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  • Enforcing default time when only date in timestamptz provided

    - by Incognito
    Assume I have the table: postgres=# create table foo (datetimes timestamptz); CREATE TABLE postgres=# \d+ foo Table "public.foo" Column | Type | Modifiers | Storage | Description -----------+--------------------------+-----------+---------+------------- datetimes | timestamp with time zone | | plain | Has OIDs: no So lets insert some values into it... postgres=# insert into foo values ('2012-12-12'), --This is the value I want to catch for. (null), ('2012-12-12 12:12:12'), ('2012-12-12 12:12'); INSERT 0 4 And here's what we have: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 00:00:00+00 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) Ideally, I'd like to set up a default time-stamp value when a TIME is not provided with the input, rather than the de-facto time of 2012-12-12 being 00:00:00, I would like to set a default of 15:45:10. Meaning, my results should look like: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 15:45:10+00 --This one gets the default time. 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) I'm not really sure how to do this in postgres 8.4, I can't find anything in the datetime section of the manual or the sections regarding column default values.

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  • Incrementing value by one over a lot of rows

    - by Andy Gee
    Edit: I think the answer to my question lies in the ability to set user defined variables in MySQL through PHP - the answer by Multifarious has pointed me in this direction Currently I have a script to cycle over 10M records, it's very slow and it goes like this: I first get a block of 1000 results in an array similar to this: $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>46732, 'db_id'=>5532); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>12324, 'db_id'=>1234); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>45235, 'db_id'=>8345); $matches[] = array('quality_rank'=>75543, 'db_id'=>2562); I then cycle through them one by one and update the record $mult = count($matches)*2; foreach($matches as $m) { $rank++; $score = (($m[quality_rank] + $rank)/($mult))*100; $s = "UPDATE `packages_sorted` SET `price_rank` = '".$rank."', `deal_score` = '".$score."' WHERE `db_id` = '".$m[db_id]."' LIMIT 1"; } It seems like this is a very slow way of doing it but I can't find another way to increment the field price_rank by one each time. Can anyone suggest a better method. Note: Although I wouldn't usually store this kind of value in a database I really do need on this occasion for comparison search queries later on in the project. Any help would be kindly appreciated :)

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  • How does the receiver of a cipher text know the IV used for encryption?

    - by PatrickL
    If a random IV is used in encrypting plain text, how does the receiver of the cipher text know what the IV is in order to decrypt it? This is a follow-up question to a response to the previous stackoverflow question on IVs here. The IV allows for plaintext to be encrypted such that the encrypted text is harder to decrypt for an attacker. Each bit of IV you use will double the possibilities of encrypted text from a given plain text. The point is that the attacker doesn't know what the IV is and therefore must compute every possible IV for a given plain text to find the matching cipher text. In this way, the IV acts like a password salt. Most commonly, an IV is used with a chaining cipher (either a stream or block cipher). ... So, if you have a random IV used to encrypt the plain text, how do you decrypt it? Simple. Pass the IV (in plain text) along with your encrypted text. Wait. You just said the IV is randomly generated. Then why pass it as plain text along with the encrypted text?

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  • How to properly handle signals when using the worker thread pattern?

    - by ipartola
    I have a simple server that looks something like this: void *run_thread(void *arg) { // Communicate via a blocking socket } int main() { // Initialization happens here... // Main event loop while (1) { new_client = accept(socket, ...); pthread_create(&thread, NULL, &run_thread, *thread_data*); pthread_detach(thread); } // Do cleanup stuff: close(socket); // Wait for existing threads to finish exit(0); ) Thus when a SIGINT or SIGTERM is received I need to break out of the main event loop to get to the clean up code. Moreover most likely the master thread is waiting on the accept() call so it's not able to check some other variable to see if it should break;. Most of the advice I found was along the lines of this: http://devcry.blogspot.com/2009/05/pthreads-and-unix-signals.html (creating a special signal handling thread to catch all the signals and do processing on those). However, it's the processing portion that I can't really wrap my head around: how can I possibly tell the main thread to return from the accept() call and check on an external variable to see if it should break;?

