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  • Why the vertical scroll bar moves automatically ?

    - by Misha Moroshko
    I don't understand why the vertical scroll bar moves automatically to the most top position when "Line 9" clicked, for example. Further clicks does not move the scroll bar. Could anyone explain why, and how to fix this ? I work with Firefox 3.6.3. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/strict.dtd"> <body> <div> <table> <tr row='0'><td class='column1'>Line 0</td></tr> <tr row='1'><td class='column1'>Line 1</td></tr> <tr row='2'><td class='column1'>Line 2</td></tr> <tr row='3'><td class='column1'>Line 3</td></tr> <tr row='4'><td class='column1'>Line 4</td></tr> <tr row='5'><td class='column1'>Line 5</td></tr> <tr row='6'><td class='column1'>Line 6</td></tr> <tr row='7'><td class='column1'>Line 7</td></tr> <tr row='8'><td class='column1'>Line 8</td></tr> <tr row='9'><td class='column1'>Line 9</td></tr> </table> </div> </body> $(document).ready(function() { $(".column1").each(function(index) { $(this).after("<td class='column2'>Details " + index + "</td>"); $(this).toggle(function() { $("[row='" + index + "'] .column2").fadeIn("fast") }, function() { $("[row='" + index + "'] .column2").fadeOut("fast") }); }); }); div { overflow: auto; height: 100px; width: 300px; border: 1px solid blue; } .column1 { cursor: pointer; } .column2 { display: none; }

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  • How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

    - by Ivan
    I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

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  • Abnormally disconnected TCP sockets and write timeout

    - by James
    Hello I will try to explain the problem in shortest possible words. I am using c++ builder 2010. I am using TIdTCPServer and sending voice packets to a list of connected clients. Everything works ok untill any client is disconnected abnormally, For example power failure etc. I can reproduce similar disconnect by cutting the ethernet connection of a connected client. So now we have a disconnected socket but as you know it is not yet detected at server side so server will continue to try to send data to that client too. But when server try to write data to that disconnected client ...... Write() or WriteLn() HANGS there in trying to write, It is like it is wating for somekind of Write timeout. This hangs the hole packet distribution process as a result creating a lag in data transmission to all other clients. After few seconds "Socket Connection Closed" Exception is raised and data flow continues. Here is the code try { EnterCriticalSection(&SlotListenersCriticalSection); for(int i=0;i<SlotListeners->Count;i++) { try { //Here the process will HANG for several seconds on a disconnected socket ((TIdContext*) SlotListeners->Objects[i])->Connection->IOHandler->WriteLn("Some DATA"); }catch(Exception &e) { SlotListeners->Delete(i); } } }__finally { LeaveCriticalSection(&SlotListenersCriticalSection); } Ok i already have a keep alive mechanism which disconnect the socket after n seconds of inactivity. But as you can imagine, still this mechnism cant sync exactly with this braodcasting loop because this braodcasting loop is running almost all the time. So is there any Write timeouts i can specify may be through iohandler or something ? I have seen many many threads about "Detecting disconnected tcp socket" but my problem is little different, i need to avoid that hangup for few seconds during the write attempt. So is there any solution ? Or should i consider using some different mechanism for such data broadcasting for example the broadcasting loop put the data packet in some kind of FIFO buffer and client threads continuously check for available data and pick and deliver it to themselves ? This way if one thread hangs it will not stop/delay the over all distribution thread. Any ideas please ? Thanks for your time and help. Regards Jams

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  • quick java question

    - by j-unit-122
    private static char[] quicksort (char[] array , int left , int right) { if (left < right) { int p = partition(array , left, right); quicksort(array, left, p - 1 ); quicksort(array, p + 1 , right); } for (char i : array) System.out.print(i + ” ”); System.out.println(); return array; } private static int partition(char[] a, int left, int right) { char p = a[left]; int l = left + 1, r = right; while (l < r) { while (l < right && a[l] < p) l++; while (r > left && a[r] >= p) r--; if (l < r) { char temp = a[l]; a[l] = a[r]; a[r] = temp; } } a[left] = a[r]; a[r] = p; return r; } } hi guys just a quick question regarding the above coding, i know that the above coding returns the following B I G C O M P U T E R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M P U T O R B C E G I M O P T U R B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U B C E G I M O P R T U when the sequence BIGCOMPUTER is used but my question is can someone explain to me what is happening in the code and how? i know abit about the quick-sort algorithm but it doesnt seem to be the same in the above example.

