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  • ORM Persistence by Reachability violates Aggregate Root Boundaries?

    - by Johannes Rudolph
    Most common ORMs implement persistence by reachability, either as the default object graph change tracking mechanism or an optional. Persistence by reachability means the ORM will check the aggregate roots object graph and determines wether any objects are (also indirectly) reachable that are not stored inside it's identity map (Linq2Sql) or don't have their identity column set (NHibernate). In NHibernate this corresponds to cascade="save-update", for Linq2Sql it is the only supported mechanism. They do both, however only implement it for the "add" side of things, objects removed from the aggregate roots graph must be marked for deletion explicitly. In a DDD context one would use a Repository per Aggregate Root. Objects inside an Aggregate Root may only hold references to other Aggregate Roots. Due to persistence by reachability it is possible this other root will be inserted in the database event though it's corresponding repository wasn't invoked at all! Consider the following two Aggregate Roots: Contract and Order. Request is part of the Contract Aggregate. The object graph looks like Contract->Request->Order. Each time a Contractor makes a request, a corresponding order is created. As this involves two different Aggregate Roots, this operation is encapsulated by a Service. //Unit Of Work begins Request r = ...; Contract c = ContractRepository.FindSingleByKey(1); Order o = OrderForRequest(r); // creates a new order aggregate r.Order = o; // associates the aggregates c.Request.Add(r); ContractRepository.SaveOrUpdate(c); // OrderAggregate is reachable and will be inserted Since this Operation happens in a Service, I could still invoke the OrderRepository manually, however I wouldn't be forced to!. Persistence by reachability is a very useful feature inside Aggregate Roots, however I see no way to enforce my Aggregate Boundaries.

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  • Fluent NHibernate, dynamically change Table of mapping?

    - by Steffen
    Hello, with fluent nhibernate, is there a way to dynamically switch the table of a mapping at runtime? For example: public class XYClassMap : ClassMap<XY> { public XYClassMap( ) { Table("XYTable"); Id(d => d.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(d => d.Value); (...) Given that there are multiple plugins, each of them uses this one class, but they need to work with different tables. I am looking for something like this: public class XY { public string Tablename {get; set;} } public class XYClassMap : ClassMap<XY> { public XYClassMap( ) { Table(Tablename); Id(d => d.Id).GeneratedBy.Identity(); Map(d => d.Value); (...) So every action method could work with the same class and only would need to set this one property "Tablename". Thanks for any help, Steffen

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  • Guidelines for using Merge task in SSIS

    - by thursdaysgeek
    I have a table with three fields, one an identity field, and I need to add some new records from a source that has the other two fields. I'm using SSIS, and I think I should use the merge tool, because one of the sources is not in the local database. But, I'm confused by the merge tool and the proper process. I have my one source (an Oracle table), and I get two fields, well_id and well_name, with a sort after, sorting by well_id. I have the destination table (sql server), and I'm also using that as a source. It has three fields: well_key (identity field), well_id, and well_name, and I then have a sort task, sorting on well_id. Both of those are input to my merge task. I was going to output to a temporary table, and then somehow get the new records back into the sql server table. Oracle Well SQL Well | | V V Sort Source Sort Well | | -------> Merge* <----------- | V Temp well table I suspect this isn't the best way to use this tool, however. What are the proper steps for a merge like this? One of my reasons for questioning this method is that my merge has an error, telling me that the "Merge Input 2" must be sorted, but its source is a sort task, so it IS sorted. Example data SQL Well (before merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d Oracle Well well_id well_name 123 well k 292 well c 311 well y 344 well t 439 well d 532 well j SQL Well (after merge) well_key well_id well_name 1 123 well k 2 292 well c 3 344 well t 5 439 well d 6 311 well y 7 532 well j Would it be better to load my Oracle Well to a temporary local file, and then just use a sql insert statment on it?