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  • Why does VS2005 skip execution of lines when debugging managed C++ without optimizations?

    - by Sakin
    I ran into a rather odd behavior that I don't even know how to start describing. I wrote a piece of managed C++ code that makes calls to native methods. A (very) simplified version of the code would look like this (I know it looks like a full native function, just assume there is managed stuff being done all over the place): int somefunction(ptrHolder x) { // the accessptr method returns a native pointer if (x.accessptr() != nullptr) // I tried this with nullptr, NULL, 0) { try { x->doSomeNativeVeryImportantStuff(); // or whatever, doesn't matter } catch (SomeCustomExceptionClass &) { return 0; } } SomeOtherNativeClass::doStaticMagic(); return 1; } I compiled this code without optimizations using the /clr flag (VS.NET 2005, SP2) and when running it in the debugger I get to the if statement, since the pointer is actually null, I don't enter the if, but surprisingly, the cursor jumps directly to the return 1 statement, ignoring the doStaticMagic() method completely!!! When looking at the assembly code, I see that it really jumps directly to that line. If I force the debugger to enter the if block, I also jump to the return 1 statement after I press F10. Any ideas why this is happening? Thanks, Ariel

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  • visual studio 2008 (VB)

    - by Ousman
    hello guys, Am writing a programming with visual basic 2008 and i want the programme to be able to read and loop through a text file line by line and showing the event of the loop on a textbox or label until a button is press and the loop will stop on any number that happend to be at the loop event and when a button is press again the loop will continue from where it starts. this is my codes below and having problem with it and any help will be really great. tanks ==========================my codes======================= Imports System.IO '========================================================================================== Public Class Form1 '====================================================================================== 'Dim nFileNum As Integer = FreeFile() ' Get a free file number Dim strFileName As String = "C:\scb.txt" Dim objFilename As FileStream = New FileStream(strFileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.Read) Dim objFileRead As StreamReader = New StreamReader(objFilename) 'Dim lLineCount As Long 'Dim sNextLine As String '====================================================================================== '======================================================================================== Private Sub btStart_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles btStart.Click Try If objFileRead.ReadLine = Nothing Then MsgBox("No Accounts Available to show!", MsgBoxStyle.Information, MsgBoxStyle.DefaultButton2 = MsgBoxStyle.OkOnly) Return Else Do While (objFileRead.Peek() > -1) Loop lblAccounts.Text = objFileRead.ReadLine() 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End If Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Finally 'objFileRead.Close() 'objFilename.Close() End Try End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load End Sub End Class

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  • Java and Jasper

    - by bhargava
    Hey Guys, I have integrated Jasper Reports on my netbeans platform and i am able to generate reports using the following code. Map<String, Object> params = new HashMap<String, Object>(); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("databaseUrl", "userid","password"); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, conn); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); This stuff works perfect. But not i am trying to integrate Jasper with GWT.I have my server as glass fish server. I am getting the Connection object using the followind code. public static Connection getConnection() { try { String JNDI = "JNDI name"; InitialContext initCtx = new InitialContext(); javax.sql.DataSource ds = (javax.sql.DataSource) initCtx.lookup(JNDI); Connection conn = (Connection) ds.getConnection(); return conn; } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } return null; } and then Map params = new HashMap(); JasperReport jasperReport = JasperCompileManager.compileReport(reportSource); JasperPrint jasperPrint = JasperFillManager.fillReport(jasperReport, params, getConnection()); JasperExportManager.exportReportToHtmlFile(jasperPrint, reportDest); JasperViewer.viewReport(jasperPrint); but i always get Error.I am implementing this on Server.I am having RPC calls to get this method to work when a button is clicked. Can you please help me how to work on this.(That is to integrate Jasper reports with GWT). I would highly appreciate any explanation with some code as i am just a beginner. Thanks

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  • How do I create and send appointments to Microsoft Outlook calender?