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  • Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

    - by Moshe
    1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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  • Add jquery link to returned text...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am trying to add two jquery plugins files to my application. When a user triggers my ajax event, the server will return text with a form button. The plugins (a jquery calendar) will work when the user clicks the form button inside the returned text . I believe I have to add the link inside the return text instead of the main page to let the code work, but not sure how to do this. I am giving out my code and need you experts opinions. Thanks. My main page html //required jquery plugins ...didn't work if I add them in the main application. <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/date.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/datePicker.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="JS/selectWeek.js"></script> <div id="gameInfo"> //return text will be displayed here. </div> My returned text ...part of it.... <form> <div id=returnDiv> // the form input will be added here when a user clicks #addMatch button... </div> <tr> <td><input type="button" id="addMatch" name="addMatch" value="Add Match"/> </td> </tr> </form> My jquery $("#addMatch").live('click', function(){ //the code below will create a calender when a user click the link...I am not sure //where I should add my two jquery plugins link... $("#returnDiv").html("<td><input type='text' size='6' class='date-pick dp-applied'"+ "name='date'><a style='color:white;' class='dp-choose-date' title='Choose Date'"+ "href='#'>Date</a></td>"; return false; }); I hope I explain my question well. +1 to any reply...:D

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  • linux script, standard directory locations.

    - by Thingomy
    I am trying to write a bash script to do a task, I have done pretty well so far, and have it working to an extent, but I want to set it up so it's distributable to other people, and will be opening it up as open source, so I want to start doing things the "conventional" way. Unfortunately I'm not all that sure what the conventional way is. Ideally I want a link to an in depth online resource that discusses this and surrounding topics in depth, but I'm having difficulty finding keywords that will locate this on google. At the start of my script I set a bunch of global variables that store the names of the dirs that it will be accessing, this means that I can modify the dir's quickly, but this is programming shortcuts, not user shortcuts, I can't tell the users that they have to fiddle with this stuff. Also, I need for individual users' settings not to get wiped out on every upgrade. Questions: Name of settings folder: ~/.foo/ -- this is well and good, but how do I keep my working copy and my development copy separate? tweek the reference in the source of the dev version? If my program needs to maintain and update library of data (gps tracklog data in this case) where should this directory be? the user will need to access some of this data, but it's mostly for internal use. I personally work in cygwin, and I like to keep this data on separate drive, so the path is wierd, I suspect many users could find this. for a default however I'm thinking ~/gpsdata/ -- would this be normal, or should I hard code a system that ask the user at first run where to put it, and stores this in the settings folder? whatever happens I'm going ot have to store the directory reference in a file in the settings folder. The program needs a data "inbox" that is a folder that the user can dump files, then run the script to process these files. I was thinking ~/gpsdata/in/ ?? though there will always be an option to add a file or folder to the command line to use that as well (it processed files all locations listed, including the "inbox") Where should the script its self go? it's already smart enough that it can create all of it's ancillary/settings files (once I figure out the "correct" directory) if run with "./foo --setup" I could shove it in /usr/bin/ or /bin or ~/.foo/bin (and add that to the path) what's normal? I need to store login details for a web service that it will connect to (using curl -u if it matters) plan on including a setting whereby it asks for a username and password every execution, but it currently stores it plane text in a file in ~/.foo/ -- I know, this is not good. The webservice (osm.org) does support oauth, but I have no idea how to get curl to use it -- getting curl to speak to the service in the first place was a hack. Is there a simple way to do a really basic encryption on a file like this to deter idiots armed with notepad? Sorry for the list of questions, I believe they are closely related enough for a single post. This is all stuff that stabbing at, but would like clarification/confirmation over.

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  • Why do sockets not die when server dies? Why does a socket die when server is alive?