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  • NHibernate.PropertyValueException : not-null property references a null or transient

    - by frosty
    I am getting the following exception. NHibernate.PropertyValueException : not-null property references a null or transient Here are my mapping files. Product <class name="Product" table="Products"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <set name="PriceBreaks" table="PriceBreaks" generic="true" cascade="all" inverse="true" > <key column="ProductId" /> <one-to-many class="EStore.Domain.Model.PriceBreak, EStore.Domain" /> </set> </class> Price Breaks <class name="PriceBreak" table="PriceBreaks"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" column="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="identity"/> </id> <property name="ProductId" column="ProductId" type="Int32" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Product" column="ProductId" not-null="true" cascade="all" class="EStore.Domain.Model.Product, EStore.Domain" /> </class> I get the exception on the following method [Test] public void Can_Add_Price_Break() { IPriceBreakRepository repo = new PriceBreakRepository(); var priceBreak = new PriceBreak(); priceBreak.ProductId = 19; repo.Add(priceBreak); Assert.Greater(priceBreak.Id, 0); }

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  • Change namespace Prefix WCF Envelope

    - by activebiz
    I was wondering is there anyway to change the namespace prefix for the WCF SOAP request? As you can see in the example below, The Envelope has namespace "http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" with prefix 'a'. I want to change this to 'foo'. How can I do that. Note I dont have control over service code I can only create proxy class from the WSDL . <s:Envelope xmlns:a="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing" xmlns:s="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <s:Header> <a:Action s:mustUnderstand="1">http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport/operations/MyAction</a:Action> <h:payloadManifest xmlns="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:h="http://www.starstandards.org/webservices/2005/10/transport"> <manifest contentID="Content0" namespaceURI="http://www.starstandard.org/STAR/5" element="TESTMETHOD" version="5.2.4"></manifest> </h:payloadManifest> <h:Identity xmlns="urn:xxx/xxx/" xmlns:h="urn:xxx/xxx"> <SiteCode>XXXXXX</SiteCode> </h:Identity> <a:To>urn:xxx/xxx/Method1</a:To> <MessageID xmlns="http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing">XXXXX</MessageID> <a:ReplyTo> <a:Address>http://www.w3.org/2005/08/addressing/anonymous</a:Address> </a:ReplyTo> </s:Header> Many thanks

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  • Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

    - by Morten Louw Nielsen
    Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

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  • How do I eliminate Error 3002?

    - by Andrew
    Say I have the following table definitions in SQL Server 2008: CREATE TABLE Person (PersonId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, Name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, ManyMoreIrrelevantColumns VARCHAR(MAX) NOT NULL) CREATE TABLE Model (ModelId INT IDENTITY NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ModelName VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL, Description VARCHAR(200) NULL) CREATE TABLE ModelScore (ModelId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Model (ModelId), Score INT NOT NULL, Definition VARCHAR(100) NULL, PRIMARY KEY (ModelId, Score)) CREATE TABLE PersonModelScore (PersonId INT NOT NULL REFERENCES Person (PersonId), ModelId INT NOT NULL, Score INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (PersonId, ModelId), FOREIGN KEY (ModelId, Score) REFERENCES ModelScore (ModelId, Score)) The idea here is that each Person may have only one ModelScore per Model, but each Person may have a score for any number of defined Models. As far as I can tell, this SQL should enforce these constraints naturally. The ModelScore has a particular "meaning," which is contained in the Definition. Nothing earth-shattering there. Now, I try translating this into Entity Framework using the designer. After updating the model from the database and doing some editing, I have a Person object, a Model object, and a ModelScore object. PersonModelScore, being a join table, is not an object but rather is included as an association with some other name (let's say ModelScorePersonAssociation). The mapping details for the association are as follows: - Association - Maps to PersonModelScore - ModelScore ModelId : Int32 <=> ModelId : int Score : Int32 <=> Score : int - Person PersonId : Int32 <=> PersonId : int On the right-hand side, the ModelId and PersonId values have primary key symbols, but the Score value does not. Upon compilation, I get: Error 3002: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 5190: Potential runtime violation of table PersonModelScore's keys (PersonModelScore.ModelId, PersonModelScore.PersonId): Columns (PersonModelScore.PersonId, PersonModelScore.ModelId) are mapped to EntitySet ModelScorePersonAssociation's properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId) on the conceptual side but they do not form the EntitySet's key properties (ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.ModelId, ModelScorePersonAssociation.ModelScore.Score, ModelScorePersonAssociation.Person.PersonId). What have I done wrong in the designer or otherwise, and how can I fix the error? Many thanks!

