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  • Symfony : ajax call cause server to queue next queries

    - by Remiz
    Hello, I've a problem with my application when an ajax call on the server takes too much time : it queue all the others queries from the user until it's done server side (I realized that canceling the call client side has no effect and the user still have to wait). Here is my test case : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="another-page.php">Go to another page on the same server</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = 'http://localserver/some-very-long-complex-query'; $.get(url); </script> So when the get is fired and then after I click on the link, the server finish serving the first call before bringing me to the other page. My problem is that I want to avoid this behavior. I'm on a LAMP server and I'm looking in a way to inform the server that the user aborted the query with function like connection_aborted(), do you think that's the way to go ? Also, I know that the longest part of this PHP script is a MySQL query, so even if I know that connection_aborted() can detect that the user cancel the call, I still need to check this during the MySQL query... I'm not really sure that PHP can handle this kind of "event". So if you have any better idea, I can't wait to hear it. Thank you. Update : After further investigation, I found that the problem happen only with the Symfony framework (that I omitted to precise, my bad). It seems that an Ajax call lock any other future call. It maybe related to the controller or the routing system, I'm looking into it. Also for those interested by the problem here is my new test case : -new project with Symfony 1.4.3, default configuration, I just created an app and a default module. -jquery 1.4 for the ajax query. Here is my actions.class.php (in my unique module) : class defaultActions extends sfActions { public function executeIndex(sfWebRequest $request) { //Do nothing } public function executeNewpage() { //Do also nothing } public function executeWaitingaction(){ // Wait sleep(30); return false; } } Here is my indexSuccess.php template file : <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.1.min.js"></script> <a href="<?php echo url_for('default/newpage');?>">Go to another symfony action</a> <script type="text/javascript"> url = '<?php echo url_for('default/waitingaction');?>'; $.get(url); </script> For the new page template, it's not very relevant... But with this, I'm able to reproduce the lock problem I've on my real application. Is somebody else having the same issue ? Thanks.

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  • Java app makes screen display unresponsive after 10 minutes of user idle time

    - by Ross
    I've written a Java app that allows users to script mouse/keyboard input (JMacro, link not important, only for the curious). I personally use the application to automate character actions in an online game overnight while I sleep. Unfortunately, I keep coming back to the computer in the morning to find it unresponsive. Upon further testing, I'm finding that my application causes the computer to become unresponsive after about 10 minutes of user idle time (even if the application itself it simulating user activity). I can't seem to pin-point the issue, so I'm hoping somebody else might have a suggestion of where to look or what might be causing the issue. The relevant symptoms and characteristics: Unresponsiveness occurs after user is idle for 10 minutes User can still move the mouse pointer around the screen Everything but the mouse appears frozen... mouse clicks have no effect and no applications update their displays, including the Windows 7 desktop I left the task manager up along the with the app overnight so I could see the last task manager image before the screen freezes... the Java app is at normal CPU/Memory usage and total CPU usage is only ~1% After moving the mouse (in other words, the user comes back from being idle), the screen image starts updating again within 30 minutes (this is very hit and miss... sometimes 10 minutes, sometimes no results after two hours) User can CTRL-ALT-DEL to get to Windows 7's CTRL-ALT-DEL screen (after a 30 second pause). User is still able to move mouse pointer, but clicking any of the button options causes the screen to appear to freeze again On some very rare occasions, the system never freezes, and I come back to it in the morning with full responsiveness The Java app automatically stops input scripting in the middle of the night, so Windows 7 detects "real" idleness and turns the monitors into Standby mode... which they successfully come out of upon manually moving the mouse in the morning when I wake up, even though the desktop display still appears frozen Given the symptoms and characteristics of the issue, it's as if the Java app is causing the desktop display of the logged in user to stop updating, including any running applications. Programming concepts and Java packages used: Multi-threading Standard out and err are rerouted to a javax.swing.JTextArea The application uses a Swing GUI awt.Robot (very heavily used) awt.PointerInfo awt.MouseInfo System Specs: Windows 7 Professional Java 1.6.0 u17 In conclusion, I should stress that I'm not looking for any specific solutions, as I'm not asking a very specific question. I'm just wondering if anybody has run into a similar problem when using the Java libraries that I'm using. I would also gladly appreciate any suggestions for things to try to attempt to further pinpoint what is causing my problem. Thanks! Ross PS, I'll post an update/answer if I manage to stumble across anything else while I continue to debug this.

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  • Am I just not understanding TDD unit testing (Asp.Net MVC project)?

