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  • Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

    - by DuFace
    I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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  • Flex vs GWT again

    - by CK Lee
    Hi all, I am working on a customized web ontology editor (something like http://webprotege.stanford.edu/ which is built by GWT). My backend will be Java+Spring+Hibernate and domain models are in Java. My frontend will be something like WebProtege which requires extensive RPC call. It is quite clear that I should use GWT as I can refer to the open source code. However, due to company policy, I shall consider Flex as well. I understand Flex can remotely invoke Java backend methods via BlazeDS using AMF (Is there a Flex equivalent of GWT-RPC?). I have read discussion on GWT vs Flex vs ?. If I can make full decision sure I will go with GWT. GWT strengths like support right to left characters, support iPhone/iPad, smaller size, support JSON out of the box, support printing are not important considerations for my project. Besides GWT supports Java generic, enum; domain objects can be shared with both GWT client and server; coding are more seamlessly... anyone can suggest other strong reasons that I should only go with GWT? FYI, I have plenty of Java experience but both GWT and Flex are new to me. Thanks.

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  • Database contents setting themselves to 0

    - by Luis Armando
    I have a Database that contains 4 tables, however I'm using 1 of them which is separated from the others. In this table I have 4 fields which are varchar and the rest are ints (11 other fields), when the users fill up the DB everything gets saved correctly, however it has happened 3 times so far that the database values for the int's reset to 0 without any apparent reason. At first, I thought, it was because those fields (where the numbers should go) were varchars not ints. However since I changed it, it happened again. I've already double checked my code and I have nothing that even updates or inserts a 0 value. Also I'm using codeigniter and active records which protect against SQL injections AND have XSS filtering enabled, could anyone point out something I might be missing or a reason for this to be happening? Also, I'm pretty sure about the answer of this but, is there ANY way to recover some data?? Other than having to ask everyone to fill in everything again.. =/ ** EDIT ** The Storage Engine is MyISAM and Collation is latin1_swedish_ci, Pack Keys are default, for all intents and purposes it's a normal DB

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  • Problems with Threading in Python 2.5, KeyError: 51, Help debugging?

    - by vignesh-k
    I have a python script which runs a particular script large number of times (for monte carlo purpose) and the way I have scripted it is that, I queue up the script the desired number of times it should be run then I spawn threads and each thread runs the script once and again when its done. Once the script in a particular thread is finished, the output is written to a file by accessing a lock (so my guess was that only one thread accesses the lock at a given time). Once the lock is released by one thread, the next thread accesses it and adds its output to the previously written file and rewrites it. I am not facing a problem when the number of iterations is small like 10 or 20 but when its large like 50 or 150, python returns a KeyError: 51 telling me element doesn't exist and the error it points out to is within the lock which puzzles me since only one thread should access the lock at once and I do not expect an error. This is the class I use: class errorclass(threading.Thread): def __init__(self, queue): self.__queue=queue threading.Thread.__init__(self) def run(self): while 1: item = self.__queue.get() if item is None: break result = myfunction() lock = threading.RLock() lock.acquire() ADD entries from current thread to entries in file and REWRITE FILE lock.release() queue = Queue.Queue() for i in range(threads): errorclass(queue).start() for i in range(desired iterations): queue.put(i) for i in range(threads): queue.put(None) Python returns with KeyError: 51 for large number of desired iterations during the adding/write file operation after lock access, I am wondering if this is the correct way to use the lock since every thread has a lock operation rather than every thread accessing a shared lock? What would be the way to rectify this?

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  • How to optimize a postgreSQL server for a "write once, read many"-type infrastructure ?

    - by mhu
    Greetings, I am working on a piece of software that logs entries (and related tagging) in a PostgreSQL database for storage and retrieval. We never update any data once it has been inserted; we might remove it when the entry gets too old, but this is done at most once a day. Stored entries can be retrieved by users. The insertion of new entries can happen rather fast and regularly, thus the database will commonly hold several millions elements. The tables used are pretty simple : one table for ids, raw content and insertion date; and one table storing tags and their values associated to an id. User search mostly concern tags values, so SELECTs usually consist of JOIN queries on ids on the two tables. To sum it up : 2 tables Lots of INSERT no UPDATE some DELETE, once a day at most some user-generated SELECT with JOIN huge data set What would an optimal server configuration (software and hardware, I assume for example that RAID10 could help) be for my PostgreSQL server, given these requirements ? By optimal, I mean one that allows SELECT queries taking a reasonably little amount of time. I can provide more information about the current setup (like tables, indexes ...) if needed.