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  • Default class for SQLAlchemy single table inheritance

    - by eclaird
    I've set up a single table inheritance, but I need a "default" class to use when an unknown polymorphic identity is encountered. The database is not in my control and so the data can be pretty much anything. A working example setup: import sqlalchemy as sa from sqlalchemy import orm engine = sa.create_engine('sqlite://') metadata = sa.MetaData(bind=engine) table = sa.Table('example_types', metadata, sa.Column('id', sa.Integer, primary_key=True), sa.Column('type', sa.Integer), ) metadata.create_all() class BaseType(object): pass class TypeA(BaseType): pass class TypeB(BaseType): pass base_mapper = orm.mapper(BaseType, table, polymorphic_on=table.c.type, polymorphic_identity=None, ) orm.mapper(TypeA, inherits=base_mapper, polymorphic_identity='A', ) orm.mapper(TypeB, inherits=base_mapper, polymorphic_identity='B', ) Session = orm.sessionmaker(autocommit=False, autoflush=False) session = Session() Now, if I insert a new unmapped identity... engine.execute('INSERT INTO EXAMPLE_TYPES (TYPE) VALUES (\'C\')') session.query(BaseType).first() ...things break. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1619, in first ret = list(self[0:1]) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1528, in __getitem__ return list(res) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/query.py", line 1797, in instances rows = [process[0](row, None) for row in fetch] File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 2179, in _instance _instance = polymorphic_instances[discriminator] File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/util.py", line 83, in __missing__ self[key] = val = self.creator(key) File ".../SQLAlchemy-0.6.5-py2.6.egg/sqlalchemy/orm/mapper.py", line 2341, in configure_subclass_mapper discriminator) AssertionError: No such polymorphic_identity u'C' is defined What I expected: >>> result = session.query(BaseType).first() >>> result <BaseType object at 0x1c8db70> >>> result.type u'C' I think this used to work with some older version of SQLAlchemy, but I haven't been keeping up with the development lately. Any pointers on how to accomplish this?

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  • CF9 HQL Statement for many-to-many and Multiple Criteria

    - by Jeremy Battle
    I have the following setup: Listing.cfc component persistent="true" { property name="ListingId" column="ListingId" type="numeric" ormtype="int" fieldtype="id" generator="identity"; ... property name="Features" type="array" hint="Array of features" singularname="Feature" fieldtype="many-to-many" cfc="Feature" linktable="Listing_Feature" FKColumn="ListingId" inversejoincolumn="FeatureId"; } Feature.cfc component persistent="true" table="Feature" schema="dbo" output="false" { property name="FeatureId" column="FeatureId" type="numeric" ormtype="int" fieldtype="id" generator="identity"; property name="FeatureDescription" column="FeatureDescription" type="string" ormtype="string"; ... /*property name="Listings" fieldtype="many-to-many" cfc="Listing" linktable="Listing_Feature" fkcolumn="FeatureId" inversejoincolumn="ListingId" lazy="true" cascade="all" orderby="GroupOrder";*/ } I can select all listings that have a particular feature using: <cfset matchingListings = ormExecuteQuery("from Listing l left join l.Features as feature where feature.FeatureId = :feature",{feature = 110}) /> Which is fine, however, I'd like to be able to select all listings that have multiple features (for example a listing that has both "Dishwasher" AND "Garage") After a couple hours of googling and looking through hibernate documentation haven't been able to find a solution that won't give me an error. My guess is that the solution is pretty simple and I am just over-thinking it...anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Different users get the same value in .ASPXANONYMOUS