    - by KallDrexx
    I am trying to figure out how to correctly and efficiently unit test my Asp.net MVC project. When I started on this project I bought the Pro ASP.Net MVC, and with that book I learned about TDD and unit testing. After seeing the examples, and the fact that I work as a software engineer in QA in my current company, I was amazed at how awesome TDD seemed to be. So I started working on my project and went gun-ho writing unit tests for my database layer, business layer, and controllers. Everything got a unit test prior to implementation. At first I thought it was awesome, but then things started to go downhill. Here are the issues I started encountering: I ended up writing application code in order to make it possible for unit tests to be performed. I don't mean this in a good way as in my code was broken and I had to fix it so the unit test pass. I mean that abstracting out the database to a mock database is impossible due to the use of linq for data retrieval (using the generic repository pattern). The reason is that with linq-sql or linq-entities you can do joins just by doing: var objs = select p from _container.Projects select p.Objects; However, if you mock the database layer out, in order to have that linq pass the unit test you must change the linq to be var objs = select p from _container.Projects join o in _container.Objects on o.ProjectId equals p.Id select o; Not only does this mean you are changing your application logic just so you can unit test it, but you are making your code less efficient for the sole purpose of testability, and getting rid of a lot of advantages using an ORM has in the first place. Furthermore, since a lot of the IDs for my models are database generated, I proved to have to write additional code to handle the non-database tests since IDs were never generated and I had to still handle those cases for the unit tests to pass, yet they would never occur in real scenarios. Thus I ended up throwing out my database unit testing. Writing unit tests for controllers was easy as long as I was returning views. However, the major part of my application (and the one that would benefit most from unit testing) is a complicated ajax web application. For various reasons I decided to change the app from returning views to returning JSON with the data I needed. After this occurred my unit tests became extremely painful to write, as I have not found any good way to write unit tests for non-trivial json. After pounding my head and wasting a ton of time trying to find a good way to unit test the JSON, I gave up and deleted all of my controller unit tests (all controller actions are focused on this part of the app so far). So finally I was left with testing the Service layer (BLL). Right now I am using EF4, however I had this issue with linq-sql as well. I chose to do the EF4 model-first approach because to me, it makes sense to do it that way (define my business objects and let the framework figure out how to translate it into the sql backend). This was fine at the beginning but now it is becoming cumbersome due to relationships. For example say I have Project, User, and Object entities. One Object must be associated to a project, and a project must be associated to a user. This is not only a database specific rule, these are my business rules as well. However, say I want to do a unit test that I am able to save an object (for a simple example). I now have to do the following code just to make sure the save worked: User usr = new User { Name = "Me" }; _userService.SaveUser(usr); Project prj = new Project { Name = "Test Project", Owner = usr }; _projectService.SaveProject(prj); Object obj = new Object { Name = "Test Object" }; _objectService.SaveObject(obj); // Perform verifications There are many issues with having to do all this just to perform one unit test. There are several issues with this. For starters, if I add a new dependency, such as all projects must belong to a category, I must go into EVERY single unit test that references a project, add code to save the category then add code to add the category to the project. This can be a HUGE effort down the road for a very simple business logic change, and yet almost none of the unit tests I will be modifying for this requirement are actually meant to test that feature/requirement. If I then add verifications to my SaveProject method, so that projects cannot be saved unless they have a name with at least 5 characters, I then have to go through every Object and Project unit test to make sure that the new requirement doesn't make any unrelated unit tests fail. If there is an issue in the UserService.SaveUser() method it will cause all project, and object unit tests to fail and it the cause won't be immediately noticeable without having to dig through the exceptions. Thus I have removed all service layer unit tests from my project. I could go on and on, but so far I have not seen any way for unit testing to actually help me and not get in my way. I can see specific cases where I can, and probably will, implement unit tests, such as making sure my data verification methods work correctly, but those cases are few and far between. Some of my issues can probably be mitigated but not without adding extra layers to my application, and thus making more points of failure just so I can unit test. Thus I have no unit tests left in my code. Luckily I heavily use source control so I can get them back if I need but I just don't see the point. Everywhere on the internet I see people talking about how great TDD unit tests are, and I'm not just talking about the fanatical people. The few people who dismiss TDD/Unit tests give bad arguments claiming they are more efficient debugging by hand through the IDE, or that their coding skills are amazing that they don't need it. I recognize that both of those arguments are utter bullocks, especially for a project that needs to be maintainable by multiple developers, but any valid rebuttals to TDD seem to be few and far between. So the point of this post is to ask, am I just not understanding how to use TDD and automatic unit tests?

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  • How to stream semi-live audio over internet

    - by Thomas Tempelmann
    I want to write something like Skype, i.e. I have a constant audio stream on one computer and then recompress it in a format that's suitable for a latent internet connection, receive it on the other end and play it. Let's also assume that the internet connection is fairly modern and fast, i.e. DSL or alike, no slow connections over phone and such. The involved computers will also be rather modern (Dual Core Intel CPUs at 2GHz or more). I know how to handle the audio on the machines. What I don't know is how to transmit the audio in an efficient way. The challenges are: I'd like get good audio quality across the line. The stream should be received without drops. The stream may, however, be received with a little delay (a second delay is acceptable). I imagine that the transport software could first determine the average (and max) latency, then start the stream and tell the receiver to wait for that max latency before starting to play the audio. With that, if the latency doesn't get any higher, the entire stream will be playable on the other side without stutter or drops. If, due to unexpected IP latencies or blockages, the stream does get cut off, I want to be able to notice this so that I can take actions (e.g. abort the stream) and eventually start a new transmission. What are my options if I want do use ready-made software for the compression and tranmission? I have no intention to write my own audio compression engine, really. OTOH, I plan to sell the solution in a vertical market, meaning I can afford a few dollars of license fees per copy, but not $100s. I guess the simplest solution would be to just open a TCP stream, send a few packets back and forth to determine their running time (or even use UDP for that), then use the results as the guide for my max latency value, then simply fire the audio data in its raw form (uncompressed 16 bit stereo), along with a timing code over the TCP connection. The receiver reads the data and plays it with the pre-determined delay. That might just work with the type of fast connection I expect. I just wonder if there are better solutions to reach this goal, with better performance (lower latency) and less data (compressed). BTW, I first try to implement this on OS X, but might want to do it on Windows, too, if it proves successful.

