explain plan - Page 416

How to get a physics engine like Nape working?

- by Glacius

Introduction: I think Nape is a relatively new engine so some of you may not know it. It's supposedly faster than box2d and I like that there is decent documentation. Here's the site: http://code.google.com/p/nape/ I'm relatively new to programming. I am decent at AS3's basic functionality, but every time I try to implement some kind of engine or framework I can't even seem to get it to work. With Nape I feel I got a little further than before but I still got stuck. My problem: I'm using Adobe CS5, I managed to import the SWC file like described here. Next I tried to copy the source of one of the demo's like this one and get it to work but I keep getting errors. I made a new class file, copied the demo source to it, and tried to add it to the stage. My stage code basically looks like this: import flash.Boot; // these 2 lines are as described in the tutorial new Boot(); var demo = new Main(); // these 2 are me guessing what I'm supposed to do addChild(demo); Well, it seems the source code is not even being recognized by flash as a valid class file. I tried editing it, but even if I get it recognized (give a package name and add curly brackets) but I still get a bunch of errors. Is it psuedo code or something? What is going on? My goal: I can imagine I'm going about this the wrong way. So let me explain what I'm trying to achieve. I basically want to learn how to use the engine by starting from a simple basic example that I can edit and mess around with. If I can't even get a working example then I'm unable to learn anything. Preferably I don't want to start using something like FlashDevelop (as I'd have to learn how to use the program) but if it can't be helped then I can give it a try. Thank you.

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Is a many-to-many relationship with extra fields the right tool for my job?

- by whichhand

Previously had a go at asking a more specific version of this question, but had trouble articulating what my question was. On reflection that made me doubt if my chosen solution was correct for the problem, so this time I will explain the problem and ask if a) I am on the right track and b) if there is a way around my current brick wall. I am currently building a web interface to enable an existing database to be interrogated by (a small number of) users. Sticking with the analogy from the docs, I have models that look something like this: class Musician(models.Model): first_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) last_name = models.CharField(max_length=50) dob = models.DateField() class Album(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) class Instrument(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) Where I have one central table (Musician) and several tables of associated data that are related by either ForeignKey or OneToOneFields. Users interact with the database by creating filtering criteria to select a subset of Musicians based on data the data on the main or related tables. Likewise, the users can then select what piece of data is used to rank results that are presented to them. The results are then viewed initially as a 2 dimensional table with a single row per Musician with selected data fields (or aggregates) in each column. To give you some idea of scale, the database has ~5,000 Musicians with around 20 fields of related data. Up to here is fine and I have a working implementation. However, it is important that I have the ability for a given user to upload there own annotation data sets (more than one) and then filter and order on these in the same way they can with the existing data. The way I had tried to do this was to add the models: class UserDataSets(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) name = models.CharField(max_length=100) description = models.CharField(max_length=64) results = models.ManyToManyField(Musician, through='UserData') class UserData(models.Model): artist = models.ForeignKey(Musician) dataset = models.ForeignKey(UserDataSets) score = models.IntegerField() class Meta: unique_together = (("artist", "dataset"),) I have a simple upload mechanism enabling users to upload a data set file that consists of 1 to 1 relationship between a Musician and their "score". Within a given user dataset each artist will be unique, but different datasets are independent from each other and will often contain entries for the same musician. This worked fine for displaying the data, starting from a given artist I can do something like this: artist = Musician.objects.get(pk=1) dataset = UserDataSets.objects.get(pk=5) print artist.userdata_set.get(dataset=dataset.pk) However, this approach fell over when I came to implement the filtering and ordering of query set of musicians based on the data contained in a single user data set. For example, I could easily order the query set based on all of the data in the UserData table like this: artists = Musician.objects.all().order_by(userdata__score) But that does not help me order by the results of a given single user dataset. Likewise I need to be able to filter the query set based on the "scores" from different user data sets (eg find all musicians with a score 5 in dataset1 and < 2 in dataset2). Is there a way of doing this, or am I going about the whole thing wrong?