    - by Malcolm Frexner
    My site allows anonymous users. I saw that under heavy load user get sometimes profile values from other users. This happens for anonymous users. I logged the access to profile data: /// <summary> /// /// </summary> /// <param name="controller"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string ProfileID(this Controller controller ) { if (ApplicationConfiguration.LogProfileAccess) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); (from header in controller.Request.Headers.ToPairs() select string.Concat(header.Key, ":", header.Value, ";")).ToList().ForEach(x => sb.Append(x)); string log = string.Format("ip:{0} url:{1} IsAuthenticated:{2} Name:{3} AnonId:{4} header:{5}", controller.Request.UserHostAddress, controller.Request.Url.ToString(), controller.Request.IsAuthenticated, controller.User.Identity.Name, controller.Request.AnonymousID, sb); _log.Debug(log); } return controller.Request.IsAuthenticated ? controller.User.Identity.Name : controller.Request.AnonymousID; } I can see in the log that user realy get the same cookievalue for .ASPXANONYMOUS even if they have different IP. Just to be safe I removed dependency injection for the FormsAuthentication. I dont use OutputCaching. My web.config has this setting for authentication: <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" cookieless="UseCookies" cookieName=".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" /> <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/de/Account/Login" /> </authentication> Does anybody have an idea what else I could log or what I should have a look at?

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  • IIS 7.5 What am I doing wrong?

    - by chugh97
    In IIS 7.5 under Windows 7 Utilmate, I have an application which is configured for authentication as follows: Anonymous & Windows In the ASP.NET Website, I have turned Forms authentication and identity impersonate = true I also deny any anonymous users. <authentication mode="Forms"> </authentication> <identity impersonate="true"/> <authorization> <deny user="?"> </authorization> IIS complains. What am I doing wrong... What I want to achieve :I want the windows Logged On User so I can build a FormsAuthentication ticket and pass it to a Passive STS. So in IIS I have anonymous and windows...If have only windows ticked, I cannot go onto the Login.aspx page as I have an extra parameter to be passed from there. So now in webconfig, I then disable anonymous users by saying deny user="?" , so it leaves me with the authenticated windows user but using Forms Authentication.You know what I mean??

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  • Diffie-Hellman in Silverlight

    - by cmaduro
    I am trying to devise a security scheme for encrypting the application level data between a silverlight client, and a php webservice that I created. Since I am dealing with a public website the information I am pulling from the service is public, but the information I'm submitting to the webservice is not public. There is also a back end to the website for administration, so naturally all application data being pushed and pulled from the webservice to the silverlight administration back end must also be encrypted. Silverlight does not support asymmetric encryption, which would work for the public website. Symmetric encryption would only work on the back end because users do not log in to the public website, so no password based keys could be derived. Still symmetric encryption would be great, but I cannot securely save the private key in the silverlight client. Because it would either have to be hardcoded or read from some kind of config file. None of that is considered secure. So... plan B. My final alternative would be then to implement the Diffie-Hellman algorithm, which supports symmetric encryption by means of key agreement. However Diffie-Hellman is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks. In other words, there is no guarantee that either side is sure of each others identity, making it possible for communication to be intercepted and altered without the receiving party knowing about it. It is thus recommended to use a private shared key to encrypt the key agreement handshaking, so that the identity of either party is confirmed. This brings me back to my initial problem that resulted in me needing to use Diffie-Hellman, how can I use a private key in a silverlight client without hardcoding it either in the code or an xml file. I'm all out of love on this one... is there any answer to this?