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  • JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

    - by timaschew
    I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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  • Multiple checkbox values search javascript

    - by JV10
    I have a list of keywords, and I've created a checkbox for each. My template has a form wrapping the content, so I can't have a nested form around the checkbox list. How can I send the selected checkbox values to my search results page? The form that wraps the content doesn't have any actions or methods applied: <form id="BoostMasterForm" runat="server"> This the HTML markup of my checkbox list: <div class="checkboxes"> <ul> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="one"> <label>one</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="two"> <label>two</label> </li> <li> <input type="checkbox" name="search" class="options" value="three"> <label>three</label> </li> </ul> <input type="submit" value="Submit"/> </div> How can I use javascript or jQuery to submit the values of the multiple checkbox selections and on submit action them to the following URL: '/imagery/image-search.aspx' The resulting URL for a search where option 1 and 3 are submitted should be: '/imagery/image-search.aspx?search=one%20three' I'm using this javascript that I found on another post, however I need it to append the form an the action and the method. My website is ASP, where this post is for a PHP site: Sending multiple checkbox options $('.options').click(function() { var selectedItems = new Array(); $(".checkboxes input:checkbox[name=search]:checked").each(function() {selectedItems.push($(this).val());}); var data = selectedItems.join('|'); $("#opts").val(data); }); If anyone can help, it'd be greatly appreciated. Cheers, JV

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  • how to design this relation in a DB schema

    - by raticulin
    I have a table Car in my db, one of the columns is purchaseDate. I want to be able to tag every car with a number of Policies (limited to 10 policies). Each policy has a time to life (ttl, a duration of time, like '5 years', '10 months' etc), that is, for how long since the car's purchaseDate the policy can be applied. I need to perform the following actions: when inserting a Car, it will be set with a number of Policies (at least one is set) sometimes a Car will be updated to add/remove a Policy searches must be done taking into account date/policies, for example: 'select all cars that are not covered by any policy as of today' My current design is (pol0..pol9 are the policies): CREATE TABLE Car ( id int NOT NULL IDENTITY(1,1), purchaseDate datetime NOT NULL, //more stuff... pol0 smallint default NULL, pol1 smallint default NULL, pol2 smallint default NULL, pol3 smallint default NULL, pol4 smallint default NULL, pol5 smallint default NULL, pol6 smallint default NULL, pol7 smallint default NULL, pol8 smallint default NULL, pol9 smallint default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) CREATE TABLE Policy ( id smallint NOT NULL, name varchar(50) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, ttl varchar(100) collate Latin1_General_BIN NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (id) ) The problem I am facing is that the sql to perform the query above is a nightmare to write. As I don't know in which column each policy can be, so I have to check all columns for every policy etc etc. So I am wondering wether it is worth changing this. My questions are: The smallint as Policy id was chosen instead of an 'int IDENTITY' in order to save some space as there are going to be millions of Car records. It just adds complexity when creating a Policy as we must handle the id etc. Was it worth doing this? I am thinking that maybe there is a much better design? Obviously we could move the policy/car relation to its own table CarPolicy, benefits would be: no limit on 10 policies per car adding/removing etc much easier when only the default policy is applied (when no others are applied one called Default policy is applied), we could signal that by not having any entry in CarPolicy, now this is just done inserting the Default policy id in one of the columns. The cons are that we would need to change the DB, ORM classes etc. What would you recommend? Maybe there is another smart way to implement this that we are not aware without using the CarPolicy table?

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  • Precise explanation of JavaScript <-> DOM circular reference issue

    - by Joey Adams
    One of the touted advantages of jQuery.data versus raw expando properties (arbitrary attributes you can assign to DOM nodes) is that jQuery.data is "safe from circular references and therefore free from memory leaks". An article from Google titled "Optimizing JavaScript code" goes into more detail: The most common memory leaks for web applications involve circular references between the JavaScript script engine and the browsers' C++ objects' implementing the DOM (e.g. between the JavaScript script engine and Internet Explorer's COM infrastructure, or between the JavaScript engine and Firefox XPCOM infrastructure). It lists two examples of circular reference patterns: DOM element → event handler → closure scope → DOM DOM element → via expando → intermediary object → DOM element However, if a reference cycle between a DOM node and a JavaScript object produces a memory leak, doesn't this mean that any non-trivial event handler (e.g. onclick) will produce such a leak? I don't see how it's even possible for an event handler to avoid a reference cycle, because the way I see it: The DOM element references the event handler. The event handler references the DOM (either directly or indirectly). In any case, it's almost impossible to avoid referencing window in any interesting event handler, short of writing a setInterval loop that reads actions from a global queue. Can someone provide a precise explanation of the JavaScript ↔ DOM circular reference problem? Things I'd like clarified: What browsers are effected? A comment in the jQuery source specifically mentions IE6-7, but the Google article suggests Firefox is also affected. Are expando properties and event handlers somehow different concerning memory leaks? Or are both of these code snippets susceptible to the same kind of memory leak? // Create an expando that references to its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.myself = elem; // Create an event handler that references its own element. var elem = document.getElementById('foo'); elem.onclick = function() { elem.style.display = 'none'; }; If a page leaks memory due to a circular reference, does the leak persist until the entire browser application is closed, or is the memory freed when the window/tab is closed?