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Silverlight: Binding a custom control to an arbitrary object

- by Ryan Bates

I am planning on writing a hierarchical organizational control, similar to an org chart. Several org chart implementations are out there, but not quite fit what I have in mind. Binding fields in a DataTemplate to a custom object does not seem to work. I started with a generic, custom control, i.e. public class NodeBodyBlock : ContentControl { public NodeBodyBlock() { this.DefaultStyleKey = typeof(NodeBodyBlock); } } It has a simple style in generic.xaml: <Style TargetType="org:NodeBodyBlock"> <Setter Property="Width" Value="200" /> <Setter Property="Height" Value="100" /> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Lavender" /> <Setter Property="FontSize" Value="11" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="org:NodeBodyBlock"> <Border Width="{TemplateBinding Width}" Height="{TemplateBinding Height}" Background="{TemplateBinding Background}" CornerRadius="4" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1" > <Grid> <VisualStateManager/> ... clipped for brevity </VisualStateManager.VisualStateGroups> <ContentPresenter Content="{TemplateBinding Content}" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" /> </Grid> </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> My plan now is to be able to use this common definition as a base definition of sorts, with customized version of it used to display different types of content. A simple example would be to use this on a user control with the following style: <Style TargetType="org:NodeBodyBlock" x:Key="TOCNode2"> <Setter Property="ContentTemplate"> <Setter.Value> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=NodeTitle}"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> and an instance defined as <org:NodeBodyBlock Style="{StaticResource TOCNode2}" x:Name="stTest" DataContext="{StaticResource DummyData}" /> The DummyData is defined as <toc:Node NodeNumber="mynum" NodeStatus="A" NodeTitle="INLine Node Title!" x:Key="DummyData"/> With a simple C# class behind it, where each of the fields is a public property. When running the app, the Dummy Data values simply do not show up in the GUI. A trivial test such as <TextBlock Text="{Binding NodeTitle}" DataContext="{StaticResource DummyData}"/> works just fine. Any ideas around where I am missing the plot?

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Memory leaks getting sub-images from video (cvGetSubRect)

- by dnul

Hi, i'm trying to do video windowing that is: show all frames from a video and also some sub-image from each frame. This sub-image can change size and be taken from a different position of the original frame. So , the code i've written does basically this: cvQueryFrame to get a new image from the video Create a new IplImage (img) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) Create a new Cvmat (mat) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) CvGetSubRect(originalImage,mat,window) seizes the sub-image transform Mat (cvMat) to img (IplImage) using cvGetImage my problem is that for each frame i create new IplImage and cvMat which take a lot of memory and when i try to free the allocated memory I get a segmentation fault or in the case of the CvMat the allocated space does not get free (valgrind keeps telling me its definetly lost space). the following code does it: int main(void){ CvCapture* capture; CvRect window; CvMat * tmp; //window size window.x=0;window.y=0;window.height=100;window.width=100; IplImage * src=NULL,*bk=NULL,* sub=NULL; capture=cvCreateFileCapture( "somevideo.wmv"); while((src=cvQueryFrame(capture))!=NULL){ cvShowImage("common",src); //get sub-image sub=cvCreateImage(cvSize(window.height,window.width),8,3); tmp =cvCreateMat(window.height, window.width,CV_8UC1); cvGetSubRect(src, tmp , window); sub=cvGetImage(tmp, sub); cvShowImage("Window",sub); //free space if(bk!=NULL) cvReleaseImage(&bk); bk=sub; cvReleaseMat(&tmp); cvWaitKey(20); //window dimensions changes window.width++; window.height++; } } cvReleaseMat(&tmp); does not seem to have any effect on the total amount of lost memory, valgrind reports the same amount of "definetly lost" memory if i comment or uncomment this line. cvReleaseImage(&bk); produces a segmentation fault. notice i'm trying to free the previous sub-frame which i'm backing up in the bk variable. If i comment this line the program runs smoothly but with lots of memory leaks I really need to get rid of memory leaks, can anyone explain me how to correct this or even better how to correctly perform image windowing? Thank you

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How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

- by SleepyBobos

I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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how to fix protocol violation in c#

