am running version 2.5.8 of joomla.

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  • How to display a busy message over a wpf screen

    - by dave
    Hey, I have a WPF application based on Prism4. When performing slow operations, I want to show a busy screen. I will have a large number of screens, so I'm trying to build a single solution into the framework rather than adding the busy indicator to each screen. These long running operations run in a background thread. This allows the UI to be updated (good) but does not stop the user from using the UI (bad). What I'd like to do is overlay a control with a spinning dial sort of thing and have that control cover the entire screen (the old HTML trick with DIVs). When the app is busy, the control would display thus block any further interaction as well as showing the spinny thing. To set this up, I thought I could just have my app screen in a canvas along with the spinny thing (with a greater ZIndex) then just make the spinny thing visible as required. This, however, is getting hard. Canvases do not seem well set up for this and I think I might be barking up the wrong tree. I would appreciate any help. Thanks.

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  • I can't get RedirectToAction to work

    - by DaveDev
    I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect from if the user is valid. But nothing happens. The breakpoint in the redirected-to action method never gets hit. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group"); } else { return Json("Invalid"); } } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } And in another Controller, I have the following Action Method that I'm trying to redirect to: // HttpVerbs.Post doesn't work either [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Index(int? page) { const int pageSize = 10; IEnumerable<Group> groups = GetGroups(); var paginatedGroups = new PaginatedList<Group>(groups, page ?? 0, pageSize); return View(paginatedGroups); } private IEnumerable<Group> GetGroups() { return groupRepository.GetGroups(); } Is there anything obviously wrong with what I'm doing? Could somebody suggest a different approach I could take?

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  • Load PEM encoded private RSA key in Crypto++

    - by 01100110
    Often times, user will have PEM encoded RSA private keys. Crypto++ requires that these keys be in DER format to load. I've been asking people to manually convert their PEM files to DER beforehand using openssl like this: openssl pkcs8 -in in_file.pem -out out_file.der -topk8 -nocrypt -outform der That works fine, but some people don't understand how to do that nor do they want to. So I would like to convert PEM files to DER files automatically within the program. Is it as simple as striping the "-----BEGIN CERTIFICATE-----" and "-----END CERTIFICATE-----" from the PEM or is some other transformation required as well? I've been told that between those markers that it's just b64 encoded DER. Here's some code that demonstrates the issue: // load the private key CryptoPP::RSA::PrivateKey PK; CryptoPP::ByteQueue bytes; try { CryptoPP::FileSource File( rsa.c_str(), true, new CryptoPP::Base64Decoder() ); File.TransferTo( bytes ); bytes.MessageEnd(); // This line Causes BERDecodeError when a PEM encoded file is used PK.Load( bytes ); } catch ( CryptoPP::BERDecodeErr ) { // Convert PEM to DER and try to load the key again } I'd like to avoid making system calls to openssl and do the transformation entirely in Crypto++ so that users can provide either format and things "just work". Thanks for any advice.

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  • Validation problem with a 'JotForm' template

    - by Thomas
    A client sent me a form template they had created using jotform.com to implement on their wordpress site. The form template is supposed to hide part of the form until the user clicks the 'next' button. At which point a script is supposed to validate all of the input fields the user has presumably filled out and then display the rest of the form. While I have successfully managed to get the form to display the next part of the form when the user clicks 'next', it fails to validate the input fields. Its kind of difficult to explain without a huge block of text so it is probably easier to show you: The original working template that the customer sent me: http://www.loftist.com/jotform/List_Your_Loft.html The problem child: http://www.loftist.com/?page_id=78 If you just click on one of the input fields and then click elsewhere on the page, the input fields successfully return a validation error message and prevent the user from clicking on the 'next' button. However, if you simply click on the next button than the next set of fields get displayed. Any thoughts? What am I doing wrong here? Im convinced this must be a really simple problem but Im not sure what it could be....

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  • jquery equivalent for css3 transition ease-in

    - by Sebsemillia
    I want to make a jquery version of this css3 effect so that it also works in ff and ie: a:hover {color: #354250; -webkit-transition:background 500ms ease-in;} a.more:hover, a.more:focus, a.more:active {background-position: 0 -18px;} a.more:link, a.more:visited { background: url(images/moreButton.png) no-repeat 0 0; display: inline-block; height:18px; margin-top:10px; text-indent: -9999px; width:77px; } My tries didn't work, here is what I' ve got so far. $("a.more").hover(function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#354250', backgroundPosition: '0px -18px' }, slow, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px'}, 0); }); }, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px' }, 0); }); Do you have any idea how to fix this? Thank you very much!