    - by Roman
    I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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  • Template function as a template argument

    - by Kos
    I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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  • What (tf) are the secrets behind PDF memory allocation (CGPDFDocumentRef)

    - by Kai
    For a PDF reader I want to prepare a document by taking 'screenshots' of each page and save them to disc. First approach is CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc [pool drain]; } CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); This results in a lot of memory which seems not to be released after the first run of the loop (preparing the 1st document), but no more unreleased memory in additional runs: MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 25 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 40 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 25 MB .... Changing the code to for (int i = 1; i<=pageCount; i++) { CGPDFDocumentRef document = CGPDFDocumentCreateWithURL((CFURLRef) someURL); NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc]init]; CGPDFPageRef page = CGPDFDocumentGetPage(document, i); ...//getting + manipulating graphics context etc. ... CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); ... UIImage *resultingImage = UIGraphicsGetImageFromCurrentImageContext(); ...//saving the image to disc CGPDFDocumentRelease(document); [pool drain]; } changes the memory usage to MEMORY BEFORE: 6 MB MEMORY DURING 1ST DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 1ST DOC: 7 MB MEMORY DURING 2ND DOC: 9 MB MEMORY AFTER 2ND DOC: 7 MB .... but is obviously a step backwards in performance. When I start reading a PDF (later in time, different thread) in the first case no more memory is allocated (staying at 25 MB), while in the second case memory goes up to 20 MB (from 7). In both cases, when I remove the CGContextDrawPDFPage(context, page); line memory is (nearly) constant at 6 MB during and after all preparations of documents. Can anybody explain whats going on there?

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  • Chrome extension - Localstorage not working

    - by Bjarki Jonasson
    I'm writing a Chrome extension that uses a content script to modify certain parts of a website. The content script worked fine until I tried to add an options page to my extension. Right now I'm using an options.html file to save user preferences to localstorage, as you can see here: <html> <head><title>Options</title></head> <script type="text/javascript"> function save_options() { var select = document.getElementById("width"); var width = select.children[select.selectedIndex].value; localStorage["site_width"] = width; } function restore_options() { var fwidth = localStorage["site_width"]; if (!fwidth) { return; } var select = document.getElementById("width"); for (var i = 0; i < select.children.length; i++) { var child = select.children[i]; if (child.value == fwidth) { child.selected = "true"; break; } } } </script> <body onload="restore_options()"> Width: <select id="width"> <option value="100%">100%</option> <option value="90%">90%</option> <option value="80%">80%</option> <option value="70%">70%</option> </select> <br> <button onclick="save_options()">Save</button> </body> </html> I also have a background.html file to handle the communication between the content script and the localstorage: <html> <script type="text/javascript"> chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { if (request.method == "siteWidth") sendResponse({status: localStorage["site_width"]}); else sendResponse({}); }); </script> </html> Then there's the actual content script that looks like this: var Width; chrome.extension.sendRequest({method: "siteWidth"}, function(response) { width = response.status; }); None of that code actually works. It looks solid enough to me but I'm not a very experienced programmer so I might be wrong. Could someone explain localstorage to me in layman's terms?

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  • To Interface or Not?: Creating a polymorphic model relationship in Ruby on Rails dynamically..

    - by Globalkeith
    Please bear with me for a moment as I try to explain exactly what I would like to achieve. In my Ruby on Rails application I have a model called Page. It represents a web page. I would like to enable the user to arbitrarily attach components to the page. Some examples of "components" would be Picture, PictureCollection, Video, VideoCollection, Background, Audio, Form, Comments. Currently I have a direct relationship between Page and Picture like this: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end class Picture < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :imageable, :polymorphic => true end This relationship enables the user to associate an arbitrary number of Pictures to the page. Now if I want to provide multiple collections i would need an additional model: class PictureCollection < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :collectionable, :polymorphic => true has_many :pictures, :as => :imageable, :dependent => :destroy end And alter Page to reference the new model: class Page < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :picture_collections, :as => :collectionable, :dependent => :destroy end Now it would be possible for the user to add any number of image collections to the page. However this is still very static in term of the :picture_collections reference in the Page model. If I add another "component", for example :video_collections, I would need to declare another reference in page for that component type. So my question is this: Do I need to add a new reference for each component type, or is there some other way? In Actionscript/Java I would declare an interface Component and make all components implement that interface, then I could just have a single attribute :components which contains all of the dynamically associated model objects. This is Rails, and I'm sure there is a great way to achieve this, but its a tricky one to Google. Perhaps you good people have some wise suggestions. Thanks in advance for taking the time to read and answer this.