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  • Enable MEX in a Web.Config

    - by Conor
    Hi Folks, How do I enable/create a MEX endpoint in the below web config so I can view the service from my browser? I have tried a few variation from googling but VS always complains about it. (not a valid child element etc...) <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0" /> </system.web> <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true"/> <services> <service name="MyApp.MyService" behaviorConfiguration="WebServiceBehavior"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MyApp.IMyService" behaviorConfiguration="JsonBehavior"> <identity> <dns value="localhost"/> </identity> </endpoint> </service> </services> <behaviors> <endpointBehaviors> <behavior name="JsonBehavior"> <webHttp/> </behavior> </endpointBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> Cheers, Conor

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  • LINQ to SQL - Tracking New / Dirty Objects

    - by Joseph Sturtevant
    Is there a way to determine if a LINQ object has not yet been inserted in the database (new) or has been changed since the last update (dirty)? I plan on binding my UI to LINQ objects (using WPF) and need it to behave differently depending whether or not the object is already in the database. MyDataContext context = new MyDataContext(); MyObject obj; if (new Random().NextDouble() > .5) obj = new MyObject(); else obj = context.MyObjects.First(); // How can I distinguish these two cases? The only simple solution I can think of is to set the primary key of new records to a negative value (my PKs are an identity field and will therefore be set to a positive integer on INSERT). This will only work for detecting new records. It also requires identity PKs, and requires control of the code creating the new object. Is there a better way to do this? It seems like LINQ must be internally tracking the status of these objects so that it can know what to do on context.SubmitChanges(). Is there some way to access that "object status"? Clarification Apparently my initial question was confusing. I'm not looking for a way to insert or update records. I'm looking for a way, given any LINQ object, to determine if that object has not been inserted (new) or has been changed since its last update (dirty).

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  • WCF Service in Azure with ClaimsIdentity over SSL

    - by Sunil Ramu
    Hello , Created a WCF service as a WebRole using Azure and a client windows application which refers to this service. The Cloud Service is refered to a certificate which is created using the "Hands On Lab" given in windows identity foundation. The Web Service is hosted in IIS and it works perfect when executed. I've created a client windows app which refers to this web service. Since WIF Claims identity is used, I have a claimsAuthorizationManager Class, and also a Policy class with set of defilned policies. The Claims is set in the web.config file. When I execute the windows app as the start up project, the app prompts for authentication, and when the account credentials are given as in the config file, it opens a new "Windows Card Space" Window and Says "Incoming Policy Failed". When I close the window the System throws and Exception The incoming policy could not be validated. For more information, please see the event log. Event Log Details Incoming policy failed validation. No valid claim elements were found in the policy XML. Additional Information: at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.BuildMessage(InfoCardBaseException ie) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.TraceAndLogException(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.ThrowHelperError(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.InfoCardPolicy.Validate() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.ClientUIRequest.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.DoProcessRequest(String& extendedMessage) at Microsoft.InfoCards.RequestFactory.ProcessNewRequest(Int32 parentRequestHandle, IntPtr rpcHandle, IntPtr inArgs, IntPtr& outArgs) Details: System Provider [ Name] CardSpace 3.0.0.0 EventID 267 [ Qualifiers] 49157 Level 2 Task 1 Keywords 0x80000000000000 EventRecordID 6996 Channel Application EventData No valid claim elements were found in the policy XML. Additional Information: at System.Environment.get_StackTrace() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.BuildMessage(InfoCardBaseException ie) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.TraceAndLogException(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.Diagnostics.InfoCardTrace.ThrowHelperError(Exception e) at Microsoft.InfoCards.InfoCardPolicy.Validate() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.ClientUIRequest.PreProcessRequest() at Microsoft.InfoCards.Request.DoProcessRequest(String& extendedMessage) at Microsoft.InfoCards.RequestFactory.ProcessNewRequest(Int32 parentRequestHandle, IntPtr rpcHandle, IntPtr inArgs, IntPtr& outArgs)

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  • Linking session state between servlets and EJBs?

