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  • Stop an executing recursive javascript function

    - by DA
    Using jQuery, I've build an image/slide rotator. The basic setup is (in pseudocode): function setupUpSlide(SlideToStartWith){ var thisSlide = SlideToStartWith; ...set things up... fadeInSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeInSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade in this slide... fadeOutSlide(thisSlide) } function fadeOutSlide(thisSlide){ ...fade out this slide... setupUpSlide(nextSlide) } I call the first function and pass in a particular slide index, and then it does its thing calling chain of functions which then, in turn, calls the first function again passing in the next index. This then repeats infinitely (resetting the index when it gets to the last item). This works just fine. What I want to do now is allow someone to over-ride the slide show by being able to click on a particular slide number. Therefore, if slide #8 is showing and I click #3, I want the recursion to stop and then call the initial function passing in slide #3, which then, in turn, will start the process again. But I'm not sure how to go about that. How does one properly 'break' a recursive script. Should I create some sort of global 'watch' variable that if at any time is 'true' will return: false and allow the new function to execute?

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  • How do I find all paths through a set of given nodes in a DAG?

    - by Hanno Fietz
    I have a list of items (blue nodes below) which are categorized by the users of my application. The categories themselves can be grouped and categorized themselves. The resulting structure can be represented as a Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG) where the items are sinks at the bottom of the graph's topology and the top categories are sources. Note that while some of the categories might be well defined, a lot is going to be user defined and might be very messy. Example: On that structure, I want to perform the following operations: find all items (sinks) below a particular node (all items in Europe) find all paths (if any) that pass through all of a set of n nodes (all items sent via SMTP from example.com) find all nodes that lie below all of a set of nodes (intersection: goyish brown foods) The first seems quite straightforward: start at the node, follow all possible paths to the bottom and collect the items there. However, is there a faster approach? Remembering the nodes I already passed through probably helps avoiding unnecessary repetition, but are there more optimizations? How do I go about the second one? It seems that the first step would be to determine the height of each node in the set, as to determine at which one(s) to start and then find all paths below that which include the rest of the set. But is this the best (or even a good) approach? The graph traversal algorithms listed at Wikipedia all seem to be concerned with either finding a particular node or the shortest or otherwise most effective route between two nodes. I think both is not what I want, or did I just fail to see how this applies to my problem? Where else should I read?

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  • Unity in C# for Platform Specific Implementations

    - by DxCK
    My program has heavy interaction with the operating system through Win32API functions. now i want to migrate my program to run under Mono under Linux (No wine), and this requires different implementations to the interaction with the operating system. I started designing a code that can have different implementation for difference platform and is extensible for new future platforms. public interface ISomeInterface { void SomePlatformSpecificOperation(); } [PlatformSpecific(PlatformID.Unix)] public class SomeImplementation : ISomeInterface { #region ISomeInterface Members public void SomePlatformSpecificOperation() { Console.WriteLine("From SomeImplementation"); } #endregion } public class PlatformSpecificAttribute : Attribute { private PlatformID _platform; public PlatformSpecificAttribute(PlatformID platform) { _platform = platform; } public PlatformID Platform { get { return _platform; } } } public static class PlatformSpecificUtils { public static IEnumerable<Type> GetImplementationTypes<T>() { foreach (Assembly assembly in AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()) { foreach (Type type in assembly.GetTypes()) { if (typeof(T).IsAssignableFrom(type) && type != typeof(T) && IsPlatformMatch(type)) { yield return type; } } } } private static bool IsPlatformMatch(Type type) { return GetPlatforms(type).Any(platform => platform == Environment.OSVersion.Platform); } private static IEnumerable<PlatformID> GetPlatforms(Type type) { return type.GetCustomAttributes(typeof(PlatformSpecificAttribute), false) .Select(obj => ((PlatformSpecificAttribute)obj).Platform); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Type first = PlatformSpecificUtils.GetImplementationTypes<ISomeInterface>().FirstOrDefault(); } } I see two problems with this design: I can't force the implementations of ISomeInterface to have a PlatformSpecificAttribute. Multiple implementations can be marked with the same PlatformID, and i dont know witch to use in the Main. Using the first one is ummm ugly. How to solve those problems? Can you suggest another design?

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  • Hide a single content block from search engines?