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  • Enforcing default time when only date in timestamptz provided

    - by Incognito
    Assume I have the table: postgres=# create table foo (datetimes timestamptz); CREATE TABLE postgres=# \d+ foo Table "public.foo" Column | Type | Modifiers | Storage | Description -----------+--------------------------+-----------+---------+------------- datetimes | timestamp with time zone | | plain | Has OIDs: no So lets insert some values into it... postgres=# insert into foo values ('2012-12-12'), --This is the value I want to catch for. (null), ('2012-12-12 12:12:12'), ('2012-12-12 12:12'); INSERT 0 4 And here's what we have: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 00:00:00+00 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) Ideally, I'd like to set up a default time-stamp value when a TIME is not provided with the input, rather than the de-facto time of 2012-12-12 being 00:00:00, I would like to set a default of 15:45:10. Meaning, my results should look like: postgres=# select * from foo ; datetimes ------------------------ 2012-12-12 15:45:10+00 --This one gets the default time. 2012-12-12 12:12:12+00 2012-12-12 12:12:00+00 (4 rows) I'm not really sure how to do this in postgres 8.4, I can't find anything in the datetime section of the manual or the sections regarding column default values.

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  • Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

    - by Nathan Bayles
    I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

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  • How to provide i18n service for developer and end user

    - by user247245
    Many android applications have quite poor i18n-support, and for an understandable reason, as it adds much work for the developer. From a both intuitive and cultural point of view it would be a good thing if end-users could translate the apps themself, and OTA share the translation, without reinstalling the app itself. In concept; as wikipedia, some add content easily, others only use what's there. It's of course important that the service is as easy as possible to use, both for app-developers, and people willing to transcribe. To keep it simple, this is the solution I'm concidering; Developer perspective: Developer uses a customized setContentView when open activities/layouts that will seach for thanslations of xml-entries. (below) The customized version is provided as a free downloadable library/class..., turning the i18n feature to more or less a one liner. User perspective: User downloads app without any translation As app launches, it checks locale running at phone, and will look for a translated xml-file at shared space in SD. If no or old transcribed xml (above), try to download new from internet-service (ansync). This is all done by library above, no need for intents. Translator perspective: Separate app to provide translations for any app using the i18n service above. (Could be just a webapp), with some form of QA on translators/input. QUESTION: Now, for this to work efficiently, it has to be AeasyAP for the developer to even bother, and the most fluent solution would be a customized version of setContentView, that simply loads the translated values from external xml, instead of the ones in the apk. Is this possible at all, and if not, what's your suggested solutions? (And of course, Happy New Year, feliz ano novo, blwyddyn newydd dda, Gott Nytt År, kontan ane nouvo, szczesliwego nowego roku ...) Regards, /T

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  • Making two Windows using CreateWindowsEx()

    - by Jamie Keeling
    Hello, I have a windows form that has a simple menu and performs a simple operation, I want to be able to create another windows form with all the functionality of a menu bar, message pump etc.. as a separate thread so I can then share the results of the operation to the second window. I.E. 1) Form A opens Form B opens as a separate thread 2)Form A performs operation 3)Form A passes results via memory to Form B 4)Form B display results I'm confused as to how to go about it, the main app runs fine but i'm not sure how to add a second window if the first one already exists. I think that using CreateWindow will allow me to make another window but again i'm not sure how to access the message pump so I can respond to certain events like WM_CREATE on the second window. I hope it makes sense. Thanks! Edit: I've attempted to make a second window and although this does compile, no windows show atall on build. ////////////////////// // WINDOWS FUNCTION // ////////////////////// LRESULT CALLBACK WindowFunc(HWND hMainWindow, UINT message, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam) { //Fields WCHAR buffer[256]; struct DiceData storage; HWND hwnd; // Act on current message switch(message) { case WM_CREATE: AddMenus(hMainWindow); hwnd = CreateWindowEx( 0, "ChildWClass", (LPCTSTR) NULL, WS_CHILD | WS_BORDER | WS_VISIBLE, 0, 0, 0, 0, hMainWindow, NULL, NULL, NULL); ShowWindow(hwnd, SW_SHOW); break; Any suggestions as to why this happens?