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  • MySQL - Calculating fields on the fly vs storing calculated data

    - by Christian Varga
    Hi Everyone, I apologise if this has been asked before, but I can't seem to find an answer to a question that I have about calculating on the fly vs storing fields in a database. I read a few articles that suggested it was preferable to calculate when you can, but I would just like to know if that still applies to the following 2 examples. Example 1. Say you are storing data relating to a car. You store the fuel tank size in litres, and how many litres it uses per 100km. You also want to know how many KMs it can travel, which can be calculated from the tank size and economy. I see 2 ways of doing this: When a car is added or updated, calculate the amount of KMs and store this as a static field in the database. Every time a car is accessed, calculate the amount of KMs on the fly. Because the cars economy/tank size doesn't change (although it could be edited), the KMs is a pretty static value. I don't see why we would calculate it every single time the car is accessed. Wouldn't this waste cpu time as opposed to simply storing it in a separate field in the database and calculating only when a car is added or updated? My next example, which is almost an entirely different question (but on the same topic), relates to counting children. Let's say we have a app which has categories and items. We have a view where we display all the categories, and a count of all the items inside each category. Again, I'm wondering what's better. To perform a MySQL query to count all the items in each category every single time the page is accessed? Or store the count in a field in the categories table and update when an item is added / deleted? I know it is redundant to store anything that can be calculated, but I worry that calculating fields or counting records might be slow as opposed to storing the data in a field. If it's not then please let me know, I just want to learn about when to use either method. On a small scale I guess it wouldn't matter either way, but apps like Facebook, would they really count the amount of friends you have every time someone views your profile or would they just store it as a field? I'd appreciate any responses to both of these scenarios, and any resource that might explain the benefits of calculating vs storing. Thanks in advance, Christian

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  • working validation hint, working word counter but not working together

    - by Sriyani Rathnayaka
    I added a word counter to a my form's textarea... it is something like this... <div> <label>About you:</label> <textarea id="qualification" class="textarea hint_needed" rows="4" cols="30" ></textarea> <span class="hint">explain about you</span> <script type="text/javascript"> $("textarea").textareaCounter(); </script> </div> My problem is when I add textaracounter() like this my validation hint is not working.. when I remover the counter function validation hint is working... this is the jquery for hint message.. $(".hint").css({ "display":"none" }); $("input.hint_needed, select.hint_needed, textarea.hint_needed, radio.hint_needed").on("mouseenter", function() { $(this).next(".hint").css({ "display":"inline" }); }).on("mouseleave", function() { $(this).next(".hint").css({ "display":"none" }); }); this is for the word counter.. (function($){ $.fn.textareaCounter = function(options) { // setting the defaults // $("textarea").textareaCounter({ limit: 100 }); var defaults = { limit: 150 }; var options = $.extend(defaults, options); // and the plugin begins return this.each(function() { var obj, text, wordcount, limited; obj = $("#experience"); obj.after('<span style="font-weight: bold; color:#6a6a6a; clear: both; margin: 3px 0 0 150px; float: left; overflow: hidden;" id="counter-text">Max. '+options.limit+' words</span>'); obj.keyup(function() { text = obj.val(); if(text === "") { wordcount = 0; } else { wordcount = $.trim(text).split(" ").length; } if(wordcount > options.limit) { $("#counter-text").html('<span style="color: #DD0000;">0 words left</span>'); limited = $.trim(text).split(" ", options.limit); limited = limited.join(" "); $(this).val(limited); } else { $("#counter-text").html((options.limit - wordcount)+' words left'); } }); }); }; })(jQuery); can anybody tell me what is the problem there? Thank you..

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  • Why does WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample still need a client db connection after scope c