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  • sending mail in contact information with c#.net problem? help please..

    - by ilkdrl
    protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string ad = TextBox1.Text; string firma = TextBox2.Text; string mail = TextBox3.Text; string tel = TextBox4.Text; string tel2 = TextBox5.Text; string fax = TextBox6.Text; string fax2 = TextBox7.Text; string web = TextBox8.Text; string mesaj = TextBox9.Text; try { string fromAddress = "[email protected]"; string fromName = "user"; string toMail = "[email protected]"; string toNme = "Mr."; string msgSubject = "Contact"; string sifre = "userpassword"; string msgBody = "you have a message; \n" + "\n" + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Adi :" + ad + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderen Firma :" + firma + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Maili :" + mail + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Tel. Numarasi :" + tel + tel2 + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Fax Numarasi :" + fax + fax2 + "\n" + "Mesaji Gönderenin Web Adresi :" + web + "\n" + "\n" + "\n" + "" + mesaj + "" + "\n" + "\n" + "=======================================" + "\n"; SmtpClient client = new SmtpClient(); client.Credentials = new System.Net.NetworkCredential(fromAddress, sifre); client.Host = "smtp.gmail.com"; client.Port = 1772; client.EnableSsl = false; MailAddress from = new MailAddress(fromAddress, fromName); MailAddress to = new MailAddress(toMail, toNme); MailMessage message = new MailMessage(from, to); message.Subject = msgSubject; message.Body = msgBody; client.Send(message); Response.Redirect("iletisim.aspx"); } catch (Exception ex) { } AND WEB.CONFIG http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=169433 -- iam trying to send email but i cant give. Where is my problem. Please help me.

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  • Trouble determining onclick's target

    - by pwseo
    I've tried and tried... and I can't seem to make this work in IE (tested version 6) Can anybody help me? IE complains about an error but refuses to tell which error it is... var a = document.getElementsByTagName("a"); for (i = 0; i < a.length; i++) { if (a[i].getAttribute("class") == "info-link") { a[i].onclick = function(e) { e = e || window.event; var target = e.srcElement || e.target; var info = target.parentNode.getElementsByTagName("div")[0]; if (info.style.display == "none" || info.style.display == "") { info.style.display = "block"; } else { info.style.display = "none"; } return false; } } } <div class="auxdata"> <a href="#" class="info-link">Esta questão possuí dados anexos. Clique para ver.</a> <div style="display: none;" class="info-inner"> <!-- variable stuff here --> </div> </div>

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  • how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

    - by rezna
    Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

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  • ActiveX won't run from server

    - by user1709555
    I have a MFC activeX that runs fine from disk but when I put it on a server I get errors. Client: WIN7 machine Server: Ubunto running apache The HTML and the errors are below, please advice. 10xs, Nahum HTML: <html> <HEAD> <TITLE>myFirstOCX.CAB</TITLE> <script type="text/javascript" FOR="window"> function fn() { try{ document.all('Ctrl1').AboutBox();//error: Undifiend : object doesn't have AboutBox() method //OR var obj = new ActiveXObject ("activex.activexCtrl"); obj.AboutBox ();//error: Undifiend : Automation server can't create object } catch (ex) { alert("Error: " + ex.Description + " : " + ex.message); } } </script> </HEAD> <body bgcolor=lightblue > <TABLE BORDER> <TR> <TD><OBJECT CLASSID="CLSID:E228C560-FA68-48E6-850F-B1167515C920" CODEBASE=".\nsip.CAB#version=1,0,0,1" ID="Ctrl1" name="Ctrl1"> </OBJECT> </TD> </TR> <TR> <TD ALIGN="CENTER"> <INPUT TYPE=BUTTON VALUE="Click Me" onclick="fn()" > </TD> </TR> </TABLE> <INPUT TYPE=TEXT ID="ConnectionString" VALUE="" > </body> </html>

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  • Using `<List>` when dealing with pointers in C#.