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  • PDO closeCursor Error

    - by Metropolis
    Hey Everyone, I currently have a database layer that I wrote myself and I have been using it now for over a year without any problems. The database class uses PDO, and there are two different databases that I regularly connect to (MySQL and MS SQL). The MS SQL database is used for Accpac accounting storage, and the MySQL database is used for everything else. In one of the MySQL databases I have all of the dsn's listed which I use to create the string I need to connect to the MS SQL databases. I have a new program I am trying to write which I am taking employee data from one of the MySQL databases, and using the employee ID to get the employee's information from the MS SQL database. For some reason, whenever I run the program it will get through about 1200 records (out of 11k) and then crash with an error like the following, Fatal error: Call to a member function closeCursor() on a non-object I have tried moving the loops around in many different ways, and I have tried manually closing the connections by setting the database handle to null. Nothing I do seems to work. Thanks for any help! Metropolis

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  • Windows 2008 VPS hosting experiences

    - by Luke Bennett
    Whilst similar questions exist, I couldn't find any which quite match my request. I'm looking for hosting for some personal .NET projects which for various reasons I do not want to host on our servers at work. I need to be able to host multiple sites and for that reason I'm thinking of a VPS with RDP access for the time being - don't fancy shared hosting as I feel that doesn't offer me the flexbility and control I'm looking for. What experiences do people have of Windows 2008 VPS providers? I've come across a few possibilities although it seems a lot of places are still on Windows 2003 with 2008 'coming soon'. Is VPS the best way to go? Eventually (depending on how the projects take off) I intend to get a dedicated box but at this stage it's not cost-effective. Also, what are people's experiences of running SQL Server Express on a VPS? What would you say the minimum requirements are for CPU/memory? I know it's not going to be anywhere near as performant as SQL Server 2005/8 running on a dedicated box but I'm hoping it will be an acceptable starting point. Any other tips/advice also welcome! Edit: Forgot to mention, I'm ideally looking for UK hosting although I'm open to alternatives.

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  • Tips for submitting a library to Boost?

    - by AraK
    Hi everyone, Summer is coming, and a group of friends and I are getting ready for it :) We decided to build a compile-time Arbitrary precision Unsigned Integers. We would like to provide a set of integers algorithms(functions) with the library. We have seen a number of requests for such a library(SoC2010, C++0x Standard Library wishlist). Also, a regular run-time bigint is requested usually with that, but we don't want to go into the hassle of memory management. The idea came to me from a library called TTMath, unfortunately this library works only on specific platforms because Assembly was used extensively in the library. We would like to write a standard library, depending on the C++ standard library and Boost. Also, we would like to use the available C++0x facilities in current compilers like user-defined literals and others. This would technically make the library non-standard for a while, but we think that it is a matter of time the new standards will be official. Your hints on the whole process including design, implementation, documentation, maintainable of the library are more than welcom. We are a group of students and fresh graduates who are looking for something interesting in the summer, but we see that Boost is full of gurus and we don't want to forget something too obvious. We are communicating on-line, so there is no shared white-boards :( Thanks,

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  • GWT Deserialisation of Persistent Entities (JPA)