    - by Shyju
    I am trying to create an appointment in the Microsoft Outlook (2003) calender of another person using the below code.While running this program, The Appointment is getting saved in my calender.But not being sent to the recipient. try { Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application app = null; Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.AppointmentItem appt = null; app = new Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.Application(); appt = (Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.AppointmentItem)app .CreateItem(Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.OlItemType.olAppointmentItem); appt.Subject = "Meeting "; appt.Body = "Test Appointment body"; appt.Location = "TBD"; appt.Start = Convert.ToDateTime("12/23/2009 05:00:00 PM"); appt.Recipients.Add("[email protected]"); appt.End = Convert.ToDateTime("12/23/2009 6:00:00 PM"); appt.ReminderSet = true; appt.ReminderMinutesBeforeStart = 15; appt.Importance = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.OlImportance.olImportanceHigh; appt.BusyStatus = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Outlook.OlBusyStatus.olBusy; appt.Save(); appt.Send(); } catch (COMException ex) { Response.Write(ex.ToString()); } Am i missing anything? Can any one help me out to solve this issue?

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  • Flash - can't access classes in another SWF

    - by Ashley Muller
    Hi, I'm trying to load a local SWF file and use the classes in that SWF (its a code only SWF, nothing in library). Here's the code that loads the library: var AD:ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, AD); SA_gamecore_loader = new Loader(); SA_gamecore_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onGameCoreLibraryDataComplete); SA_gamecore_loader.load(new URLRequest("GameCore.swf"), context); Here's the code that tries to instantiate a class from GameCore.swf: var test:Class = GetClassFromDefinition("MenuArt") as Class; var testInstance:Object = new test(); public function GetClassFromDefinition(theStr:String):Object { var theClass:Object; try { theClass = GameCoreLibraryData.applicationDomain.getDefinition(theStr); } catch(e:ReferenceError) { trace(e); return null; } return theClass; } And this is the message that's traced: ReferenceError: Error #1065: Variable MenuArt is not defined. The GameCore.swf is in the same location as the parent swf. I'm using Flash Develop if that helps. Anyone able to point out what I'm doing wrong?

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  • AngularJS - $routeParams Empty on $locationChangeSuccess

    - by Marc M.
    I configure my app in the following run block. Basically I want to preform an action that requires me to know the $routeParams every $locationChangeSuccess. However $routeParams is empty at this point! Are there any work rounds? What's going on? app.run(['$routeParams', function ($routeParams) { $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { console.log($routeParams); }); }]); UPDATE function configureApp(app, user) { app.config(['$routeProvider', function ($routeProvider) { $routeProvider. when('/rentroll', { templateUrl: 'rent-roll/rent-roll.html', controller: 'pwRentRollCtrl' }). when('/bill', { templateUrl: 'bill/bill/bill.html', controller: 'pwBillCtrl' }). when('/fileroom', { templateUrl: 'file-room/file-room/file-room.html', controller: 'pwFileRoomCtrl' }). when('/estate-creator', { templateUrl: 'estate/creator.html' }). when('/estate-manager', { templateUrl: 'estate/manager.html', controller: 'pwEstateManagerCtrl' }). when('/welcomepage', { templateURL: 'welcome-page/welcome-page.html', controller: 'welcomePageCtrl' }). otherwise({ redirectTo: '/welcomepage' }); }]); app.run(['$rootScope', '$routeParams', 'pwCurrentEstate','pwToolbar', function ($rootScope, $routeParams, pwCurrentEstate, pwToolbar) { $rootScope.user = user; $rootScope.$on("$locationChangeSuccess", function () { pwToolbar.reset(); console.log($routeParams); }); }]); } Accessing URL: http://localhost:8080/landlord/#/rentroll?landlord-account-id=ahlwcm9wZXJ0eS1tYW5hZ2VtZW50LXN1aXRlchwLEg9MYW5kbG9yZEFjY291bnQYgICAgICAgAoM&billing-month=2014-06

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  • How do I overload () operator with two parameters; like (3,5)?