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  • ActionResult - Service

    - by cem
    I bored, writing same code for service and ui. Then i tried to write a converter for simple actions. This converter, converting Service Results to MVC result, seems like good solution for me but anyway i think this gonna opposite MVC pattern. So here, I need help, what you think about algorithm - is this good or not? Thanks ServiceResult - Base: public abstract class ServiceResult { public static NoPermissionResult Permission() { return new NoPermissionResult(); } public static SuccessResult Success() { return new SuccessResult(); } public static SuccessResult<T> Success<T>(T result) { return new SuccessResult<T>(result); } protected ServiceResult(ServiceResultType serviceResultType) { _resultType = serviceResultType; } private readonly ServiceResultType _resultType; public ServiceResultType ResultType { get { return _resultType; } } } public class SuccessResult<T> : ServiceResult { public SuccessResult(T result) : base(ServiceResultType.Success) { _result = result; } private readonly T _result; public T Result { get { return _result; } } } public class SuccessResult : SuccessResult<object> { public SuccessResult() : this(null) { } public SuccessResult(object o) : base(o) { } } Service - eg. ForumService: public ServiceResult Delete(IVUser user, int id) { Forum forum = Repository.GetDelete(id); if (!Permission.CanDelete(user, forum)) { return ServiceResult.Permission(); } Repository.Delete(forum); return ServiceResult.Success(); } Controller: public class BaseController { public ActionResult GetResult(ServiceResult result) { switch (result.ResultType) { case ServiceResultType.Success: var successResult = (SuccessResult)result; return View(successResult.Result); break; case ServiceResultType.NoPermission: return View("Error"); break; default: return View(); break; } } } [HandleError] public class ForumsController : BaseController { [ValidateAntiForgeryToken] [Transaction] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Delete(int id) { ServiceResult result = ForumService.Delete(WebUser.Current, id); /* Custom result */ if (result.ResultType == ServiceResultType.Success) { TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "The forum was successfully deleted."; return this.RedirectToAction(ec => Index()); } /* Custom result */ /* Execute Permission result etc. */ TempData[ControllerEnums.GlobalViewDataProperty.PageMessage.ToString()] = "A problem was encountered preventing the forum from being deleted. " + "Another item likely depends on this forum."; return GetResult(result); } }

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  • .Net Remote Log Querying

    - by jlafay
    I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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  • How does Sentry aggregate errors?

    - by Hugo Rodger-Brown
    I am using Sentry (in a django project), and I'd like to know how I can get the errors to aggregate properly. I am logging certain user actions as errors, so there is no underlying system exception, and am using the culprit attribute to set a friendly error name. The message is templated, and contains a common message ("User 'x' was unable to perform action because 'y'"), but is never exactly the same (different users, different conditions). Sentry clearly uses some set of attributes under the hood to determine whether to aggregate errors as the same exception, but despite having looked through the code, I can't work out how. Can anyone short-cut my having to dig further into the code and tell me what properties I need to set in order to manage aggregation as I would like? [UPDATE 1: event grouping] This line appears in sentry.models.Group: class Group(MessageBase): """ Aggregated message which summarizes a set of Events. """ ... class Meta: unique_together = (('project', 'logger', 'culprit', 'checksum'),) ... Which makes sense - project, logger and culprit I am setting at the moment - the problem is checksum. I will investigate further, however 'checksum' suggests that binary equivalence, which is never going to work - it must be possible to group instances of the same exception, with differenct attributes? [UPDATE 2: event checksums] The event checksum comes from the sentry.manager.get_checksum_from_event method: def get_checksum_from_event(event): for interface in event.interfaces.itervalues(): result = interface.get_hash() if result: hash = hashlib.md5() for r in result: hash.update(to_string(r)) return hash.hexdigest() return hashlib.md5(to_string(event.message)).hexdigest() Next stop - where do the event interfaces come from? [UPDATE 3: event interfaces] I have worked out that interfaces refer to the standard mechanism for describing data passed into sentry events, and that I am using the standard sentry.interfaces.Message and sentry.interfaces.User interfaces. Both of these will contain different data depending on the exception instance - and so a checksum will never match. Is there any way that I can exclude these from the checksum calculation? (Or at least the User interface value, as that has to be different - the Message interface value I could standardise.) [UPDATE 4: solution] Here are the two get_hash functions for the Message and User interfaces respectively: # sentry.interfaces.Message def get_hash(self): return [self.message] # sentry.interfaces.User def get_hash(self): return [] Looking at these two, only the Message.get_hash interface will return a value that is picked up by the get_checksum_for_event method, and so this is the one that will be returned (hashed etc.) The net effect of this is that the the checksum is evaluated on the message alone - which in theory means that I can standardise the message and keep the user definition unique. I've answered my own question here, but hopefully my investigation is of use to others having the same problem. (As an aside, I've also submitted a pull request against the Sentry documentation as part of this ;-)) (Note to anyone using / extending Sentry with custom interfaces - if you want to avoid your interface being use to group exceptions, return an empty list.)

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  • How not to abort http response c#

    - by user194076
    I need to run several methods after sending file to a user for a download. What happens is that after I send a file to a user, response is aborted and I can no longer do anything after response.end(). for example, this is my sample code: Response.Clear(); Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); Response.BinaryWrite(a); Response.End(); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); So, in this example StartNextMethod and Response.Redirect are not executing. What I tried is I created a separate handler(ashx) with the following code: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.Clear(); context.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=test.pdf"); context.Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; byte[] a = System.Text.Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("test"); context.Response.BinaryWrite(a); context.Response.End(); } and call it like this: Download d = new Download(); d.ProcessRequest(HttpContext.Current); StartNextMethod(); Response.Redirect(URL); but the same error happen. I've tryied to replace Response.End with CompleteRequest but it doesn't help. I guess the problem is that I'm using HttpContext.Current but should use a separate response stream. Is that correct? how do I do that in a separate method generically (Assume that I want my handler to accept byte array of data and content type and be downloadable from a separate response. I really do not want to use a separate page for a response. UPDATE I still didn't find a good solution. I'd like to do some actions after user has downloaded a file, but without using a separate page for a response\request thing.