    - by slartidan
    Hi everyone, I am currently developing Java/GWT-application which is hosted on a weblogic application server. I am using EJB3.0 with EclipseLink as persistence layer. Sadly my GWT has problems to deserialize persistent entities. It might be helpful for you to know, that I have the EclipseLink-Library in my classpath (including javax.persistence.Entity) am not recieving the persistence objects from a database or persistence-manager - I am creating the objects with standard java code use Eclipse IDE for Java EE Developers for development and deploying and I am compiling my GWT code with the GWT-Plugin (GWT 2.1.0) - my source code is split up in several projects am pretty sure, that the problems occures on client side, since the HTTP response of my server is the same in my working and in my not working example tried to patch javax.persistence.Entity and tried to include several libraries which included javax.persistence.Entity but nothing was helping In my server provides a list of instances of class SerialClass; the interface looks like this: public interface GreetingService extends RemoteService { List<SerialClass> greetServer(); } My onModuleLoad()-Method gets those instances and creates a browser-popup with the information: public void onModuleLoad() { GreetingServiceAsync server = (GreetingServiceAsync) GWT.create(GreetingService.class); server.greetServer(new AsyncCallback<List<SerialClass>>() { public void onFailure(Throwable caught) { } public void onSuccess(List<SerialClass> result) { String resultString = ""; try { for (SerialClass serial : result) { if (serial == null) { resultString += "null "; } else { resultString += ">" + serial.id + "< "; } } } catch (Throwable t) { Window.alert("failed to process"); } Window.alert("success:" + resultString); } }); } My server is looking like this: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public List<SerialClass> greetServer() throws IllegalArgumentException { List<SerialClass> list = new ArrayList<SerialClass>(); for (int i = 0; i < 100; i++) { list.add(new SerialClass()); } return list; } } Case 1 = everything works fine I am using this SerialClass (either without any annotation, or with any annotation other than Entity - for example javax.persistence.PersistenceContext works fine): //@Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } The popup contains (as expected): success:>4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< >4711< The data sent over HTTP looks like this: //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] Case 2 = its not working at all I am using this SerialClass: @Entity public class SerialClass implements Serializable, IsSerializable { public int id = 4711; } My popup contains (THIS IS MY PROBLEM): success:>2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null >2< null The data sent over HTTP looks like this (exactly the same!): //OK[4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,4711,2,100,1,["java.util.ArrayList/3821976829","serial.shared.SerialClass/10650133"],0,6] There is no suspicious logging output - neither on server, nor on client. All HTTP-responses have return code 200. My current workaround I am going to try to create transfer objects as a copy of my SerialClass - those transfer objects will look exactly the same, but will not have the @Entity annotation. Alternatively I could try to use the RequestFactory (thanks to @Hilbrand for the hint). I really don't know how to solve that problem and I'm really thankful about any suggestions, hints, tips, links, etc.

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  • Recommendations for IPC between parent and child processes in .NET?

    - by Jeremy
    My .NET program needs to run an algorithm that makes heavy use of 3rd party libraries (32-bit), most of which are unmanaged code. I want to drive the CPU as hard as I can, so the code runs several threads in parallel to divide up the work. I find that running all these threads simultaneously results in temporary memory spikes, causing the process' virtual memory size to approach the 2 GB limit. This memory is released back pretty quickly, but occasionally if enough threads enter the wrong sections of code at once, the process crosses the "red line" and either the unmanaged code or the .NET code encounters an out of memory error. I can throttle back the number of threads but then my CPU usage is not as high as I would like. I am thinking of creating worker processes rather than worker threads to help avoid the out of memory errors, since doing so would give each thread of execution its own 2 GB of virtual address space (my box has lots of RAM). I am wondering what are the best/easiest methods to communicate the input and output between the processes in .NET? The file system is an obvious choice. I am used to shared memory, named pipes, and such from my UNIX background. Is there a Windows or .NET specific mechanism I should use?

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  • Multithreaded linked list traversal

    - by Rob Bryce
    Given a (doubly) linked list of objects (C++), I have an operation that I would like multithread, to perform on each object. The cost of the operation is not uniform for each object. The linked list is the preferred storage for this set of objects for a variety of reasons. The 1st element in each object is the pointer to the next object; the 2nd element is the previous object in the list. I have solved the problem by building an array of nodes, and applying OpenMP. This gave decent performance. I then switched to my own threading routines (based off Windows primitives) and by using InterlockedIncrement() (acting on the index into the array), I can achieve higher overall CPU utilization and faster through-put. Essentially, the threads work by "leap-frog'ing" along the elements. My next approach to optimization is to try to eliminate creating/reusing the array of elements in my linked list. However, I'd like to continue with this "leap-frog" approach and somehow use some nonexistent routine that could be called "InterlockedCompareDereference" - to atomically compare against NULL (end of list) and conditionally dereference & store, returning the dereferenced value. I don't think InterlockedCompareExchangePointer() will work since I cannot atomically dereference the pointer and call this Interlocked() method. I've done some reading and others are suggesting critical sections or spin-locks. Critical sections seem heavy-weight here. I'm tempted to try spin-locks but I thought I'd first pose the question here and ask what other people are doing. I'm not convinced that the InterlockedCompareExchangePointer() method itself could be used like a spin-lock. Then one also has to consider acquire/release/fence semantics... Ideas? Thanks!