    - by wilth
    Hello, I have servlets (in a web module) that access stateless EJB beans (in an EJB module). The EJB module is built using SEAM. Users can have different roles and the EJB services check this using Seam's Identity. I also use a customized Authenticator (although this might not be relevant here). I noticed problems with this approach and I'm suspecting that the session context in the servlets is not "linked" with the session context in the EJB beans. What I think happens is something like: User Joe access servlet A and is assigned Session W1. Servlet A calls a login function on an EJB, using the EJB session E1. Later, user Mary accesses servlet A and is assigned Session W2. When calling the EJBs, however, the EJB session E1 is used and therefore Mary is authenticated as Joe. What also happens is that when Joe is calling the servlet twice in rapid succession, the same session W1 is used, but two different sessions E1 and E2 in the business layer, causing errors. I might be wrong in my suspicion, but maybe I'm actually expecting these "sessions" to be linked together while they in fact are not. If this is true, is there any way of achieving this? I could - of course - use stateful beans and save the authentication information in the beans, but this would break the "Identity" concept of Seam (and in general, it would be preferable to be able to use the Session context in my EJB beans). Any help and pointers are very welcome - thanks! Technology: EJB3, Seam 2.1.2. The servlets are actually the server-side of a GWT app, although I don't think this matters much. I'm using JBoss 5.

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  • Generating equals / hashcode / toString using annotation

    - by Bruno Bieth
    I believe I read somewhere people generating equals / hashcode / toString methods during compile time (using APT) by identifying which fields should be part of the hash / equality test. I couldn't find anything like that on the web (I might have dreamed it ?) ... That could be done like that : public class Person { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; @Identity private String firstName, lastName; @Identity private Date dateOfBirth; //... } For an entity (so we want to exlude some fields, like the id). Or like a scala case class i.e a value object : @ValueObject public class Color { private int red, green, blue; } Not only the file becomes more readable and easier to write, but it also helps ensuring that all the attributes are part of the equals / hashcode (in case you add another attribute later on, without updating the methods accordingly). I heard APT isn't very well supported in IDE but I wouldn't see that as a major issue. After all, tests are mainly run by continuous integration servers. Any idea if this has been done already and if not why ? Thanks

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  • Can't log in a user in MVC!

    - by devlife
    I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

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  • Overriding windows authentication for a .NET application

    - by JoshReedSchramm
    I have a .NET application where the homepage (default.aspx) should be accessible by anyone. There is also a reporting page (reporting.aspx) that I want to secure via windows authentication and only allow access to a particular set of AD groups. Right now the way my web.config is setup it is securing the reporting page but on the home page it prompts the user for login credentials. If they hit esc they can continue to the page though so it isnt actually securing it. I need to prevent it from prompting the user. How do i need to setup my config. Here is what i have now - <system.web> <authentication mode="Windows" /> <identity impersonate="true" /> <authorization> <allow roles="BUILTIN\Administrators, DomainName\Manager" /> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> ...MORE STUFF... </system.web> <location path="default.aspx"> <system.web> <identity impersonate="false" /> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location>

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  • "select * from table" vs "select colA,colB,etc from table" interesting behaviour in SqlServer2005

    - by kristof
    Apology for a lengthy post but I needed to post some code to illustrate the problem. Inspired by the question What is the reason not to use select * ? posted a few minutes ago, I decided to point out some observations of the select * behaviour that I noticed some time ago. So let's the code speak for itself: IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,c) select 'a1','b1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','c3' go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vStartest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vStartest] go create view dbo.vStartest as select * from dbo.starTest go go IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.views WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[vExplicittest]')) DROP VIEW [dbo].[vExplicittest] go create view dbo.[vExplicittest] as select a,b,c from dbo.starTest go select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicitTest IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.objects WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[starTest]') AND type in (N'U')) DROP TABLE [dbo].[starTest] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[starTest]( [id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A] [varchar](50) NULL, [B] [varchar](50) NULL, [D] [varchar](50) NULL, [C] [varchar](50) NULL ) ON [PRIMARY] GO insert into dbo.starTest(a,b,d,c) select 'a1','b1','d1','c1' union all select 'a2','b2','d2','c2' union all select 'a3','b3','d3','c3' select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest If you execute the following query and look at the results of last 2 select statements, the results that you will see will be as follows: select a,b,c from dbo.vExplicittest a1 b1 c1 a2 b2 c2 a3 b3 c3 select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest a1 b1 d1 a2 b2 d2 a3 b3 d3 As you can see in the results of select a,b,c from dbo.vStartest the data of column c has been replaced with the data from colum d. I believe that is related to the way the views are compiled, my understanding is that the columns are mapped by column indexes (1,2,3,4) as apposed to names. I though I would post it as a warning for people using select * in their sql and experiencing unexpected behaviour. Note: If you rebuild the view that uses select * each time after you modify the table it will work as expected