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • Flex Drag & Drop: Detecting when all data has been moved from source to destination

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have two mx:TileList controls that I'm using to allow editing of objects in batch. The first contains a collection of all available data, and the 2nd contains the current batch. Both are bound to ArrayCollections, and using the native drag-n-drop functionality of the TileList control the data is moved from one ArrayCollection to the other when an object is dragged between them. I need to change the currentState to show & reset the batch manipulation controls when the batch count goes from 0 to n or n to 0 items. Based on the documentation, I would have thought that I should listen to the dragComplete event, but my testing shows that instead of firing after the data has been removed from the source ArrayCollection and added to the destination ArrayCollection, it fires (consistently) between these two actions. Both lists are similar to this: <mx:TileList id="srcList" dragEnabled="true" dropEnabled="true" dragMoveEnabled="true" dataProvider="{images}" dragComplete="handleDragComplete(event)" allowMultipleSelection="true" /> And here's the source of the handleDragComplete function: private function handleDragComplete(e:DragEvent):void{ trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: batch.length=' + batch.length.toString()); trace(e.dragInitiator.name + '.dragComplete: images.length=' + images.length.toString()); if (batch.length > 0){ currentState = 'show'; }else{ currentState = ''; } } And lastly, here's some example output from running the code. These are all run one after the other. Case 1: The application loads with 10 objects in the first list and the batch is empty. I dragged 1 object from the source list to the batch list. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=1 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 1,9) Clearly, the object has been added to the batch ArrayCollection but not removed from the source. Case 2: Now, I'll drag a 2nd object into the batch. srcList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 srcList.dragComplete: images.length=9 (Expected: 2,8) Firstly, we can see that images.length has changed, showing that the object that I dragged from the source list to the batch list was removed AFTER the dragComplete event fired. The same thing happens this time: The new object is added to the batch ArrayCollection (batch.length=2), the dragComplete event fires (running these traces), and then the object is removed from the source ArrayCollection. Case 3: Now, I'll drag both images from the batch list back to their original location in the source list. batchList.dragComplete: batch.length=2 batchList.dragComplete: images.length=10 (Expected: 0,10) We can see that batch.length hasn't gone down, but the source images array is back at its original length of 10. QUESTION: Am I doing something wrong? Is there another event I could listen for? (Note: I tried both DragExit and DragDrop, just to be sure, and those behave as expected, but are not what I need.) Or is there another way to get the data that I want? Or... have I found a bug in the SDK?

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  • Approaches for Content-based Item Recommendations

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hello, I'm currently developing an application where I want to group similar items. Items (like videos) can be created by users and also their attributes can be altered or extended later (like new tags). Instead of relying on users' preferences as most collaborative filtering mechanisms do, I want to compare item similarity based on the items' attributes (like similar length, similar colors, similar set of tags, etc.). The computation is necessary for two main purposes: Suggesting x similar items for a given item and for clustering into groups of similar items. My application so far is follows an asynchronous design and I want to decouple this clustering component as far as possible. The creation of new items or the addition of new attributes for an existing item will be advertised by publishing events the component can then consume. Computations can be provided best-effort and "snapshotted", which means that I'm okay with the best result possible at a given point in time, although result quality will eventually increase. So I am now searching for appropriate algorithms to compute both similar items and clusters. At important constraint is scalability. Initially the application has to handle a few thousand items, but later million items might be possible as well. Of course, computations will then be executed on additional nodes, but the algorithm itself should scale. It would also be nice if the algorithm supports some kind of incremental mode on partial changes of the data. My initial thought of comparing each item with each other and storing the numerical similarity sounds a little bit crude. Also, it requires n*(n-1)/2 entries for storing all similarities and any change or new item will eventually cause n similarity computations. Thanks in advance! UPDATE tl;dr To clarify what I want, here is my targeted scenario: User generate entries (think of documents) User edit entry meta data (think of tags) And here is what my system should provide: List of similar entries to a given item as recommendation Clusters of similar entries Both calculations should be based on: The meta data/attributes of entries (i.e. usage of similar tags) Thus, the distance of two entries using appropriate metrics NOT based on user votings, preferences or actions (unlike collaborative filtering). Although users may create entries and change attributes, the computation should only take into account the items and their attributes, and not the users associated with (just like a system where only items and no users exist). Ideally, the algorithm should support: permanent changes of attributes of an entry incrementally compute similar entries/clusters on changes scale something better than a simple distance table, if possible (because of the O(n²) space complexity)

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  • Play! Framework - Can my view template be localised when rendering it as an AsyncResult?

    - by avik
    I've recently started using the Play! framework (v2.0.4) for writing a Java web application. In the majority of my controllers I'm following the paradigm of suspending the HTTP request until the promise of a web service response has been fulfilled. Once the promise has been fulfilled, I return an AsyncResult. This is what most of my actions look like (with a bunch of code omitted): public static Result myActionMethod() { Promise<MyWSResponse> wsResponse; // Perform a web service call that will return the promise of a MyWSResponse... return async(wsResponse.map(new Function<MyWSResponse, Result>() { @Override public Result apply(MyWSResponse response) { // Validate response... return ok(myScalaViewTemplate.render(response.data())); } })); } I'm now trying to internationalise my app, but hit the following error when I try to render a template from an async method: [error] play - Waiting for a promise, but got an error: There is no HTTP Context available from here. java.lang.RuntimeException: There is no HTTP Context available from here. at play.mvc.Http$Context.current(Http.java:27) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.mvc.Http$Context$Implicit.lang(Http.java:124) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at play.i18n.Messages.get(Messages.java:38) ~[play_2.9.1.jar:2.0.4] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.apply(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:40) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate$.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala:87) ~[classes/:na] at views.html.myScalaViewTemplate.render(myScalaViewTemplate.template.scala) ~[classes/:na] In short, where I've got a message bundle lookup in my view template, some Play! code is attempting to access the original HTTP request and retrieve the accept-languages header, in order to know which message bundle to use. But it seems that the HTTP request is inaccessible from the async method. I can see a couple of (unsatisfactory) ways to work around this: Go back to the 'one thread per request' paradigm and have threads block waiting for responses. Figure out which language to use at Controller level, and feed that choice into my template. I also suspect this might not be an issue on trunk. I know that there is a similar issue in 2.0.4 with regards to not being able to access or modify the Session object which has recently been fixed. However I'm stuck on 2.0.4 for the time being, so is there a better way that I can resolve this problem?