    - by Don
    I'm researching a way to build an n-tierd sync solution. From the WebSharingAppDemo-CEProviderEndToEnd sample it seems almost feasable however for some reason, the app will only sync if the client has a live SQL db connection. Can some one explain what I'm missing and how to sync without exposing SQL to the internet? The problem I'm experiencing is that when I provide a Relational sync provider that has an open SQL connection from the client, then it works fine but when I provide a Relational sync provider that has a closed but configured connection string, as in the example, I get an error from the WCF stating that the server did not receive the batch file. So what am I doing wrong? SqlConnectionStringBuilder builder = new SqlConnectionStringBuilder(); builder.DataSource = hostName; builder.IntegratedSecurity = true; builder.InitialCatalog = "mydbname"; builder.ConnectTimeout = 1; provider.Connection = new SqlConnection(builder.ToString()); // provider.Connection.Open(); **** un-commenting this causes the code to work** //create anew scope description and add the appropriate tables to this scope DbSyncScopeDescription scopeDesc = new DbSyncScopeDescription(SyncUtils.ScopeName); //class to be used to provision the scope defined above SqlSyncScopeProvisioning serverConfig = new SqlSyncScopeProvisioning(); .... The error I get occurs in this part of the WCF code: public SyncSessionStatistics ApplyChanges(ConflictResolutionPolicy resolutionPolicy, ChangeBatch sourceChanges, object changeData) { Log("ProcessChangeBatch: {0}", this.peerProvider.Connection.ConnectionString); DbSyncContext dataRetriever = changeData as DbSyncContext; if (dataRetriever != null && dataRetriever.IsDataBatched) { string remotePeerId = dataRetriever.MadeWithKnowledge.ReplicaId.ToString(); //Data is batched. The client should have uploaded this file to us prior to calling ApplyChanges. //So look for it. //The Id would be the DbSyncContext.BatchFileName which is just the batch file name without the complete path string localBatchFileName = null; if (!this.batchIdToFileMapper.TryGetValue(dataRetriever.BatchFileName, out localBatchFileName)) { //Service has not received this file. Throw exception throw new FaultException<WebSyncFaultException>(new WebSyncFaultException("No batch file uploaded for id " + dataRetriever.BatchFileName, null)); } dataRetriever.BatchFileName = localBatchFileName; } Any ideas?

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  • What is the best practice to segment c#.net projects based on a single base project

    - by Anthony
    Honestly, I can't word my question any better without describing it. I have a base project (with all its glory, dlls, resources etc) which is a CMS. I need to use this project as a base for othe custom bake projects. This base project is to be maintained and updated among all custom bake projects. I use subversion (Collabnet and Tortise SVN) I have two questions: 1 - Can I use subversion to share the base project among other projects What I mean here is can I "Checkout" the base project into another "Checked Out" project and have both update and commit seperatley. So, to paint a picture, let's say I am working on a custom project and I modify the core/base prject in some way (which I know will suit the others) can I then commit those changes and upon doing so when I update the base project in the other "Checked out" resources will it pull the changes? In short, I would like not to have to manually deploy updated core files whenever I make changes into each seperate project. 2 - If I create a custom file (let's say an webcontrol or aspx page etc) can I have it compile seperatley from the base project Another tricky one to explain. When I publish my web application it creates DLLs based on the namespaces of projects attached to it. So I may have a number of DLLs including the "Website's" namespace DLL, which could simply be website. I want to be able to make a seperate, custom, control which does not compile into those DLLs as the custom files should not rely on those DLLS to run. Is it as simple to set a seperate namespace for those files like CustomFiles.ProjectName for example? Think of the whole idea as adding modules to the .NET project, I don't want the module's code in any of the core DLLs but I do need for module to be able to access the core dlls. (There is no need for the core project to access the module code as it should be one way only in theory, though I reckon it woould not be possible anyway without using JSON/SOAP or something like that, maybe I am wrong.) I want to create a pluggable environment much like that of Joomla/Wordpress as since PHP generally doesn't have to be compiled first I see this is the reason why all this is possible/easy. The idea is to allow pluggable themes, modules etc etc. (I haven't tried simply adding .NET themes after compile/publish but I am assuming this is possible anyway? OR does the compiler need to reference items in the files?)

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  • How do I call the methods in a model via controller? Zend Framework