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  • The type of field isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany"

    - by Robert
    We are new to JPA and trying to setup a very simple one to many relationship where a pojo called Message can have a list of integer group id's defined by a join table called GROUP_ASSOC. Here is the DDL: CREATE TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ( "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL GENERATED ALWAYS AS IDENTITY (START WITH 1, INCREMENT BY 1) ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."MESSAGE" ADD CONSTRAINT "MESSAGE_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID"); CREATE TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ( "GROUP_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL, "MESSAGE_ID" INTEGER NOT NULL ); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_PK" PRIMARY KEY ("MESSAGE_ID", "GROUP_ID"); ALTER TABLE "APP"."GROUP_ASSOC" ADD CONSTRAINT "GROUP_ASSOC_FK" FOREIGN KEY ("MESSAGE_ID") REFERENCES "APP"."MESSAGE" ("MESSAGE_ID"); Here is the pojo: @Entity @Table(name = "MESSAGE") public class Message { @Id @Column(name = "MESSAGE_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private int messageId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, cascade=CascadeType.PERSIST) private List groupIds; public int getMessageId() { return messageId; } public void setMessageId(int messageId) { this.messageId = messageId; } public List getGroupIds() { return groupIds; } public void setGroupIds(List groupIds) { this.groupIds = groupIds; } } When we try to execute the following test code we get <openjpa-1.2.3-SNAPSHOT-r422266:907835 fatal user error> org.apache.openjpa.util.MetaDataException: The type of field "pojo.Message.groupIds" isn't supported by declared persistence strategy "OneToMany". Please choose a different strategy. Message msg = new Message(); List groups = new ArrayList(); groups.add(101); groups.add(102); EntityManager em = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("TestDBWeb").createEntityManager(); em.getTransaction().begin(); em.persist(msg); em.getTransaction().commit(); Help!

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  • T4MVC not generating an action

    - by Maslow
    I suspected there was some hidden magic somewhere that stopped what looks like actual method calls all over the place in T4MVC. Then I had a view fail to compile, and the stackTrace went into my actual method. [Authorize] public string Apply(string shortName) { if (shortName.IsNullOrEmpty()) return "Failed alliance name was not transmitted"; if (Request.IsAuthenticated == false || User == null || User.Identity == null) return "Apply authentication failed"; Models.Persistence.AlliancePersistance.Apply(User.Identity.Name, shortName); return "Applied"; } So this method isn't generating in the template after all. <%=Ajax.ActionLink("Apply", "Apply", new RouteValueDictionary() { { "shortName", item.Shortname } }, new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" })%> <%=Html.ActionLink("Apply",MVC.Alliance.Apply(item.Shortname),new AjaxOptions() { UpdateTargetId = "masterstatus" }) %> The second method threw an exception on compile because the method Apply in my controller has an [Authorize] attribute so that if someone that isn't logged on clicks this, they get redirected to login, then right back to this page. There they can click on apply again, this time being logged in. And yes I realize one is Ajax.ActionLink while the other is Html.ActionLink I did try them both with the T4MVC version.