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  • join 03 table in the database codeIgniter

    - by python
    with my table. person_id serial NOT NULL, firstname character varying(30) NOT NULL, lastname character varying(30), email character varying(50), username character varying(20) NOT NULL, "password" character varying(100) NOT NULL, gender character varying(10), dob date, accesslevel smallint NOT NULL, company_id integer NOT NULL,//Reference to table company position_id integer NOT NULL,//Reference to table position company_id serial NOT NULL, company_name character varying(80) NOT NULL, description character varying(255), address character varying(100) NOT NULL, In my controller ........................ // load data $persons = $this->person_model->get_paged_list(10,0); // generate table data $this->load->library('table'); $this->table->set_empty("&nbsp;"); $this->table->set_heading('No', 'FirstName', 'LastName','E-mail','Company''Gender', 'Date of Birth', 'Actions'); foreach ($persons as $person){ $this->table->add_row(++$i, $person->firstname, $person->lastname, $person->email, $person->company_name, //HOW CAN I GOT THE POSITION TITLE ?, strtoupper($person->gender)=='M'? 'Male':'Female', date('d-m-Y',strtotime($person->dob)), } My model <?php class Person_Model extends Model { private $person= 'person'; function Person(){ parent::Model(); } function list_all(){ $this->db->order_by('person_id','asc'); return $this->db->get($person); } function count_all(){ return $this->db->count_all($this->person); } function get_paged_list($limit = 0, $offset = 0) { $this->db->limit($limit, $offset); $this->db->select("person.*, company.company_name as company"); $this->db->from('person'); $this->db->join('company','person.company_id = company.company_id','left'); //MY QUESTION:? CAN I JOIN MORE WITH TABLE POSITION? $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_by_id($id){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); return $this->db->get($this->person); } function save($person){ $this->db->insert($this->person, $person); return $this->db->insert_id(); } function update($id, $person){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); $this->db->update($this->person, $person); } function delete($id){ $this->db->where('person_id', $id); $this->db->delete($this->person); } } ?>

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  • Rails nested form for belongs_to

    - by user1232533
    I'm new to rails and have some troubles with creating a nested form. My models: class User < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :company accepts_nested_attributes_for :company, :reject_if => :all_blank end class Company < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :users end Now i would like to create a new company from the user sign_up page (i use Devise btw) by given only a company name. And have a relation between the new User and new Company. In the console i can create a company for a existing User like this: @company = User.first.build_company(:name => "name of company") @company.save That works, but i can't make this happen for a new user, in my new user sign_up form i tried this (i know its wrong by creating a new User fist but im trying to get something working here..): <%= simple_form_for(resource, :as => resource_name, :html => { :class => 'form-horizontal' }, :url => registration_path(resource_name)) do |f| %> <%= f.error_notification %> <div class="inputs"> <% @user = User.new company = @user.build_company() %> <% f.fields_for company do |builder| %> <%= builder.input :name, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <% end %> <%= f.input :email, :required => true, :autofocus => true %> <%= f.input :password, :required => true %> <%= f.input :password_confirmation, :required => true %> </div> <div class="form-actions"> <%= f.button :submit, :class => 'btn-primary', :value => 'Sign up' %> </div> I did my best to google for a solution/ example.. found some nested form examples but it's just not clear to me how to do this. Really hope somebody can help me with this. Any help on this would be appreciated. Thanks in advance! Greets, Daniel

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  • asp.net mvc 2 multithread

    - by Chris Cap
    I'm getting some weird behavior in asp.net MVC2 (at least it's not what I'm expecting). I have a controller httppost action that processes credit cards. I'm setting a session variable on the server to let me know if a user has attempted to process a card. I clear that session variable when I'm done. I am doing some very quick posts to test the process and the session variable is coming back null everytime because I clear the session variable at the end of the process. I have some debug prints that show me that the all requests are processed synchronously. That is...the first attempt occurs, it fails, session variable is cleared, second attempt tries and fails and the variable is cleared, etc... My first thought was that this was a side effect of debugging and that it just lined requests up for debugging purposes using the local webserver. So I put it on a development server and the same thing is occurring. Multiple submits/posts are processed synchronously. I even put a System.Threading.Sleep in there to make sure it would stop right after I set the session variable and it still won't even START the second request until the first is done. Has anyone else seen this behavior? My understanding was that a worker process was spawned for each request and that these actions could happen asychronously. Here's some psuedo code if (Session["CardCharged"] != null) return RedirectToAction("Index", "Problem"); Session["CardCharged"] = false; //starting the process System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10000); //charge card here if (!providerResponse.IsApproved) { System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("failed"); Session["CardCharged"] = null; //have to allow them to charge again since this failed return View(myModel); } Session["CardCharged"] = true; return RedirectToAction("Index", "OrderComplete"); I should mention that my code ALWAYS fails the credit card check for testing purposes. I'm trying to test the situation where processing is STILL occurring and redirect the user elsewhere. I have set a dummy session variable elsewhere to assure that the session id "sticks". So I know the session id is the same for each request. Thanks

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  • Submit button outside form_for loop