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I've been searching for tutorials to better understand this, but I'm having no luck. Please forgive the lengthy explination, but I want make sure I explain myself well. First, I'm quite new to the MVC structure, though I have been doing tutorials and learning as best I can. I have been moving over a live site into the Zend Framework model. So far, I have all the views within views/scripts/index/example.phtml. So therefore I'm using one IndexController and I have the code in each Action method for each page: IE public function exampleAction() Because I didn't know how to interact with a model, I put all the methods at the bottom of the controller (a fat controller). So basically, I had a working site by using a View and Controller and no model. ... Now I'm trying to learn how to incorporate the Model. So I created a View at: view/scripts/calendar/index.phtml I created a new Controller at: controller/CalendarControllers.php and a new model at: model/Calendar.php The problem is I think I'm not correctly communication with the model (I'm still new to OOP). Can you look over my controller and model and tell me if you see a problem. I'm needing to return an array from runCalendarScript(), but I'm not sure if I can return an array into the object like I'm trying to? I don't really understand how to "run" the runCalendarScript() from the controller? Thanks for any help! I'm stripping out most of the guts of the methods for the sake of brevity: controller: <?php class CalendarController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $finishedFeedArray = new Application_Model_Calendar(); $this->view->googleArray = $finishedFeedArray; } } model: <?php class Application_Model_Calendar { public function _runCalendarScript(){ $gcal = $this->_validateCalendarConnection(); $uncleanedFeedArray = $this->_getCalendarFeed($gcal); $finishedFeedArray = $this->_cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray); return $finishedFeedArray; } //Validate Google Calendar connection public function _validateCalendarConnection() { ... return $gcal; } //extracts googles calendar object into the $feed object public function _getCalendarFeed($gcal) { ... return $feed; } //cleans the feed to just text, etc protected function _cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray) { $contentText = $this->_cleanupText($event); $eventData = $this->_filterEventDetails($contentText); return $cleanedArray; } //Cleans up all formatting of text from Calendar feed public function _cleanupText($event) { ... return $contentText; } //filterEventDetails protected function _filterEventDetails($contentText) { ... return $data; } }

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  • KnockoutJS radio buttons not changing like checkboxes do

    - by Gaui
    I have the same data structure for checkboxes and radio buttons. When checking the checkboxes, they return correct boolean value ('chosen' variable). However, when I check the radio buttons, 'chosen' always changes to the 'value' (integer). Also the radio buttons don't get "checked" in the beginning, even though 'chosen' == true Javascript: function attributeValueViewModel(data) { var self = this; self.id = ko.observable(data.id); self.attributeID = ko.observable(data.attributeID); self.value = ko.observable(data.value); self.chosen = ko.observable(data.chosen); } function viewModel() { var self = this; self.attributeValues1 = ko.observableArray([]); self.attributeValues2 = ko.observableArray([]); self.addToList = function(data) { ko.utils.arrayForEach(data, function(item) { self.attributeValues1.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); self.attributeValues2.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); }); }; } var arr = [ { "id": 55, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Yes", "chosen": false, }, { "id": 56, "attributeID": 28, "value": "No", "chosen": true, }, { "id": 62, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Maybe", "chosen": false, } ]; var vm = new viewModel(); ko.applyBindings(vm); vm.addToList(arr); HTML <b>Checkbox:</b> <div id="test1"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues1()"> <input type="checkbox" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test1' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div> <br /> <b>Radio:</b> <div id="test2"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues2()"> <input type="radio" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test2' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div>? Here is my fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/SN7Vn/1/ Can you please explain this behavior and why the radio buttons don't update boolean (like checkboxes do)?

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  • grdb not working variables

    - by stupid_idiot
    hi, i know this is kinda retarded but I just can't figure it out. I'm debugging this: xor eax,eax mov ah,[var1] mov al,[var2] call addition stop: jmp stop var1: db 5 var2: db 6 addition: add ah,al ret the numbers that I find on addresses var1 and var2 are 0x0E and 0x07. I know it's not segmented, but that ain't reason for it to do such escapades, because the addition call works just fine. Could you please explain to me where is my mistake? I see the problem, dunno how to fix it yet though. The thing is, for some reason the instruction pointer starts at 0x100 and all the segment registers at 0x1628. To address the instruction the used combination is i guess [cs:ip] (one of the segment registers and the instruction pointer for sure). The offset to var1 is 0x10 (probably because from the begining of the code it's the 0x10th byte in order), i tried to examine the memory and what i got was: 1628:100 8 bytes 1628:108 8 bytes 1628:110 <- wtf? (assume another 8 bytes) 1628:118 ... whatever tricks are there in the memory [cs:var1] points somewhere else than in my code, which is probably where the label .data would usually address ds.... probably.. i don't know what is supposed to be at 1628:10 ok, i found out what caused the assness and wasted me whole fuckin day. the behaviour described above is just correct, the code is fully functional. what i didn't know is that grdb debugger for some reason sets the begining address to 0x100... the sollution is to insert the directive ORG 0x100 on the first line and that's the whole thing. the code was working because instruction pointer has the right address to first instruction and goes one by one, but your assembler doesn't know what effective address will be your program stored at so it pretty much remains relative to first line of the code which means all the variables (if not using label for data section) will remain pointing as if it started at 0x0. which of course wouldn't work with DOS. and grdb apparently emulates some DOS features... sry for the language, thx everyone for effort, hope this will spare someone's time if having the same problem... heheh.. at least now i know the reason why to use .data section :))))