    - by hkBattousai
    I have a mathematical matrix class. It contains a member function which is used to access any element of the class. template >class T> class Matrix { public: // ... void SetElement(T dbElement, uint64_t unRow, uint64_t unCol); // ... }; template <class T> void Matrix<T>::SetElement(T Element, uint64_t unRow, uint64_t unCol) { try { // "TheMatrix" is define as "std::vector<T> TheMatrix" TheMatrix.at(m_unColSize * unRow + unCol) = Element; } catch(std::out_of_range & e) { // Do error handling here } } I'm using this method in my code like this: // create a matrix with 2 rows and 3 columns whose elements are double Matrix<double> matrix(2, 3); // change the value of the element at 1st row and 2nd column to 6.78 matrix.SetElement(6.78, 1, 2); This works well, but I want to use operator overloading to simplify things, like below: Matrix<double> matrix(2, 3); matrix(1, 2) = 6.78; // HOW DO I DO THIS?

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  • When to use @Singleton in a Jersey resource

    - by dexter
    I have a Jersey resource that access the database. Basically it opens a database connection in the initialization of the resource. Performs queries on the resource's methods. I have observed that when I do not use @Singleton, the database is being open at each request. And we know opening a connection is really expensive right? So my question is, should I specify that the resource be singleton or is it really better to keep it at per request especially when the resource is connecting to the database? My resource code looks like this: //Use @Singleton here or not? @Path(/myservice/) public class MyResource { private ResponseGenerator responser; private Log logger = LogFactory.getLog(MyResource.class); public MyResource() { responser = new ResponseGenerator(); } @GET @Path("/clients") public String getClients() { logger.info("GETTING LIST OF CLIENTS"); return responser.returnClients(); } ... // some more methods ... } And I connect to the database using a code similar to this: public class ResponseGenerator { private Connection conn; private PreparedStatement prepStmt; private ResultSet rs; public ResponseGenerator(){ Class.forName("org.h2.Driver"); conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:h2:testdb"); } public String returnClients(){ String result; try{ prepStmt = conn.prepareStatement("SELECT * FROM hosts"); rs = prepStmt.executeQuery(); ... //do some processing here ... } catch (SQLException se){ logger.warn("Some message"); } finally { rs.close(); prepStmt.close(); // should I also close the connection here (in every method) if I stick to per request // and add getting of connection at the start of every method // conn.close(); } return result } ... // some more methods ... } Some comments on best practices for the code will also be helpful.

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  • Ruby: counters, counting and incrementing

    - by Shyam
    Hi, If you have seen my previous questions, you'd already know I am a big nuby when it comes to Ruby. So, I discovered this website which is intended for C programming, but I thought whatever one can do in C, must be possible in Ruby (and more readable too). The challenge is to print out a bunch of numbers. I discovered this nifty method .upto() and I used a block (and actually understanding its purpose). However, in IRb, I got some unexpected behavior. class MyCounter def run 1.upto(10) { |x| print x.to_s + " " } end end irb(main):033:0> q = MyCounter.new => #<MyCounter:0x5dca0> irb(main):034:0> q.run 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 => 1 I have no idea where the = 1 comes from :S Should I do this otherwise? I am expecting to have this result: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 Thank you for your answers, comments and feedback!

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  • Why are changes to classes ignored after dom changes?