    - by jonas
    A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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  • Zend Routes conflict

    - by meder
    I have defined 2 custom routes. One for threads/:id/:name and the other for threads/tags/:tagName however the second one conflicts with the first because if I enable both then the first breaks and treats :id literally as an action, not obeying the \d+ requirement ( I also tried using pure regex routes, see bottom ). Action "1" does not exist and was not trapped in __call() I tried re-arranging the order of the routes but if I do that then the threads/tags/:tagName doesnt correctly capture the tagName. I also tried disabling default routes but the routes still don't properly work after that. Here's my route init function: protected function _initRoutes() { $fc = Zend_Controller_Front::getInstance(); $router = $fc->getRouter(); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/:id/:name', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 'id' => '\d+' ) ) ); $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route('threads/tags/:tagName', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'tags', ), array( 'tagName' => '[a-zA-Z]+' ) ) ); } I also tried using a pure regex route but was unsuccessful, most likely because I did it wrong: $router->addRoute( 'threads', new Zend_Controller_Router_Route_Regex( 'threads/(\d+)/([a-zA-Z]+)', array( 'controller' => 'threads', 'action' => 'thread', ), array( 1 => 'tagName', 2 => 'name' ) ) );

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  • jQuery Dialog form serialize reposting incorrect data on subsequent uses

    - by Ben Dauphinee
    I'm working with forms inside jQuery Dialog, and am having some issues with the data it's posting. First load and save works fine, posts the correct data. Until I refresh the page though, every subsequent load seems to work, as in the correct data is in the form, however, when saved, the data from the first load is what is posted every time. function formdialog(url, tack, divid, scriptload){ $.getJSON(url+tack+"/form", function(data){ var formwin = '<div><form id="formdialog">'+data['form']+'</form></div>'; var dialog = $(formwin).dialog({ title: data['title'], autoOpen: false, modal: true, buttons: { "Save": function(){ $.post(url+tack+"/process", $("#formdialog").serialize(), function(data){ alert($("#formdialog").serialize()); $(this).dialog('close'); $(this).remove(); } ); }, "Cancel": function(){$(this).dialog('close'); $(this).remove();} } }); dialog.dialog("open"); }); } $(function(){ $("a.edlnk").click(function(){ var url = $(this).attr("href"); formdialog(CONFIG_HREF_SITE+"ajax/"+appControl, "/"+url, divid); return false; }); });

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  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • return only the last select results from stored procedure

    - by Madalina Dragomir
    The requirement says: stored procedure meant to search data, based on 5 identifiers. If there is an exact match return ONLY the exact match, if not but there is an exact match on the not null parameters return ONLY these results, otherwise return any match on any 4 not null parameters... and so on My (simplified) code looks like: create procedure xxxSearch @a nvarchar(80), @b nvarchar(80)... as begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null and t.a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null and t.b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin select whatever from MyTable t where ((@a is null) or (@a = t.a)) and ((@b is null) or (@b = t.b))... if @@ROWCOUNT = 0 begin ... end end end As a result there can be more sets of results selected, the first ones empty and I only need the last one. I know that it is easy to get the only the last result set on the application side, but all our stored procedure calls go through a framework that expects the significant results in the first table and I'm not eager to change it and test all the existing SPs. Is there a way to return only the last select results from a stored procedure? Is there a better way to do this task ?

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  • Visual Studio and .NET programming

    - by Vit
    Hi, I just want to ask wheather I am right or not about .NET. So, .NET is new framework that enables you to easily implement new and old windows functions. It is similiar to java in the way that its also compiled into "bytecode", but its name is Common Language Infrastructure, or CLI. This language is interpreted by .NET Framework, so code generated by programming using .NET cannot be executed directly by CPU. Now, few languages can be compiled to CLI. First, it was Microsoft-developed C#, than J#, C++ others. I suspect that this is in general right, at least I hope I understand it right. But, what I am still missing is, can you write to machine code compiled code in C#? And, if using Visual Studio 2005, when I select Win32 project, it is compiled into machine code, so only thing you need to run this apps are windows dynamic-link libraries, since static libraries code is implemented into app durink linking phase. And those dynamic-link libraries are implemented in every windows installation, or provided by DirectX installations. But when I select CLR in Visual Studio 2005, than app is compiled into CLI code, and it first executes .NET framework, and than .NET framework executes that program, since its not in machine code. So, I am right? I ask becouse you can read these infos on the internet, but I have noone to tell me wheather I understand it right or not. Thanks.

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  • Read IFrame content using JavaScript

    - by Rajat
    Ok, This is my first time dealing seriously with IFrames and I cant seem to understand a few things: First the sample code I am testing with: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> function init(){ console.log("IFrame content: " + window.frames['i1'].document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].innerHTML); } </script> </head> <body onload="init();"> <iframe name="i1" src="foo.txt"/> </body> the file "foo.txt" looks like this: sample text file Questions: 1) The iframe seems to be behaving as a HTML document and the file text is actually part of the body instead. Why ? Is it a rule for an IFrame to be a HTML document. Is it not possible for the content of an iframe to be just plain text ?? 2) The file content gets wrapped inside a pre tag for some reason. Why is this so ? Is it always the case? 3) My access method in the javascript is working but is there any other alternative? [native js solutions please] If the content is wrapped in a pre tag always then I will actually have to lookup inside the pre tag rather than lookup the innerHTML