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  • Multiple "ObjectChangeTracker" getting created, can it be avoided?

    - by user555937
    Hi, We are working on a POC where we have following architecture (MVVM), WPF(Client) + WCF + Model(DataAccess)+ ADO.Net Entity Framework 4.0 (with SQL Server 2008 R2 as DB) All are different projects. In the DataAccess layer we have created different Entity Models(edmx) based on the functionality. The tables under perticular flow are grouped and created different entity models. We are using self tracking entities to and fro to communicate with the WPF client through wcf service. For Single model everything works fine. But when we created a Multiple models then few issues started coming. Mutliple models have few duplicate tables/entities. Two probels are, 1) When we try to access entities from different models mutiple objects "ObjectChangeTracker" are getting created. E.g. CompanyModel(edmx) - Company(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker, ObjectState ProductModel(edmx) - Customer(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker1, ObjectState1 OrderModel(edmx) - Oder(Entity) - ObjectChangeTracker2, ObjectState2 Is there any way to avoid this? 2) There are few tables which shared across the Models, E.g. Company(Entity) is used in All above mdoels. During compile time it does not thow any error. But run time It gives error saying "Schema specified is not valid. Errors: The mapping of CLR type to EDM type is ambiguous because multiple CLR types match the EDM type "Company"".. To resolve this, we renamed the entities with some prefix to make them Unique. Is there any other way we can resolve this without changing the name of the entity in the same assembly? Thanks in advance and appreciate if anyone has approach for these issues. Thanks, Kiran

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  • Boost threading/mutexs, why does this work?

    - by Flamewires
    Code: #include <iostream> #include "stdafx.h" #include <boost/thread.hpp> #include <boost/thread/mutex.hpp> using namespace std; boost::mutex mut; double results[10]; void doubler(int x) { //boost::mutex::scoped_lock lck(mut); results[x] = x*2; } int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { boost::thread_group thds; for (int x = 10; x>0; x--) { boost::thread *Thread = new boost::thread(&doubler, x); thds.add_thread(Thread); } thds.join_all(); for (int x = 0; x<10; x++) { cout << results[x] << endl; } return 0; } Output: 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16 18 Press any key to continue . . . So...my question is why does this work(as far as i can tell, i ran it about 20 times), producing the above output, even with the locking commented out? I thought the general idea was: in each thread: calculate 2*x copy results to CPU register(s) store calculation in correct part of array copy results back to main(shared) memory I would think that under all but perfect conditions this would result in some part of the results array having 0 values. Is it only copying the required double of the array to a cpu register? Or is it just too short of a calculation to get preempted before it writes the result back to ram? Thanks.

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  • What is the best way to do scoped finds based on access control rules in Rails?

    - by Rafael Szuminski
    Hi I need to find an elegant solution to scoped finds based on access control rules. Essentially I have the following setup: Users Customers AccessControl - Defines which user has access to another users data Users need to be able to access not just their own customers but also shared customers of other users. Obviously something like a simple association will not work: has_many :customers and neither will this: has_many :customers, :conditions => 'user_id in (1,2,3,4,5)' because the association uses with_scope and the added condition is an AND condition not an OR condition. I also tried overriding the find and method_missing methods with the association extension like this: has_many :customers do def find(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end def method_missing(*args) #get the user_id and retrieve access conditions based on the id #do a find based on the access conditions and passed args end end but the issue is that I don't have access to the user object / parent object inside the extension methods and it just does not work as planned. I also tried default_scope but as posted here before you can't pass a block to a default scope. Anyhow, I know that data segmentation and data access controls have been done before using rails and am wondering if somebody found an elegant way to do it. UPDATE: The AccessControl table has the following layout user_id shared_user_id The customer table has this structure: id account_id user_id first_name last_name Assuming the the following data would be in the AccessControl table: 1 1 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 13 and so on... And the account_id for user 1 is 13 I need to be able to retrieve customers that can be best described with the following sql statement: select * from customers where (account_id = 13 and user_id = null) or (user_id in (1,3,4))