    - by Lg102
    I have a price grid that uses relative positioning to move a field around, beneath a box with: overflow: hidden;. In this is field, there are absolute-positioned boxes containing prices. When this box is hovered, the matching values above and left of the will change color. In order to achieve this, a class is toggled using jQuery. This initially works. However, after the grid is moved, the class change doesn't affect the block above the grid anymore. In the Chrome console, i can see the class being added, but it's css-styling isn't applied. No other styles for the element have changed. I am 100% sure there is no other style-rule influencing the element, it just stops responding to the change in class after the DOM has been altered. Can i 'refresh' the DOM somehow? Edit: I've tried to get the relevant code only: Adding the cell in the first place: $("#price_dates_cells").append("<div id='"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"-"+theBeginDate.getDate()+"-"+(theBeginDate.getMonth()-1)+"' class='datecell' style='left: "+( Math.floor( difference / ( 3600 * 24 * 1000) ) * ( cellwidth ) )+"px'>"+weekday[theBeginDate.getDay()]+"<br>"+theBeginDate.getDate()+" "+yearmonth[theBeginDate.getMonth()]+"</div>"); Toggle the class: var str_element = "#"+weekday[Bdate.getDay()]+"-"+Bdate.getDate()+"-"+(Bdate.getMonth()-1); $(str_element).toggleClass("red"); and the movement that seems to cause the problem: $('#price_grid').animate({"top": (( ( horizontalMovement ) * cellheight)) }, 'fast', 'linear');

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  • Need help with threads in a client/server

    - by nunos
    For college, I am developing a local relay chat. I have to program a chat server and client that will only work on sending messages on different terminal windows on the same computer with threads and fifos. The fifos part I am having no trouble, the threads part is the one that is giving me some headaches. The server has one thread for receiving commands from a fifo (used by all clients) and another thread for each client that is connected. For each client that is connected I need to know a certain information. Firstly, I was using global variables, which worked as longs as there was only one client connected, which is much of a chat, to chat alone. So, ideally I would have some data like: -nickname -name -email -etc... per client that is connected. However, I don't know how to do that. I could create a client_data[MAX_NUMBER_OF_THREADS] where client_data was a struct with everything I needed to have access to, but this would require to, in every communication between server and client to ask for the id of the client in the array client_data and that does not seem very pratical I could also instantiate a client_data immediately after creating the thread but it would only be available in that block, and that is not very pratical either. As you can see I am in need of a little guidance here. Any comment, piece of code or link to any relevant information is greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Problem with thumbnails after newly added - PHP on-the-fly method

    - by Wayne
    Hey again... to those that may have read my previous question that got solved a couple minutes ago .< The on-the-fly php script works perfectly, but when I went to upload new images into a gallery which I made myself, the images are resized to 150 x 150 for what I wanted... however, when it comes to new images being added it is all black... As you can see the three black images that were uploaded to the folder and the directory added to the database. What is causing this? If I view the source, the code is fine... the while loop in the PHP generates an output like this: <div class="view-wrap" id="photo-10"> <div class="view-icon"> <div class="img-label"> <a href="#" id="10" class="delete"><img src="img/small-delete.png" /> Delete</a> </div> <a href="img/events/Paintballing/24251_1395408043148_1170626626_1204038_5382765_n.jpg"> <img src="image.php?dir=img/events/Paintballing/24251_1395408043148_1170626626_1204038_5382765_n.jpg" alt="" width="110" height="110" /> </a> </div> </div> An example of one block. If I view the source (in Firefox) and click on the image.php?dir=img/events/Paintballing/24251_1395408043148_1170626626_1204038_5382765_n.jpg by exmaple, I can see the thumbnail at it's 150 x 150 size but in the layout, it shows a black thumbnail... Does anyone know why this is happening?