    - by user1152142
    I have set up some horizontal tabs using twitter bootstrap and I am rendering a form inside each of the tabs: <div class="tab-content"> <div id="tab1" class="tab-pane active"> <%= render :partial => "shipdr/websites/form", locals: {:@shipdr_website => shipdr_website} %> </div> <div id="tab2" class="tab-pane"> Another form (not yet implemented) </div> <div id="tab3" class="tab-pane"> Another form (not yet implemented). </div> </div> Then in shipdr/websites/form I have: <%= simple_form_for(@shipdr_website) do |f| %> <% if @shipdr_website.errors.any? %> <div id="error_explanation"> <h2><%= pluralize(@shipdr_website.errors.count, "error") %> prohibited this shipdr_website from being saved:</h2> <ul> <% @shipdr_website.errors.full_messages.each do |msg| %> <li><%= msg %></li> <% end %> </ul> </div> <% end %> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :name %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :url %> </div> <div class="field"> <%= f.input :api_key %> </div> <div class="actions"> <%= f.submit nil, :class => "btn btn-primary" %> </div> <% end %> I want to move the submit button outside of the "tab-content" area so when a user clicks the submit button, all three forms area submitted. All forms will use that same model and the same action but will have different field. The idea is similar to a wizard except I am using tabs. Does anyone have any idea how I can move the submit button outside of the form_for loop and how I can submit the three forms with a single button?

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  • When does logic belong in the Business Object/Entity, and when does it belong in a Service?

    - by Casey
    In trying to understand Domain Driven Design I keep returning to a question that I can't seem to definitively answer. How do you determine what logic belongs to a Domain entity, and what logic belongs to a Domain Service? Example: We have an Order class for an online store. This class is an entity and an aggregate root (it contains OrderItems). Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Public Order(List<IOrderItem>) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> } Public Decimal CalculateTotalItemWeight() //This logic seems to belong in the entity. { Decimal TotalWeight = 0 foreach(IOrderItem OrderItem in OrderItems) { TotalWeight += OrderItem.Weight } return TotalWeight } } I think most people would agree that CalculateTotalItemWeight belongs on the entity. However, at some point we have to ship this order to the customer. To accomplish this we need to do two things: 1) Determine the postage rate necessary to ship this order. 2) Print a shipping label after determining the postage rate. Both of these actions will require dependencies that are outside the Order entity, such as an external webservice to retrieve postage rates. How should we accomplish these two things? I see a few options: 1) Code the logic directly in the domain entity, like CalculateTotalItemWeight. We then call: Order.GetPostageRate Order.PrintLabel 2) Put the logic in a service that accepts IOrder. We then call: PostageService.GetPostageRate(Order) PrintService.PrintLabel(Order) 3) Create a class for each action that operates on an Order, and pass an instance of that class to the Order through Constructor Injection (this is a variation of option 1 but allows reuse of the RateRetriever and LabelPrinter classes): Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Private RateRetriever _Retriever Private LabelPrinter _Printer Public Order(List<IOrderItem>, RateRetriever Retriever, LabelPrinter Printer) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> _Retriever = Retriever _Printer = Printer } Public Decimal GetPostageRate { _Retriever.GetPostageRate(this) } Public void PrintLabel { _Printer.PrintLabel(this) } } Which one of these methods do you choose for this logic, if any? What is the reasoning behind your choice? Most importantly, is there a set of guidelines that led you to your choice?

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  • What are the Rails best practices for javascript templates in restful/resourceful controllers?

    - by numbers1311407
    First, 2 common (basic) approaches: # returning from some FoosController method respond_to do |format| # 1. render the javascript directly format.js { render :json => @foo.to_json } # 2. render the default template, say update.js.erb format.js { render } end # in update.js.erb $('#foo').html("<%= escape_javascript(render(@foo)) %>") These are obviously simple cases but I wanted to illustrate what I'm talking about. I believe that these are also the cases expected by the default responder in rails 3 (either the action-named default template or calling to_#{format} on the resource.) The Issues With 1, you have total flexibility on the view side with no worries about the template, but you have to manipulate the DOM directly via javascript. You lose access to helpers, partials, etc. With 2, you have partials and helpers at your disposal, but you're tied to the one template (by default at least). All your views that make JS calls to FoosController use the same template, which isn't exactly flexible. Three Other Approaches (none really satisfactory) 1.) Escape partials/helpers I need into javascript beforehand, then inserting them into the page after, using string replacement to tailor them to the results returned (subbing in name, id, etc). 2.) Put view logic in the templates. For example, looking for a particular DOM element and doing one thing if it exists, another if it does not. 3.) Put logic in the controller to render different templates. For example, in a polymorphic belongs to where update might be called for either comments/foo or posts/foo, rendering commnts/foos/update.js.erb versus posts/foos/update.js.erb. I've used all of these (and probably others I'm not thinking of). Often in the same app, which leads to confusing code. Are there best practices for this sort of thing? It seems like a common enough use-case that you'd want to call controllers via Ajax actions from different views and expect different things to happen (without having to do tedious things like escaping and string-replacing partials and helpers client side). Any thoughts?