- by Jeremy Styers

I have a c# "client" and a Java "server". The java server has a wsdl it serves to the client. So far it works for c# to make a request for the server to perform a soap action. My server gets the soap request executes the method and tries to return the result back to the client. When I send the response to c# however, I get "The server committed a protocol violation. Section=ResponseStatusLine". I have spent all day trying to fix this and have come up with nothing that works. If I explain what i did, this post would be very long, so I'll keep it brief. i Googled for hours and everything tells me my "response line" is correct. I tried shutting down Skype, rearranging the response line, adding things, taking things away, etc, etc. All to no avail. This is for a class assignment so no, I can not use apis to help. I must do everything manually on the server side. That means parsing by hand, creating the soap response and the http response by hand. Just thought you'd like to know that before you say to use something that does it for me. I even tried making sure my server was sending the correct header by creating a java client that "mimicked" the c# one so I could see what the server returned. However, it's returning exactly what i told it to send. I tried telling my java client to do the same thing but to an actuall running c# service, to see what a real service returns, and it returned basically the same thing. To be safe, I copied it's response and tried sending it to the c# client and it still threw the error. Can anyone help? I've tried all i can think of, including adding the useUnsafeHeaderParsing to my app config. Nothing is working though. I send it exactly what a real service sends it and it yells at me. I send it what i want and it yells. I'm sending this: "200 OK HTTP/1.0\r\n" + "Content-Length: 201\r\n" + "Cache-Control: private\r\n" + "Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8\r\n\r\n";

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Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

- by Leoncelot

Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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thread management in nbody code of cuda-sdk

- by xnov

When I read the nbody code in Cuda-SDK, I went through some lines in the code and I found that it is a little bit different than their paper in GPUGems3 "Fast N-Body Simulation with CUDA". My questions are: First, why the blockIdx.x is still involved in loading memory from global to share memory as written in the following code? for (int tile = blockIdx.y; tile < numTiles + blockIdx.y; tile++) { sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : //this line positions[WRAP(blockIdx.x + tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; //this line __syncthreads(); // This is the "tile_calculation" function from the GPUG3 article. acc = gravitation(bodyPos, acc); __syncthreads(); } isn't it supposed to be like this according to paper? I wonder why sharedPos[threadIdx.x+blockDim.x*threadIdx.y] = multithreadBodies ? positions[WRAP(q * tile + threadIdx.y, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x] : positions[WRAP(tile, gridDim.x) * p + threadIdx.x]; Second, in the multiple threads per body why the threadIdx.x is still involved? Isn't it supposed to be a fix value or not involving at all because the sum only due to threadIdx.y if (multithreadBodies) { SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).x = acc.x; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).y = acc.y; //this line SX_SUM(threadIdx.x, threadIdx.y).z = acc.z; //this line __syncthreads(); // Save the result in global memory for the integration step if (threadIdx.y == 0) { for (int i = 1; i < blockDim.y; i++) { acc.x += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).x; //this line acc.y += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).y; //this line acc.z += SX_SUM(threadIdx.x,i).z; //this line } } } Can anyone explain this to me? Is it some kind of optimization for faster code?

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Why sockets does not die when server dies? Why socket dies when server is alive?

- by Roman

I try to play with sockets a bit. For that I wrote very simple "client" and "server" applications. Client: import java.net.*; public class client { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { InetAddress localhost = InetAddress.getLocalHost(); System.out.println("before"); Socket clientSideSocket = null; try { clientSideSocket = new Socket(localhost,12345,localhost,54321); } catch (ConnectException e) { System.out.println("Connection Refused"); } System.out.println("after"); if (clientSideSocket != null) { clientSideSocket.close(); } } } Server: import java.net.*; public class server { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { ServerSocket listener = new ServerSocket(12345); while (true) { Socket serverSideSocket = listener.accept(); System.out.println("A client-request is accepted."); } } } And I found a behavior that I cannot explain: I start a server, than I start a client. Connection is successfully established (client stops running and server is running). Then I close the server and start it again in a second. After that I start a client and it writes "Connection Refused". It seems to me that the server "remember" the old connection and does not want to open the second connection twice. But I do not understand how it is possible. Because I killed the previous server and started a new one! I do not start the server immediately after the previous one was killed (I wait like 20 seconds). In this case the server "forget" the socket from the previous server and accepts the request from the client. I start the server and then I start the client. Connection is established (server writes: "A client-request is accepted"). Then I wait a minute and start the client again. And server (which was running the whole time) accept the request again! Why? The server should not accept the request from the same client-IP and client-port but it does!