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  • Convert a image to a monochrome byte array

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I am writing a library to interface C# with the EPL2 printer language. One feature I would like to try to implement is printing images, the specification doc says p1 = Width of graphic Width of graphic in bytes. Eight (8) dots = one (1) byte of data. p2 = Length of graphic Length of graphic in dots (or print lines) Data = Raw binary data without graphic file formatting. Data must be in bytes. Multiply the width in bytes (p1) by the number of print lines (p2) for the total amount of graphic data. The printer automatically calculates the exact size of the data block based upon this formula. I plan on my source image being a 1 bit per pixel bmp file, already scaled to size. I just don't know how to get it from that format in to a byte[] for me to send off to the printer. I tried ImageConverter.ConvertTo(Object, Type) it succeeds but the array it outputs is not the correct size and the documentation is very lacking on how the output is formatted. My current test code. Bitmap i = (Bitmap)Bitmap.FromFile("test.bmp"); ImageConverter ic = new ImageConverter(); byte[] b = (byte[])ic.ConvertTo(i, typeof(byte[])); Any help is greatly appreciated even if it is in a totally different direction.

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  • jQuery preventing RedirectToAction from working?

    - by DaveDev
    I'm trying to redirect the user if they login successfully but the code I have on my page seems to be preventing the redirection from working. If I remove the jQuery below the redirection works. Can somebody tell me tell me if there's something I'm doing wrong? Thanks I have the following Action: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Login(User user) { var myErrors = new Dictionary<string, string>(); try { if (ModelState.IsValid) { if (userRepository.ValidUser(user)) { return RedirectToAction("Index", "Group", new {page = (int?)null}); } else { return Json("Username or password seems to be incorrect"); } } else { foreach (KeyValuePair<string, ModelState> keyValuePair in ViewData.ModelState) { if (keyValuePair.Value.Errors.Count > 0) { List<string> errors = new List<string>(); myErrors.Add(keyValuePair.Key, keyValuePair.Value.Errors[0].ErrorMessage); } } return Json(myErrors); } } catch (Exception) { return Json("Invalid"); } } and the following code on my page: <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#SaveSuccess").hide(); $("#btnLogin").click(function() { $("form").submit(function(event) { var formData = $(this).serialize(); $.post($(this).attr("action"), formData, function(res) { ShowErrors(res); if (res == true) { $("#SaveSuccess").text("Saved"); } else { $("#divError").html(res); } $("#SaveSuccess").fadeIn(100); }, "json"); return false; }); }); }); </script>

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  • How to change CSS style of nested list items?

    - by Yasir
    I have a style for styling <a> elements in list items in a #navigation container. This is working fine. #navigation li a { text-decoration:none; background:#bfe5ff; color:#045e9f; width:125px; height:35px; padding-top:11px; display:block; float:left; margin-left:2px; text-align:center; font-size:18px; font-weight:bold; } Now in some <li>s I am inserting <div>s. In these I am again using a list again, but it should be different in style or have no style. When I put in <li>s, their style matches the outer <li> elements, but it should not. I am trying to use this: #newnavigation li a { font-size:12px; margin-left:20px; } but it's not working - it applies the "outer" styles. This is my markup: <ul id="navigation"> <li><a href="index.html">Home</a></li> <li><a href="about.html">About</a></li> <li><a href="contact.html">Contact</a></li> <li class="browse"> <a href="#">Browse</a> <div id="browsecontainer"> <h3>Browse By Category</h3> <li><a href="#"></a></li> </div> </li> </ul>

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  • Facebook Android SDK. Error validating access token

    - by Mj1992
    I am trying to access user information from facebook sdk.But I keep getting this error. {"error":{"message":"Error validating access token: The session has been invalidated because the user has changed the password.","type":"OAuthException","code":190,"error_subcode":460}} Here is the call which returns me the error in the response parameter of the oncomplete function. mAsyncRunner.request("me", new RequestListener() { @Override public void onComplete(String response, Object state) { Log.d("Profile", response); String json = response; //<-- error in response try { JSONObject profile = new JSONObject(json); MainActivity.this.userid = profile.getString("id"); new GetUserProfilePic().execute(); runOnUiThread(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), "Name: " + MainActivity.this.userid, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); } }); } catch (JSONException e) { e.printStackTrace(); Log.e("jsonexception",e.getMessage()); facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(MainActivity.this, null); GetUserInfo(); } } @Override public void onIOException(IOException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFileNotFoundException(FileNotFoundException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onMalformedURLException(MalformedURLException e, Object state) { } @Override public void onFacebookError(FacebookError e, Object state) { } }); Sometimes I get the correct response also.I think this is due to the access token expiration if I am right. So can you guys tell me how to extend the access token although I've used this facebook.extendAccessTokenIfNeeded(this, null); in the onResume method of the activity. How to solve this?