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  • 1) PasswordResets emails user when requesting password reset

    - by Surge Pedroza
    I've been trying to add a password reset for users that forget their password. The users clicks on forgot password? on sign up page. Then the user types their email and clicks reset password, which creates a token and sends an email with a link to reset their password. For the most part, it was working well, and then it suddenly stopped working. When a user clicks password reset, it brings up the error message: Password cant be blank, password is too short(6 min) Ran into this error in video 275 How I Test. on 11:20 Failure/Error: click_button "Reset Password" ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Password can't be blank, Password is too short (minimum is 6 characters), Password confirmation can't be blank # ./app/models/user.rb:30:in send_password_reset' # ./app/controllers/password_resets_controller.rb:7:increate' # (eval):2:in click_button' # ./spec/requests/password_resets_spec.rb:9:inblock (2 levels) in ' Finished in 13.66 seconds 95 examples, 1 failure This is some of the code being used. user.rb # == Schema Information # # Table name: users # # id :integer not null, primary key # name :string(255) # email :string(255) # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # class User < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :email, :password, :password_confirmation has_secure_password before_save { |user| user.email = email.downcase } before_save :create_remember_token validates :name, presence: true, length: { maximum: 50 } VALID_EMAIL_REGEX = /\A[\w+\-.]+@[a-z\d\-.]+\.[a-z]+\z/i validates :email, presence: true, format: { with: VALID_EMAIL_REGEX }, uniqueness: { case_sensitive: false } validates :password, presence: true, length: { minimum: 6 } validates :password_confirmation, presence: true def send_password_reset generate_token(:password_reset_token) self.password_reset_sent_at = Time.zone.now save! UserMailer.password_reset(self).deliver end def generate_token(column) begin self[column] = SecureRandom.urlsafe_base64 end while User.exists?(column => self[column]) end def self.search(search) if search find(:all, :conditions => ['name LIKE ?', "%#{search}%"]) else find(:all) end end private def create_remember_token self.remember_token = SecureRandom.urlsafe_base64 end end password_resets_controller.rb class PasswordResetsController < ApplicationController def new end def create user = User.find_by_email(params[:email]) user.send_password_reset redirect_to root_url, :notice => "Email sent with password reset instructions." end def edit @user = User.find_by_password_reset_token!(params[:id]) end end new.html.erb <h1>Reset Password</h1> <%= form_tag password_resets_path, :method => :post do %> <div class="field"> <%= label_tag :email %> <%= text_field_tag :email, params[:email] %> </div> <div class="actions"><%= submit_tag "Reset Password" %></div> <% end %>

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  • how can i edit the action of the buttons in the dialog box in jquery?

    - by noob
    this code is from the demo of modal confirmation from jquery's site. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#dialog").dialog({ bgiframe: true, resizable: false, height:140, modal: true, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { 'Yes': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, 'No': function() { $(this).dialog('close'); } } }); }); </script> <div class="demo"> <div id="dialog" title="Empty the recycle bin?"> <p><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-alert" style="float:left; margin:0 7px 20px 0;"></span>These items will be permanently deleted and cannot be recovered. Are you sure?</p> </div> <!-- Sample page content to illustrate the layering of the dialog --> <div class="hiddenInViewSource" style="padding:20px;"> <p>Sed vel diam id libero <a href="http://example.com">rutrum convallis</a>. Donec aliquet leo vel magna. Phasellus rhoncus faucibus ante. Etiam bibendum, enim faucibus aliquet rhoncus, arcu felis ultricies neque, sit amet auctor elit eros a lectus.</p> <form> <input value="text input" /><br /> <input type="checkbox" />checkbox<br /> <input type="radio" />radio<br /> <select> <option>select</option> </select><br /><br /> <textarea>textarea</textarea><br /> </form> </div><!-- End sample page content --> </div><!-- End demo --> <div class="demo-description"> <p>Confirm an action that may be destructive or important. Set the <code>modal</code> option to true, and specify primary and secondary user actions with the <code>buttons</code> option.</p> </div><!-- End demo-description --> can anyone tell me how to edit the action for the buttons? when yes is clicked i want to be redirected to test.php and when i hit no i want to be redirected to another page.

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  • JQuery within a partial view not being called

    - by XN16
    I have a view that has some jQuery to load a partial view (via a button click) into a div in the view. This works without a problem. However within the partial view I have a very similar bit of jQuery that will load another partial view into a div in the first partial view, but this isn't working, it almost seems like the jQuery in the first partial view isn't being loaded. I have tried searching for solutions, but I haven't managed to find an answer. I have also re-created the jQuery function in a @Ajax.ActionLink which works fine, however I am trying to avoid the Microsoft helpers as I am trying to learn jQuery. Here is the first partial view which contains the jQuery that doesn't seem to work, it also contains the @Ajax.ActionLink that does work: @model MyProject.ViewModels.AddressIndexViewModel <script> $(".viewContacts").click(function () { $.ajax({ url: '@Url.Action("CustomerAddressContacts", "Customer")', type: 'POST', data: { addressID: $(this).attr('data-addressid') }, cache: false, success: function (result) { $("#customerAddressContactsPartial-" + $(this).attr('data-addressid')) .html(result); }, error: function () { alert("error"); } }); return false; }); </script> <table class="customers" style="width: 100%"> <tr> <th style="width: 25%"> Name </th> <th style="width: 25%"> Actions </th> </tr> </table> @foreach (Address item in Model.Addresses) { <table style="width: 100%; border-top: none"> <tr id="[email protected]"> <td style="width: 25%; border-top: none"> @Html.DisplayFor(modelItem => item.Name) </td> <td style="width: 25%; border-top: none"> <a href="#" class="viewContacts standardbutton" data-addressid="@item.AddressID">ContactsJQ</a> @Ajax.ActionLink("Contacts", "CustomerAddressContacts", "Customer", new { addressID = item.AddressID }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "customerAddressContactsPartial-" + @item.AddressID, HttpMethod = "POST" }, new { @class = "standardbutton"}) </td> </tr> </table> <div id="[email protected]"></div> } If someone could explain what I am doing wrong here and how to fix it then I would be very grateful. Thanks very much.

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