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  • Catch a PHP Object Instantiation Error

    - by Rob Wilkerson
    It's really irking me that PHP considers the failure to instantiate an object a Fatal Error (which can't be caught) for the application as a whole. I have set of classes that aren't strictly necessary for my application to function--they're really a convenience. I have a factory object that attempts to instantiate the class variant that's indicated in a config file. This mechanism is being deployed for message storage and will support multiple store types: DatabaseMessageStore FileMessageStore MemcachedMessageStore etc. A MessageStoreFactory class will read the application's preference from a config file, instantiate and return an instance of the appropriate class. It might be easy enough to slap a conditional around the instantiation to ensure that class_exists(), but MemcachedMessageStore extends PHP's Memcached class. As a result, the class_exists() test will succeed--though instantiation will fail--if the memcached bindings for PHP aren't installed. Is there any other way to test whether a class can be instantiated properly? If it can't, all I need to do is tell the user which features won't be available to them, but let them continue one with the application. Thanks.

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  • Generating authentication header from azure table through objective-c

    - by user923370
    I'm fetching data from iCloud and for that I need to generate a header (azure table storage). I used the code below for that and it is generating the headers. But when I use these headers in my project it is showing "make sure that the value of authorization header is formed correctly including the signature." I googled a lot and tried many codes but in vain. Can anyone kindly please help me with where I'm going wrong in this code. -(id)generat{ NSString *messageToSign = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@/%@/%@", dateString,AZURE_ACCOUNT_NAME, tableName]; NSString *key = @"asasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasasas=="; const char *cKey = [key cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; const char *cData = [messageToSign cStringUsingEncoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; unsigned char cHMAC[CC_SHA256_DIGEST_LENGTH]; CCHmac(kCCHmacAlgSHA256, cKey, strlen(cKey), cData, strlen(cData), cHMAC); NSData *HMAC = [[NSData alloc] initWithBytes:cHMAC length:sizeof(cHMAC)]; NSString *hash = [Base64 encode:HMAC]; NSLog(@"Encoded hash: %@", hash); NSURL *url=[NSURL URLWithString: @"http://my url"]; NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; [request addValue:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"SharedKeyLite %@:%@",AZURE_ACCOUNT_NAME, hash] forHTTPHeaderField:@"Authorization"]; [request addValue:dateString forHTTPHeaderField:@"x-ms-date"]; [request addValue:@"application/atom+xml, application/xml"forHTTPHeaderField:@"Accept"]; [request addValue:@"UTF-8" forHTTPHeaderField:@"Accept-Charset"]; NSLog(@"Headers: %@", [request allHTTPHeaderFields]); NSLog(@"URL: %@", [[request URL] absoluteString]); return request; } -(NSString*)rfc1123String:(NSDate *)date { static NSDateFormatter *df = nil; if(df == nil) { df = [[NSDateFormatter alloc] init]; df.locale = [[[NSLocale alloc] initWithLocaleIdentifier:@"en_US"] autorelease]; df.timeZone = [NSTimeZone timeZoneWithAbbreviation:@"GMT"]; df.dateFormat = @"EEE',' dd MMM yyyy HH':'mm':'ss 'GMT'"; } return [df stringFromDate:date]; }

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  • iPhone Custom CA certificate for an application which uses NSURLConnection?

    - by jr
    I have an application which is communicating with many different sites and each site has its own SSL certificate signed by our own internal CA. Doing this prevents us the need from purchasing SSL certificates for each site (hundreds or thousands) and is more secure then using a wildcard certificate with a shared key on each of those sites. So, basically using a CA certificate is the only way. Right now, I have a mobileprovision file which will install the CA certificate as a profile on the phone. When our iPhone application launches if it gets an SSL Certificate error it redirects to a this mobile provision file via Safari and the user will be prompted to install the CA. The problem is that I am concerned that the Apple AppStore might deny my app for doing this (Just some feedback from other developers at this point), and I wanted to research other ways to accomplish this. Basically what I need to accomplish is allow an SSL connection which will verify against a custom CA certificate which will be embedded in my application. This will make the CA certificate active for only the calls I make. I am using the standard NSURLConnection methods in order to communicate with the service. Is this possible? Can someone show me how to load the CA (what form PEM?) and add it to the list of trusted CA certificates for my application? If that is not possible what other options do I have? Just trusting all certificates isn't really any option, we want to prevent man in the middle attacks and only trust our CA issued certificates. Thanks!