    - by Gorchestopher H
    How can I add an item to a list if that item is essentially a pointer and avoid changing every item in my list to the newest instance of that item? Here's what I mean: I am doing image processing, and there is a chance that I will need to deal with images that come in faster than I can process (for a short period of time). After this "burst" of images I will rely on the fact that I can process faster than the average image rate, and will "catch-up" eventually. So, what I want to do is put my images into a <List> when I acquire them, then if my processing thread isn't busy, I can take an image from that list and hand it over. My issue is that I am worried that since I am adding the image "Image1" to the list, then filling "Image1" with a new image (during the next image acquisition) I will be replacing the image stored in the list with the new image as well (as the image variable is actually just a pointer). So, my code looks a little like this: while (!exitcondition) { if(ImageAvailabe()) { Image1 = AcquireImage(); ImgList.Add(Image1); } if(ImgList.Count 0) { ProcessEngine.NewImage(ImgList[0]); ImgList.RemoveAt(0); } } Given the above, how can I ensure that: - I don't replace all items in the list every time Image1 is modified. - I don't need to pre-declare a number of images in order to do this kind of processing. - I don't create a memory devouring monster. Any advice is greatly appreciated.

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  • Custom Navigation Bar (html/css) for a website

    - by MikeStardust
    I am making a website and though of a cool navigation bar that is suppose to look like this: And using css code: #navigation ul { list-style: none; text-align: center; } #navigation li { display: inline; } #navigation li a { text-indent: -5000px; display: inline-block; height: 40px; } #navigation li a.profile { width: 240px; background: url("http://i.imgur.com/pphPRAA.png"); text-decoration: none; } #navigation li a.profile:hover { background: url("http://i.imgur.com/bDwcbXd.png"); background-position: -240px; text-decoration: none; } #navigation li a.profile:current { background: url("http://i.imgur.com/bDwcbXd.png"); background-position: -240px; background-repeat: no-repeat; text-decoration: none; } I managed to make it look like this: http://pokemasters.freeiz.com/bare.html I just ran out of ideas.... i got the images that i made seperatly, a navbar: & buttons: I'm looking for a full width navbar that adjusts itself to different screens, is located at the bottom of the screen, red buttons while active or hovered and white buttons while normal, with that pokeball line right on top of it and overlaying the buttons Can someone point me in the right direction please?? thank you:)

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  • [C#] Three System.Drawing methods manifest slow drawing or flickery: Solutions? or Other Options?

    - by Luke Mcneice
    Hi all, I am doing a little graphing via the System.Drawing and im having a few problems. I'm holding data in a Queue and i'm drawing(graphing) out that data onto three picture boxes this method fills the picture box then scrolls the graph across. so not to draw on top of the previous drawings (and graduly looking messier) i found 2 solutions to draw the graph. Call plot.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) before the draw loop [block commented] although this causes a flicker to appear from the time it takes to do the actual drawing loop. call plot.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); just before each drawline [commented] although this causes the drawing to start ok then slow down very quickly to a crawl as if a wait command had been placed before the draw command. Here is the Code for reference: /*plotx.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) ploty.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR) plotz.Clear(BACKGOUNDCOLOR)*/ for (int j = 1; j < 599; j++) { if (j > RealTimeBuffer.Count - 1) break; QueueEntity past = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j - 1); QueueEntity current = RealTimeBuffer.ElementAt(j); if (j == 1) { //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); //plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[5], 0, 140, 0, 0); } //plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); plotx.DrawLine(channelPen[0], j - 1, (((past.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.X - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[5], j, 140, j, 0); ploty.DrawLine(channelPen[1], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64), j, (((current.accdata.Y - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 64)); //plotz.DrawLine(markerPen, j, 140, j, 0); plotz.DrawLine(channelPen[2], j - 1, (((past.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94), j, (((current.accdata.Z - 0x7FFF) / 256) + 94)); } Is there any tricks to avoid these overheads? If not would there be any other/better solutions?

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  • Using the Queue class in Python 2.6

    - by voipme
    Let's assume I'm stuck using Python 2.6, and can't upgrade (even if that would help). I've written a program that uses the Queue class. My producer is a simple directory listing. My consumer threads pull a file from the queue, and do stuff with it. If the file has already been processed, I skip it. The processed list is generated before all of the threads are started, so it isn't empty. Here's some pseudo-code. import Queue, sys, threading processed = [] def consumer(): while True: file = dirlist.get(block=True) if file in processed: print "Ignoring %s" % file else: # do stuff here dirlist.task_done() dirlist = Queue.Queue() for f in os.listdir("/some/dir"): dirlist.put(f) max_threads = 8 for i in range(max_threads): thr = Thread(target=consumer) thr.start() dirlist.join() The strange behavior I'm getting is that if a thread encounters a file that's already been processed, the thread stalls out and waits until the entire program ends. I've done a little bit of testing, and the first 7 threads (assuming 8 is the max) stop, while the 8th thread keeps processing, one file at a time. But, by doing that, I'm losing the entire reason for threading the application. Am I doing something wrong, or is this the expected behavior of the Queue/threading classes in Python 2.6?

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