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  • Display one div if nothing is selected

    - by Levani
    I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"><!-- var lastDiv = ""; function showDiv(divName) { // hide last div if (lastDiv) { document.getElementById(lastDiv).className = "hiddenDiv"; } //if value of the box is not nothing and an object with that name exists, then change the class if (divName && document.getElementById(divName)) { document.getElementById(divName).className = "visibleDiv"; lastDiv = divName; } } //--> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"><!-- .hiddenDiv { display: none; } .visibleDiv { display: block; border: 1px grey solid; } --></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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  • I have data about deadlocks, but I can't understand why they occur

    - by Alex
    I am receiving a lot of deadlocks in my big web application. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2941233/how-to-automatically-re-run-deadlocked-transaction-asp-net-mvc-sql-server Here I wanted to re-run deadlocked transactions, but I was told to get rid of the deadlocks - it's much better, than trying to catch the deadlocks. So I spent the whole day with SQL Profiler, setting the tracing keys etc. And this is what I got. There's a Users table. I have a very high usable page with the following query (it's not the only query, but it's the one that causes troubles) UPDATE Users SET views = views + 1 WHERE ID IN (SELECT AuthorID FROM Articles WHERE ArticleID = @ArticleID) And then there's the following query in ALL pages: User = DB.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Password == password && u.Name == username); That's where I get User from cookies. Very often a deadlock occurs and this second Linq-to-SQL query is chosen as a victim, so it's not run, and users of my site see an error screen. I read a lot about deadlocks... And I don't understand why this is causing a deadlock. So obviously both of this queries run very often. At least once a second. Maybe even more often (300-400 users online). So they can be run at the same time very easily, but why does it cause a deadlock? Please help. Thank you

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  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

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  • HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick?

    - by bhups
    I am using the video element in my HTML as following:<div id="container" style="background:black; overflow:hidden;width:320px;height:240px" <video style="background:black;display:block" id="vdo" height="240px" width="320px" src="http://mydomain/vid.mp4"</video</div And in javascript I am doing this:var video=document.getElementById('vdo'); var container=document.getElementById('container'); video.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); container.addEventListener('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); console.log("clicked"); }, false); On desktop safari/chrome everything is working fine. I can see two "clicked" in the console. But on ipad there is nothing. First I tried with iOS versin 3.2, then I updated it to the latest one 4.2.1 without any success.I found a similar question HTML5 Video Element on iPad doesn't fire onclick or touchstart events? where it suggests not to use controls in video tag and I am not using it.

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  • tbody td borders not scrolling with content in tbody overflow:auto;

    - by tester
    I am unable to get the borders of these td's to follow their rows as I scroll through this overflow:auto; . Any ideas on a fix? Note: Setting table-layout:fixed or making rows display:block isn't an option as the rows will lose their fluidity.. You can see the issue in the latest Firefox, so I assume it's messed up elsewhere. Here is a test I setup (scroll to the bottom for the demo): http://www.webdevout.net/test?01y HTML: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <table> <thead><th>One</th><th>Two</th><th>Three</th></thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> <tr><td>Item</td><td>Item</td><td>Item</td></tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html> CSS: table {width:100%;border-collapse:collapse;} tbody {height:200px;overflow:auto;} td {border-bottom:1px solid #f00;}

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