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invalid postback event instead of dropdown to datagrid

- by rima

I faced with funny situation. I created a page which is having some value, I set these value and control my post back event also. The problem is happening when I change a component index(ex reselect a combobox which is not inside my datagrid) then I dont know why without my page call the Page_Load it goes to create a new row in grid function and all of my parameter are null! I am just receiving null exception. So in other word I try to explain the situation: when I load my page I am initializing some parameter. then everything is working fine. in my page when I change selected item of my combo box, page suppose to go and run function related to that combo box, and call page_load, but it is not going there and it goes to rowcreated function. I am trying to illustrate part of my page. Please help me because I am not receiving any error except null exception and it triger wrong even which seems so complicated for me. public partial class W_CM_FRM_02 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack && !loginFail) return; InitializeItems(); } } private void InitializeItems() { cols = new string[] { "v_classification_code", "v_classification_name" }; arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION = (ArrayList)db.Select(cols, "CMMM_CLASSIFICATION", "v_classification_code <> 'N'", " ORDER BY v_classification_name"); } } protected void DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { //db = (Database)Session["oCon"]; foreach (DataRow dr in arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION) ((DropDownList)DGV_RFA_DETAILS.Rows[index].Cells[4].FindControl("OV_RFA_CLASSIFICATION")).Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["v_classification_name"].ToString(), dr["v_classification_code"].ToString())); } protected void V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "xxx" || V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "ddd") V_IMPACTED_FUNCTIONS.Enabled = true; } } my form: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="W_CM_FRM_02.aspx.cs" Inherits="W_CM_FRM_02" Title="W_CM_FRM_02" enableeventvalidation="false" EnableViewState="true"%> <td>Project name*</td> <td><asp:DropDownList ID="V_CUSTOMER" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged" /></td> <td colspan = "8"> <asp:GridView ID="DGV_RFA_DETAILS" runat="server" ShowFooter="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CellPadding="1" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" OnRowDeleting="grvRFADetails_RowDeleting" Width="100%" Style="text-align: left" onrowcreated="DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated"> <RowStyle BackColor="#FFFBD6" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ON_RowNumber" HeaderText="SNo" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="RFA/RAD/Ticket No*"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="OV_RFA_NO" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField>

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Correlation formula explanation needed d3.js

- by divakar

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Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

- by baron

Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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Strange behavior of std::cout &operator<<...

- by themoondothshine

Hey ppl, I came across something weird today, and I was wondering if any of you here could explain what's happening... Here's a sample: #include <iostream> #include <cassert> using namespace std; #define REQUIRE_STRING(s) assert(s != 0) #define REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(s, n) assert(s != 0 || n == 0) class String { public: String(const char *str, size_t len) : __data(__construct(str, len)), __len(len) {} ~String() { __destroy(__data); } const char *toString() const { return const_cast<const char *>(__data); } String &toUpper() { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(__data, __len); char *it = __data; while(it < __data + __len) { if(*it >= 'a' && *it <= 'z') *it -= 32; ++it; } return *this; } String &toLower() { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(__data, __len); char *it = __data; while(it < __data + __len) { if(*it >= 'A' && *it <= 'Z') *it += 32; ++it; } return *this; } private: char *__data; size_t __len; protected: static char *__construct(const char *str, size_t len) { REQUIRE_STRING_LEN(str, len); char *data = new char[len]; std::copy(str, str + len, data); return data; } static void __destroy(char *data) { REQUIRE_STRING(data); delete[] data; } }; int main() { String s("Hello world!", __builtin_strlen("Hello world!")); cout << s.toLower().toString() << endl; cout << s.toUpper().toString() << endl; cout << s.toLower().toString() << endl << s.toUpper().toString() << endl; return 0; } Now, I had expected the output to be: hello world! HELLO WORLD! hello world! HELLO WORLD! but instead I got this: hello world! HELLO WORLD! hello world! hello world! I can't really understand why the second toUpper didn't have any effect.

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Why doesen't the number 2 work in this for-loop?