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  • Sudoku Recursion Issue (Java)

    - by SkylineAddict
    I'm having an issue with creating a random Sudoku grid. I tried modifying a recursive pattern that I used to solve the puzzle. The puzzle itself is a two dimensional integer array. This is what I have (By the way, the method doesn't only randomize the first row. I had an idea to randomize the first row, then just decided to do the whole grid): public boolean randomizeFirstRow(int row, int col){ Random rGen = new Random(); if(row == 9){ return true; } else{ boolean res; for(int ndx = rGen.nextInt() + 1; ndx <= 9;){ //Input values into the boxes sGrid[row][col] = ndx; //Then test to see if the value is valid if(this.isRowValid(row, sGrid) && this.isColumnValid(col, sGrid) && this.isQuadrantValid(row, col, sGrid)){ // grid valid, move to the next cell if(col + 1 < 9){ res = randomizeFirstRow(row, col+1); } else{ res = randomizeFirstRow( row+1, 0); } //If the value inputed is valid, restart loop if(res == true){ return true; } } } } //If no value can be put in, set value to 0 to prevent program counting to 9 setGridValue(row, col, 0); //Return to previous method in stack return false; } This results in an ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException with a ridiculously high or low number (+- 100,000). I've tried to see how far it goes into the method, and it never goes beyond this line: if(this.isRowValid(row, sGrid) && this.isColumnValid(col, sGrid) && this.isQuadrantValid(row, col, sGrid)) I don't understand how the array index goes so high. Can anyone help me out?

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  • PHP file upload issue

    - by Varun
    I am working on a PHP based, ticket management system. While creating a ticket, one can upload an attachment. I want to put a limit (say 10 MB) per file upload. To implement this I plan the following- 1. In php.ini set post_max_size = 10M 2.In PHP script which receives the POST- Since the file is larger than post_max_size, $_FILES[] will be empty. But I can still check the content-length header and discard the upload, if size more than 10M. While testing this I tried uploading a file of 1 GB and analysed the http traffic and this is what I found. - the entire 1 GB data is first uploaded to a to the server temporarily and discarded once the http request completes. Though I couldn't exactly find out where the file was getting saved(as it was not there in the temporary directory in the server.), but my http traffic analyzer showed that the browser did send 1 GB data to the server. - the PHP script execution started only after completion of the http request(i.e after uploading the entire 1 GB) Now I have 2 concerns: a) People may exploit my server bandwidth by trying to upload large file, which I will have to discard anyways. b) Even worse, if someone starts uploading a huge file (say 100 GB), entire 100 GB data is first uploaded to the server temporarily, that means for that period, it will consume that much of memory on my server. What's the common solution for this. Am I missing something here?

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  • Two part question about submitting bluetooth-enabled apps for the iPhone

    - by Kyle
    I have a couple questions about submitting blue-tooth enabled apps on the iPhone. I want to first say that bluetooth is merely an option in the application. The application does not completely rely on bluetooth as there are many modes the user can go in. First, do they require you to have the "peer-peer" key set in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities even if bluetooth interface options can be disabled or hidden for non-bluetooth enabled devices? Basically, it's just an OPTION in the game and there are many other modes the player can play.. Does Apple not allow you to do that? I'm just curious, because it seems like something they would do. Adding to that, how do you check for it's functionality at runtime? In essence, how do you check UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities at runtime. I'm aware of checking iPhone device types, so would that be a proper way of going about it? I'm also sort of unaware which devices can run bluetooth gamekit, there doesn't seem to be a proper reference at the SDK site, or I'm unable to find it. Thanks for reading! [edit] I can confirm the existance of somebody rejected for submitting a bluetooth enabled app which didn't work on a iPhone 2G.. Of course, they didn't say if that was the MAIN function of the app, though.

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  • How Would a Newborn Baby Learn Web Programming?

    - by Mugatu
    Hello all, I chose that title because I equate my knowledge of web programming and web development with that of a newborn. Here's the shortest version of my story and what I'm looking to do: A friend and I have been coming up with website ideas for a couple years, mostly just jotting them down whenever we come up with a good, useful idea when browsing the web. For the past 6 months we've hired a couple different programmers to make a couple of the sites for us, but have been disappointed with how it's gone. Been too slow and too many miscommunications for our liking. So like the saying goes if you want something done right do it yourself, we're going to do it ourselves. I know nothing about programming, I've never written a line of code in my life. I consider myself very good with math and about as logical as you can get, but I have zero real-life programming knowledge. The sites we want to make are all pretty 'Web 2.0'ish', meaning user-generated content, commenting on posts, pages that change on the fly, etc. So here are some of my questions for anyone who's been there before: Is there a language you'd recommend learning first? Something that is a good indicator how most other languages work? What web programming languages do you recommend learning first based on popularity both now and the future. I don't want to learn a language that's going to be outdated by the time I'm an expert at it. Any specific books you'd recommend? Any general advice you'd give to someone literally starting at square zero for coding who plans on being in it for the long haul? Thanks in advance for the help