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  • There is a Default instance of form in VB.Net but not in C#, WHY?

    - by Shekhar_Pro
    I'm just curious to know that there is The (Name) property, which represents the name of the Form class.This property is used within the namespace to uniquely identify the class that the Form is an instance of and, in the case of Visual Basic, is used to access the default instance of the form. Now where this Default Instance come from, why can't C# have a equivalent method to this. Also for example to show a form in C# we do something like this: //Only method Form1 frm = new Form1(); frm.Show(); But in VB.Net we have both ways to do it: //'First common method (used slash because editor wouldn't format it properly) Form1.Show(); //'Second method Dim frm as New Form1(); frm.Show(); My question comes from this first method. What is this Form1, is it an instance of Form1 or the Form1 class itself. Now as i mentioned above the Form name is the Default instance in VB.Net. But we also know that Form1 is a class defined in Designer so how can the names be same for both the Instance and class name. If Form1 is Class then there is no (Static\Shared) method named Show(). So where does this method come from. And finally why C# can't have an equivalent of this. If there some mistake in my question Please let me know *I've checked this on stackoverflow, but couldn't find an answer to this.If you do find then please give a link to it.*

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  • typedef a functions prototype

    - by bitmask
    I have a series of functions with the same prototype, say int func1(int a, int b) { // ... } int func2(int a, int b) { // ... } // ... Now, I want to simplify their definition and declaration. Of course I could use a macro like that: #define SP_FUNC(name) int name(int a, int b) But I'd like to keep it in C, so I tried to use the storage specifier typedef for this: typedef int SpFunc(int a, int b); This seems to work fine for the declaration: SpFunc func1; // compiles but not for the definition: SpFunc func1 { // ... } which gives me the following error: error: expected '=', ',', ';', 'asm' or '__attribute__' before '{' token Is there a way to do this correctly or is it impossible? To my understanding of C this should work, but it doesn't. Why? Note, gcc understands what I am trying to do, because, if I write SpFunc func1 = { /* ... */ } it tells me error: function 'func1' is initialized like a variable Which means that gcc understands that SpFunc is a function type.

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  • How do you pass a generic delegate argument to a method in .NET 2.0

    - by Seth Spearman
    Hello, I have a class with a delegate declaration as follows... Public Class MyClass Public Delegate Function Getter(Of TResult)() As TResult 'the following code works. Public Shared Sub MyMethod(ByVal g As Getter(Of Boolean)) 'do stuff End Sub End Class However, I do not want to explicitly type the Getter delegate in the Method call. Why can I not declare the parameter as follows... ... (ByVal g As Getter(Of TResult)) Is there a way to do it? My end goal was to be able to set a delegate for property setters and getters in the called class. But my reading indicates you can't do that. So I put setter and getter methods in that class and then I want the calling class to set the delegate argument and then invoke. Is there a best practice for doing this. I realize in the above example that I can set set the delegate variable from the calling class...but I am trying to create a singleton with tight encapsulation. For the record, I can't use any of the new delegate types declared in .net35. Answers in C# are welcome. Any thoughts? Seth

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  • XUL: Printing value from SQL query without using value attribute

    - by Grip
    I want to print the results of an SQL query in XUL with word-wrapping using the description tag. I have the following code: <grid> <columns> <column flex="2" /> <column flex="1" /> </columns> <rows datasources="chrome://glossary/content/db/development.sqlite3" ref="?" querytype="storage" > <template> <query>select distinct * from Terms</query> <action> <row uri="?"> <description value="?name" /> <description value="?desc" /> </row> </action> </template> </rows> This works for printing the data, but since I'm using the value attribute of description, there's no word-wrapping. I don't understand entirely what I'm doing with the value attribute, but I don't seem to be able to get the values of my SQL query in any other way. So, how could I get those values without the value tag? Thanks.

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