- by Emil

Hello. I have a function that runs trough each element in an array. It's hard to explain, so I'll just paste in the code here: NSLog(@"%@", arraySub); for (NSString *string in arrayFav){ int favoriteLoop = [string intValue] + favCount; NSLog(@"%d", favoriteLoop); id arrayFavObject = [array objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayFavObject retain]; [array removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [array insertObject:arrayFavObject atIndex:0]; [arrayFavObject release]; id arraySubFavObject = [arraySub objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arraySubFavObject retain]; [arraySub removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arraySub insertObject:arraySubFavObject atIndex:0]; [arraySubFavObject release]; id arrayLengthFavObject = [arrayLength objectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayLengthFavObject retain]; [arrayLength removeObjectAtIndex:favoriteLoop]; [arrayLength insertObject:arrayLengthFavObject atIndex:0]; [arrayLengthFavObject release]; } NSLog(@"%@", arraySub); The array arrayFav contains these strings: "3", "8", "2", "10", "40". Array array contains 92 strings with a name. Array arraySub contains numbers 0 to 91, representing a filename with a title from the array array. Array arrayLength contains 92 strings representing the size of each file from array arraySub. Now, the first NSLog shows, as expected, the numbers 0 to 91. The NSLog-s in the loop shows the numbers 3, 8, 2, 10, 40, also as expected. But here's the odd part: the last NSLog shows these numbers: 40, 10, 0, 8, 3, 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 11, 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27, 28, 29, 30, 31, 32, 33, 34, 35, 36, 37, 38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 44, 45, 46, 47, 48, 49, 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59, 60, 61, 62, 63, 64, 65, 66, 67, 68, 69, 70, 71, 72, 73, 74, 75, 76, 77, 78, 79, 80, 81, 82, 83, 84, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89, 90, 91 that is 40, 10, 0, 8, 3, and so on. It was not supposed to be a zero in there, it was supposed to be a 2.. Do you have any idea at why this is happening or a way to fix it? Thank you.

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current_user.user_type_id = @employer ID

- by sscirrus

I am building a system with a User model (authenticated using AuthLogic) and three user types in three models: one of these models is Employer. Each of these three models has_many :users, :as = :authenticable. I start by having a new visitor to the site create their own 'User' record with username, password, which user type they are, etc. Upon creation, the user is sent to the 'new' action for one of the three models. So, if they tell us they are an employer, we redirect_to :controller = "employers, :action = "new". Question: When the employer has submitted, I want to set the current_user.user_type_id equal to the employer ID. This should be simple... but it's not working. # Employers Controller / new def new @employer = Employer.new 1.times {@employer.addresses.build} render :layout => 'forms' end # Employers Controller / create def create @employer = Employer.new(params[:employer]) if @employer.save if current_user.blank? redirect_to :controller => "users", :action => "new" else current_user.user_type_id = @employer.id current_user.user_type = "Employer" redirect_to :action => "home", :id => current_user.user_type_id end else render :action => "new" end end ------UPDATE------ Hi guys. In response: I am using this table structure because each of my three user type models have lots of different fields and each has different relationships to the other models, which is why I've avoided STI. By 1.times (@employer.addresses.build) I'm connecting the employer model to the address polymorphic table in one form, so I'm asking the controller to build a new address to go along with the new employer. Averell: you mentioned encapsulating... something in the model using a 'setter' method. I have no idea what you mean by this - could you please explain how this works (or direct me to an example elsewhere)? With tsdbrown's answer I have managed to create the behavior I want... if there's a more elegant way to accomplish the same thing I'd love to learn how. Thanks very much. Thanks to tsdbrown for answering the current_user.save problem!

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Android Notification with AlarmManager, Broadcast and Service