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  • Learning... anything really

    - by WebDevHobo
    I'm particularly interested in Windows PowerShell, but here's a somewhat more general complaint: When asking for help on learning something new, be it a small subject on PHP or understanding a class in Java, what usually happens is that people direct me towards the documentation pages. What I'm looking for is somewhat of a course. A deep explanation of why something works the way it does. I know my basic programming, like Java and C#. I've never seen C or C++, though I have seen a bit of assembler. I know what the Stack and Heap are, how boxing and unboxing works, why you have to deep-copy an array instead of copying the pointer and some other things. Windows PowerShell on the other hand, I know nothing about. And I notice that when reading the small document or some code, I usually forget what it does or why it works. What I am looking for is preferably, a nice tutorial that explains the beginnings, the concepts, and goes to more difficult things at a steady pace. The only thing documentation can do is explain what a function does. That's no good to me since I don't know what I want to do yet. I could read about a thousand functions, and forget about most of them, because I don't need to implement them right after it. Randomly wandering through the documentation doesn't do me any good. So conclude, what is a good tutorial on Windows Powershell? One which explains in clear language what is happening, one which builds on previous things learned. I don't think googling this is a good idea. Doing a Google search on this would turn up numerous tutorials. And experience tells me that you have to look long and hard to find the gem you're looking for. That's why I'm asking here. Because this is the place where you can find more experienced people. Many of the PowerShell guys among you will know the good ones already, and by asking you, I avoid wasting time that could be spent learning. So to summarize: I will not google this!

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  • What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

    - by Zac Thompson
    I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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  • MySQL LEFT OUTER JOIN virtual table

    - by user1707323
    I am working on a pretty complicated query let me try to explain it to you. Here is the tables that I have in my MySQL database: students Table --- `students` --- student_id first_name last_name current_status status_change_date ------------ ------------ ----------- ---------------- -------------------- 1 John Doe Active NULL 2 Jane Doe Retread 2012-02-01 students_have_courses Table --- `students_have_courses` --- students_student_id courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date --------------------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ----------- 1 1 2012-01-01 2012-01-04 2012-01-05 1 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 2 1 2012-01-10 2012-01-11 NULL students_have_optional_courses Table --- `students_have_optional_courses` --- students_student_id optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date e_date --------------------- ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 1 2012-01-02 2012-01-03 1 1 2012-01-06 NULL 1 5 2012-01-07 NULL Here is my query so far SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_optional_courses` ON ( `students_have_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_have_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_have_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id; What I want to be returned is the student_id, first_name, and last_name for all Active or Retread students and then LEFT JOIN the highest course_id, s_date, e_date, and int_date for the those students where the s_date is since the status_change_date if status is 'Retread'. Then LEFT JOIN the highest optional_courses_opcourse_id, s_date, and e_date from the students_have_optional_courses TABLE where the students_have_optional_courses.s_date is greater or equal to the students_have_courses.s_date and the students_have_optional_courses.e_date IS NULL Here is what is being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 1 2012-01-06 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Here is what I want being returned: student_id first_name last_name courses_course_id s_date e_date int_date optional_courses_opcourse_id s_date_1 e_date_1 ------------ ------------ ----------- ------------------- ---------- ---------- ------------ ------------------------------ ---------- ---------- 1 John Doe 2 2012-01-05 NULL NULL 5 2012-01-07 NULL 2 Jane Doe NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL NULL Everything is working except one thing, I cannot seem to get the highest students_have_optional_courses.optional_courses_opcourse_id no matter how I form the query Sorry, I just solved this myself after writing this all out I think it helped me think of the solution. Here is the solution query: SELECT `students_and_courses`.student_id, `students_and_courses`.first_name, `students_and_courses`.last_name, `students_and_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_and_courses`.s_date, `students_and_courses`.e_date, `students_and_courses`.int_date, `students_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id, `students_optional_courses`.s_date, `students_optional_courses`.e_date FROM ( SELECT `c_s_a_s`.student_id, `c_s_a_s`.first_name, `c_s_a_s`.last_name, `c_s_a_s`.courses_course_id, `c_s_a_s`.s_date, `c_s_a_s`.e_date, `c_s_a_s`.int_date FROM ( SELECT `students`.student_id, `students`.first_name, `students`.last_name, `students_have_courses`.courses_course_id, `students_have_courses`.s_date, `students_have_courses`.e_date, `students_have_courses`.int_date FROM `students` LEFT OUTER JOIN `students_have_courses` ON ( `students_have_courses`.`students_student_id` = `students`.`student_id` AND (( `students_have_courses`.`s_date` >= `students`.`status_change_date` AND `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) OR `students`.current_status = 'Active') ) WHERE `students`.current_status = 'Active' OR `students`.current_status = 'Retread' ) `c_s_a_s` ORDER BY `c_s_a_s`.`courses_course_id` DESC ) `students_and_courses` LEFT OUTER JOIN ( SELECT * FROM `students_have_optional_courses` ORDER BY `students_have_optional_courses`.optional_courses_opcourse_id DESC ) `students_optional_courses` ON ( `students_optional_courses`.students_student_id = `students_and_courses`.student_id AND `students_optional_courses`.s_date >= `students_and_courses`.s_date AND `students_optional_courses`.e_date IS NULL ) GROUP BY `students_and_courses`.student_id;