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  • Select highest rated, oldest track

    - by Blair McMillan
    I have several tables: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Tracks]( [Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Artist_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Album_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Title] [nvarchar](255) NOT NULL, [Length] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Tracks_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] CREATE TABLE [dbo].[TrackHistory]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Datetime] [datetime] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_TrackHistory] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[TrackHistory] ([Track_Id] ,[Datetime]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,GETDATE()) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Ratings]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Track_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [User_Id] [uniqueidentifier] NOT NULL, [Rating] [tinyint] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Ratings] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] INSERT INTO [cooltunes].[dbo].[Ratings] ([Track_Id] ,[User_Id] ,[Rating]) VALUES ("335294B0-735E-4E2C-8389-8326B17CE813" ,"C7D62450-8BE6-40F6-80F1-A539DA301772" ,1) Users User_Id|Guid Other fields Links between the tables are pretty obvious. TrackHistory has each track added to it as a row whenever it is played ie. a track will appear in there many times. Ratings value will either be 1 or -1. What I'm trying to do is select the Track with the highest rating, that is more than 2 hours old, and if there is a duplicate rating for a track (ie a track receives 6 +1 ratings and 1 - rating, giving that track a total rating of 5, another track also has a total rating of 5), the track that was last played the longest ago should be returned. (If all tracks have been played within the last 2 hours, no rows should be returned) I'm getting somewhere doing each part individually using the link above, SUM(Value) and GROUP BY Track_Id, but I'm having trouble putting it all together. Hopefully someone with a bit more (MS)SQL knowledge will be able to help me. Many thanks!

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  • t-sql most efficient row to column? for xml path, pivot

    - by ajberry
    create table _orders ( OrderId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,CustomerId int ) create table _details ( DetailId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,OrderId int ,ProductId int ) insert into _orders (CustomerId) select 1 union select 2 union select 3 insert into _details (OrderId,ProductId) select 1,100 union select 1,158 union select 1,234 union select 2,125 union select 3,105 union select 3,101 union select 3,212 union select 3,250 -- select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o I am looking for the most performant way to turn rows into columns. I have a requirement to output the contents of the db (not actual schema above, but concept is similar) in both fixed width and delimited formats. The above FOR XML PATH query gives me the result I want, but when dealing with anything other than small amounts of data, can take awhile. I've looked at pivot but most of the examples I have found are aggregating information. I just to combine the child rows and tack them onto the parent. For example, for an order it would need to output: OrderId,Product1,Product2,Product3,etc Thoughts or suggestions? I am using SQL Server 2k5.

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  • t-sql most efficient row to column? crosstab for xml path, pivot

    - by ajberry
    I am looking for the most performant way to turn rows into columns. I have a requirement to output the contents of the db (not actual schema below, but concept is similar) in both fixed width and delimited formats. The below FOR XML PATH query gives me the result I want, but when dealing with anything other than small amounts of data, can take awhile. select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o I've looked at pivot but most of the examples I have found are aggregating information. I just want to combine the child rows and tack them onto the parent. I should also point out I don't need to deal with the column names either since the output of the child rows will either be a fixed width string or a delimited string. For example, given the following tables: OrderId CustomerId ----------- ----------- 1 1 2 2 3 3 DetailId OrderId ProductId ----------- ----------- ----------- 1 1 100 2 1 158 3 1 234 4 2 125 5 3 101 6 3 105 7 3 212 8 3 250 for an order I need to output: orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100 158 234 2 125 3 101 105 212 250 or orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100|158|234 2 125 3 101|105|212|250 Thoughts or suggestions? I am using SQL Server 2k5. Example Setup: create table _orders ( OrderId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,CustomerId int ) create table _details ( DetailId int identity(1,1) primary key nonclustered ,OrderId int ,ProductId int ) insert into _orders (CustomerId) select 1 union select 2 union select 3 insert into _details (OrderId,ProductId) select 1,100 union select 1,158 union select 1,234 union select 2,125 union select 3,105 union select 3,101 union select 3,212 union select 3,250 using FOR XML PATH: select orderid ,REPLACE(( SELECT ' ' + CAST(ProductId as varchar) FROM _details d WHERE d.OrderId = o.OrderId ORDER BY d.OrderId,d.DetailId FOR XML PATH('') ),'&#x20;','') as Products from _orders o which outputs what I want, however is very slow for large amounts of data. One of the child tables is over 2 million rows, pushing the processing time out to ~ 4 hours. orderid Products ----------- ----------------------- 1 100 158 234 2 125 3 101 105 212 250

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