- by user2435829

this is my code for menage a single notification: myActivity.java public class myActivity extends Activity { protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mylayout); cal = Calendar.getInstance(); // it is set to 10.30 cal.set(Calendar.HOUR, 10); cal.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 30); cal.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0); long start = cal.getTimeInMillis(); if(cal.before(Calendar.getInstance())) { start += AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES; } Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myReceiver.class); pIntent = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); AlarmManager myAlarm = (AlarmManager)getSystemService(ALARM_SERVICE); myAlarm.setRepeating(AlarmManager.RTC_WAKEUP, start, AlarmManager.INTERVAL_FIFTEEN_MINUTES, pIntent); } } myReceiver.java public class myReceiver extends BroadcastReceiver { @Override public void onReceive(Context c, Intent i) { Intent myService1 = new Intent(c, myAlarmService.class); c.startService(myService1); } } myAlarmService.java public class myAlarmService extends Service { @Override public IBinder onBind(Intent arg0) { return null; } @Override public void onCreate() { super.onCreate(); } @SuppressWarnings("deprecation") @Override public void onStart(Intent intent, int startId) { super.onStart(intent, startId); displayNotification(); } @Override public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); } public void displayNotification() { Intent mainIntent = new Intent(this, myActivity.class); PendingIntent pIntent = PendingIntent.getActivity(this, 0, mainIntent, PendingIntent.FLAG_UPDATE_CURRENT); NotificationManager nm = (NotificationManager) this.getSystemService(Context.NOTIFICATION_SERVICE); Notification.Builder builder = new Notification.Builder(this); builder.setContentIntent(pIntent) .setAutoCancel(true) .setSmallIcon(R.drawable.ic_noti) .setTicker(getString(R.string.notifmsg)) .setContentTitle(getString(R.string.app_name)) .setContentText(getString(R.string.notifmsg)); nm.notify(0, builder.build()); } } AndroidManifest.xml <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WAKE_LOCK" /> ... ... ... <service android:name=".myAlarmService" android:enabled="true" /> <receiver android:name=".myReceiver"/> IF the time has NOT past yet everything works perfectly. The notification appears when it must appear. BUT if the time HAS past (let's assume it is 10.31 AM) the notification fires every time... when I close and re-open the app, when I click on the notification... it has a really strange behavior. I can't figure out what's wrong in it. Can you help me please (and explain why, if you find a solution), thanks in advance :)

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Faulty to use memcache together with a php web-browser-game in this way?

- by Crowye

Background We are currently working on a strategy web-browser game based on php, html and javascript. The plan is to have 10,000+ users playing within the same world. Currently we are using memcached to: store json static data, language files store changeable serialized php class objects (such as armies, inventorys, unit-containers, buildings, etc) In the back we have a mysql server running and holding all the game data aswell. When a object is loaded through our ObjectLoader it loads in this order: checks a static hashmap in the script for the object checks memcache if it has already been loaded into it otherwise loads from database, and saves it into memcache and the static temp hashmap We have built the whole game using a class-object-oriented approach where functionality is always made between objects. Beause of this we think we have managed to get a nice structure, and with the help of memcached we have received good request times from client-server when interacting with the game. I'm aware that memcache is not synchronized, and also is not commonly used for holding a full game in memory. In the beginning after a server's startup the load times when loading objects into memcache for the first time will be high, but after the server's been online for a while and most loads are from memcache, the loads will be well reduced. Currently we are saving changed objects into memcache and database at the same time. Earlier we had an idea to save objects into db only after a certain time or at intervals, but due to risk inconsistency if the memcache/server went down, we skipped it for now. Client requests to server often return object's status simple json-format without changing the object, which in turn is represented in the browser visually with images and javascript. But from time to time depending on when an object was last updated, it updates them with new information (e.g. a build-queue holding planned buildings time-progress is increased, and/or planned-queue-items-array has changed). Questions: Do you see how this could work or are we walking in blindness here? Do you expect us to have a lot of inconsistency issues if someone loads and updates the a memcache objects while someone else does the same? Is it even doable to do it in the way he have done it? Seems to be working fine atm, but so far we have only been 4 people online at the same time.. Is some other cache program more fit for this class-object approach than memcached? Is there any other tips you have for this situation? UPDATE Since it is simply a "normal webpage" (no applet, flash, etc), we are implementing the game so that the server is the only one holding a "real game-state".. the state of the different javascript-objects on the client is more like a approximative version of the server's game state. From time to time and before you do certain things important things, the client's visual state is updated to the server's state (e.g. the client things he can afford a barracks, asks the server to build a barracks, server updates current resources according to income-data on server and then tries to build a barracks or casts an error-message, and then sends the current server-state on resources, buildings back to the client).. It is not a fast-paced game lika real strategy game. More like a quite slow 3-4 months playtime game, where buildings can take +1 minute up to several days to complete.