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  • devise register confirmation

    - by mattherick
    hello! i have a user and an admin role in my project. i created my authentification with devise, really nice and goot tool for handling the authentification. in my admin role i don´t have any confirmation or something like that. it is really simple and doesn´t make problems. but in my user model i have following things: model: devise :database_authenticatable, :confirmable, :recoverable, :rememberable, :trackable, :validatable, :timeoutable, :registerable # Setup accessible (or protected) attributes for your model attr_accessible :email, :username, :prename, :surname, :phone, :street, :number, :location, :password, :password_confirmation and few validations, but they aren´t relevant this time. my migration looks like following one: class DeviseCreateUsers < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table(:users) do |t| t.database_authenticatable :null = false t.confirmable t.recoverable t.rememberable t.trackable t.timeoutable t.validateable t.string :username t.string :prename t.string :surname t.string :phone t.string :street t.integer :number t.string :location t.timestamps end add_index :users, :email, :unique => true add_index :users, :confirmation_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :reset_password_token, :unique => true add_index :users, :username, :unique => true add_index :users, :prename, :unique => false add_index :users, :surname, :unique => false add_index :users, :phone, :unique => false add_index :users, :street, :unique => false add_index :users, :number, :unique => false add_index :users, :location, :unique => false end def self.down drop_table :users end end into my route.rb I added following statements: map.devise_for :admins map.devise_for :users, :path_names = { :sign_up = "register", :sign_in = "login" } map.root :controller = "main" and now my problem.. if I register a new user, I fill in all my data in the register form and submit it. After that I get redirected to the controller main with the flash-notice "You have signed up successfully." And I am logged in. But I don´t want to be logged in, because I don´t have confirmed my new user account yet. If I open the console I see the last things in the logs and there I see the confirmation-mail and the text and all stuff, but I am already logged in... I can´t explain why, ... does somebody of you have an idea? If I copy out the confirmation-token from the logs and confirm my account, I can log in, but if I don´t confirm, I also can log in..

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  • How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

    - by Glacius
    Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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  • vector related memory allocation question

    - by memC
    hi all, I am encountering the following bug. I have a class Foo . Instances of this class are stored in a std::vector vec of class B. in class Foo, I am creating an instance of class A by allocating memory using new and deleting that object in ~Foo(). the code compiles, but I get a crash at the runtime. If I disable delete my_a from desstructor of class Foo. The code runs fine (but there is going to be a memory leak). Could someone please explain what is going wrong here and suggest a fix? thank you! class A{ public: A(int val); ~A(){}; int val_a; }; A::A(int val){ val_a = val; }; class Foo { public: Foo(); ~Foo(); void createA(); A* my_a; }; Foo::Foo(){ createA(); }; void Foo::createA(){ my_a = new A(20); }; Foo::~Foo(){ delete my_a; }; class B { public: vector<Foo> vec; void createFoo(); B(){}; ~B(){}; }; void B::createFoo(){ vec.push_back(Foo()); }; int main(){ B b; int i =0; for (i = 0; i < 5; i ++){ std::cout<<"\n creating Foo"; b.createFoo(); std::cout<<"\n Foo created"; } std::cout<<"\nDone with Foo creation"; std::cout << "\nPress RETURN to continue..."; std::cin.get(); return 0; }

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