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ACL implementation

- by Kirzilla

First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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Generics vs Object performance

- by Risho

I'm doing practice problems from MCTS Exam 70-536 Microsft .Net Framework Application Dev Foundation, and one of the problems is to create two classes, one generic, one object type that both perform the same thing; in which a loop uses the class and iterated over thousand times. And using the timer, time the performance of both. There was another post at C# generics question that seeks the same questoion but nonone replied. Basically if in my code I run the generic class first it takes loger to process. If I run the object class first than the object class takes longer to process. The whole idea was to prove that generics perform faster. I used the original users code to save me some time. I didn't particularly see anything wrong with the code and was puzzled by the outcome. Can some one explain why the unusual results? Thanks, Risho Here is the code: class Program { class Object_Sample { public Object_Sample() { Console.WriteLine("Object_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(Object a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } class Generics_Samle<T> { public Generics_Samle() { Console.WriteLine("Generics_Sample Class"); } public long getTicks() { return DateTime.Now.Ticks; } public void display(T a) { Console.WriteLine("{0}", a); } } static void Main(string[] args) { long ticks_initial, ticks_final, diff_generics, diff_object; Object_Sample OS = new Object_Sample(); Generics_Samle<int> GS = new Generics_Samle<int>(); //Generic Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = GS.getTicks(); for (int i = 0; i < 50000; i++) { GS.display(i); } ticks_final = GS.getTicks(); diff_generics = ticks_final - ticks_initial; //Object Sample ticks_initial = 0; ticks_final = 0; ticks_initial = OS.getTicks(); for (int j = 0; j < 50000; j++) { OS.display(j); } ticks_final = OS.getTicks(); diff_object = ticks_final - ticks_initial; Console.WriteLine("\nPerformance of Generics {0}", diff_generics); Console.WriteLine("Performance of Object {0}", diff_object); Console.ReadKey(); } }

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How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

- by enzi

I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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C++ Exam Question

- by Carlucho

I just took an exam where i was asked the following: Write the function body of each of the methods GenStrLen, InsertChar and StrReverse for the given code bellow. You must take into consideration the following; How strings are constructed in C++ The string must not overflow Insertion of character increases its length by 1 An empty string is indicated by StrLen = 0 class Strings { private: char str[80]; int StrLen; public: // Constructor Strings() { StrLen=0; }; // A function for returning the length of the string 'str' int GetStrLen(void) { }; // A function to inser a character 'ch' at the end of the string 'str' void InsertChar(char ch) { }; // A function to reverse the content of the string 'str' void StrReverse(void) { }; }; The answer I gave was something like this (see bellow). My one of problem is that used many extra variables and that makes me believe am not doing it the best possible way, and the other thing is that is not working.... class Strings { private: char str[80]; int StrLen; int index; // *** Had to add this *** public: Strings(){ StrLen=0; } int GetStrLen(void){ for (int i=0 ; str[i]!='\0' ; i++) index++; return index; // *** Here am getting a weird value, something like 1829584505306 *** } void InsertChar(char ch){ str[index] = ch; // *** Not sure if this is correct cuz I was not given int index *** } void StrRevrse(void){ GetStrLen(); char revStr[index+1]; for (int i=0 ; str[i]!='\0' ; i++){ for (int r=index ; r>0 ; r--) revStr[r] = str[i]; } } }; I would appreciate if anyone could explain me toughly what is the best way to have answered the question and why. Also how come my professor closes each class function like " }; " i thought that was only used for ending classes and constructors only. Thanks a lot for your help.

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RaphaelJS HTML5 Library pathIntersection() bug or alternative optimisation (screenshots)

- by user1236048

I have a chart generated using RaphaelJS library. It is just on long path: M 50 122 L 63.230769230769226 130 L 76.46153846153845 130 L 89.6923076923077 128 L 102.92307692307692 56 L 116.15384615384615 106 L 129.3846153846154 88 L 142.6153846153846 114 L 155.84615384615384 52 L 169.07692307692307 30 L 182.3076923076923 62 L 195.53846153846152 130 L 208.76923076923077 74 L 222 130 L 235.23076923076923 66 L 248.46153846153845 102 L 261.6923076923077 32 L 274.9230769230769 130 L 288.15384615384613 130 L 301.38461538461536 32 L 314.6153846153846 86 L 327.8461538461538 130 L 341.07692307692304 70 L 354.30769230769226 130 L 367.53846153846155 102 L 380.7692307692308 120 L 394 112 L 407.2307692307692 68 L 420.46153846153845 48 L 433.6923076923077 92 L 446.9230769230769 128 L 460.15384615384613 110 L 473.38461538461536 78 L 486.6153846153846 130 L 499.8461538461538 56 L 513.0769230769231 116 L 526.3076923076923 80 L 539.5384615384614 58 L 552.7692307692307 40 L 566 130 L 579.2307692307692 94 L 592.4615384615385 64 L 605.6923076923076 122 L 618.9230769230769 98 L 632.1538461538461 120 L 645.3846153846154 70 L 658.6153846153845 82 L 671.8461538461538 76 L 685.0769230769231 124 L 698.3076923076923 110 L 711.5384615384615 94 L 724.7692307692307 130 L 738 130 L 751.2307692307692 66 L 764.4615384615385 118 L 777.6923076923076 70 L 790.9230769230769 130 L 804.1538461538461 44 L 817.3846153846154 130 L 830.6153846153845 36 L 843.8461538461538 92 L 857.076923076923 130 L 870.3076923076923 76 L 883.5384615384614 130 L 896.7692307692307 60 L 910 88 Also below these chart I have a jqueryUI slider of the same width (860px) and centered with the chart. I want when I move the slider to move a dot on the chart accordingly with the slider position. See attached screenshot: As you can see it seems to work fine. I've implemented this behaviour using the pathIntersection() method. On the slide event at each ui.value (x coordinate) I intersect my chartPath (the one from above) with a vertical straight line at the x coordinate. But still there are some problems. One of them is that it runs very hard, and it kinda freezes sometimes.. and very weird sometimes it doesn't seem to intersect at all even it should.. I'll example below 2 cases I identified: M 499.8461538461538 0 L 499.8461538461538 140 M 910 0 L 910 140 Could you please explain why this intersect behaviour happens (it should return a dot).. and the worst part it seems like it happens randomly.. if I use another chartdata. Also if you can identify another (better) solution to syncronise the slider position with the dot on the chart.. would be perfect. I thought about using Element.getPointAtLength(length), but I don't know how. I think I should save the pathSegments and for each to compute the start Length and the finish Length.

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Multiple column subselect in mysql 5 (5.1.42)

- by rubber boots

This one seems to be a simple problem, but I can't make it work in a single select or nested select. Retrieve the authors and (if any) advisers of a paper (article) into one row. I order to explain the problem, here are the two data tables (pseudo) papers (id, title, c_year) persons (id, firstname, lastname) plus a link table w/one extra attribute (pseudo): paper_person_roles( paper_id person_id act_role ENUM ('AUTHOR', 'ADVISER') ) This is basically a list of written papers (table: papers) and a list of staff and/or students (table: persons) An article my have (1,N) authors. An article may have (0,N) advisers. A person can be in 'AUTHOR' or 'ADVISER' role (but not at the same time). The application eventually puts out table rows containing the following entries: TH: || Paper_ID | Author(s) | Title | Adviser(s) | TD: || 21334 |John Doe, Jeff Tucker|Why the moon looks yellow|Brown, Rayleigh| ... My first approach was like: select/extract a full list of articles into the application, eg.SELECT q.id, q.title FROM papers AS q ORDER BY q.c_year and save the results of the query into an array (in the application). After this step, loop over the array of the returned information and retrieve authors and advisers (if any), via prepared statement (? is the paper's id) from the link table like:APPLICATION_LOOP(paper_ids in array) SELECT p.lastname, p.firstname, r.act_role FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE p.id=r.person_id AND r.paper_id = ? # The application does further processing from here (pseudo): foreach record from resulting records if record.act_role eq 'AUTHOR' then join to author_column if record.act_role eq 'ADVISER' then join to avdiser_column end print id, author_column, title, adviser_column APPLICATION_LOOP This works so far and gives the desired output. Would it make sense to put the computation back into the DB? I'm not very proficient in nontrivial SQL and can't find a solution with a single (combined or nested) select call. I tried sth. like SELECT q.title (CONCAT_WS(' ', (SELECT p.firstname, p.lastname AS aunames FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE q.id=r.paper_id AND r.act_role='AUTHOR') ) ) AS aulist FROM papers AS q, persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r in several variations, but no luck ... Maybe there is some chance? Thanks in advance r.b.

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How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

- by oscar.fimbres

I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

- by Dan Herbert

When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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