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  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

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  • using jquery selector to change attribute in variable returned from ajax request

    - by Blake
    I'm trying to pull in a filename.txt (contains html) using ajax and change the src path in the data variable before I load it into the target div. If I first load it into the div the browser first requests the broken image and I don't want this so I would like to do my processing before I load anything onto the page. I can pull the src values fine but I can't change them. In this example the src values aren't changed. Is there a way to do this with selectors or can they only modify DOM elements? Otherwise I may have to do some regex replace but using a selector will be more convenient if possible. $.ajax( { url: getDate+'/'+name+'.txt', success: function(data) { $('img', data).attr('src', 'new_test_src'); $('#'+target).fadeOut('slow', function(){ $('#'+target).html(data); $('#'+target).fadeIn('slow'); }); } }); My reason is I'm building a fully standalone javascript template system for a newsletter and since images and other things are upload via a drupal web file manager I want the content creators to keep their paths very short and simple and I can then modify them before I load in the content. This will also be distributed on a CD so I can need to change the paths for that so they still work.

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  • how to store a file handle in perl class

    - by Haiyuan Zhang
    please look at the following code first. #! /usr/bin/perl package foo; sub new { my $pkg = shift; my $self = {}; my $self->{_fd} = undef; bless $self, $pkg; return $self; } sub Setfd { my $self = shift; my $fd = shift; $self_->{_fd} = $fd; } sub write { my $self = shift; print $self->{_fd} "hello word"; } my $foo = new foo; My intention is to store a file handle within a class using hash. the file handle is undefined at first, but can be initilized afterwards by calling Setfd function. then write can be called to actually write string "hello word" to a file indicated by the file handle, supposed that the file handle is the result of a success "write" open. but, perl compiler just complains that there are syntax error in the "print" line. can anyone of you tells me what's wrong here? thanks in advance.

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  • How to Return Variable for all tests to use Unittest

    - by chrissygormley
    Hello, I have a Python script and I am trying to set a variable so that if the first test fail's the rest of then will be set to fail. The script I have so far is: class Tests(): def function: result function.......... def errorHandle(self): return self.error def sudsPass(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals(): self.error = True self.errorHandle() assert True else: self.error = False self.errorHandle() assert False def sudsFail(self): try: result = self.client.service.GetStreamUri(self.stream, self.token) except suds.WebFault, e: assert False except Exception, e: pass finally: if 'result' in locals() or self.error == False: assert False else: assert True class GetStreamUri(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.sudsPass() class GetStreamUriProtocolFail(TestGetStreamUri): def runTest(self): self.stream.Transport.Protocol = "NoValue" self.errorHandle() self.sudsFail() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main() I am trying to get self.error to be set to False if the first test fail. I understand that it is being set in another test but I was hoping someone could help me find a solution to this problem using some other means. Thanks PS. Please ignore the strange tests. There is a problem with the error handling at the moment.

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  • How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

    - by chiborg
    Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

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  • clicking browser back button is opening a link in the previous page.

    - by Jebli
    I am using the below code protected void lnk_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { string strlink = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["link"].ToString().Trim(); StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("<script type = 'text/javascript'>"); sb.Append("window.open('"); sb.Append(strlink); sb.Append("');"); sb.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "script", sb.ToString()); } } In the page there are two links. When i click the first link it opens a window in a new page. I do this by using the above code. I am clicking the second link in the page and navigating to another page. Now i am clicking the browser back button. Supprisingly its opening the first link. How clicking back button is opening the link in the page. I am using c# .net 2005. Please help. Thanks. Regards,enter code here Radha A

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  • PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

    - by Carvell Fenton
    Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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  • What is best practice about having one-many hibernate

    - by Patrick
    Hi all, I believe this is a common scenario. Say I have a one-many mapping in hibernate Category has many Item Category: @OneToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL},fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name="category_id") @Cascade( value = org.hibernate.annotations.CascadeType.DELETE_ORPHAN ) private List<Item> items; Item: @ManyToOne(targetEntity=Category.class,fetch=FetchType.EAGER) @JoinColumn(name="category_id",insertable=false,updatable=false) private Category category; All works fine. I use Category to fully control Item's life cycle. But, when I am writing code to update Category, first I get Category out from DB. Then pass it to UI. User fill in altered values for Category and pass back. Here comes the problem. Because I only pass around Category information not Item. Therefore the Item collection will be empty. When I call saveOrUpdate, it will clean out all associations. Any suggestion on what's best to address this? I think the advantage of having Category controls Item is to easily main the order of Item and not to confuse bi-directly. But what about situation that you do want to just update Category it self? Load it first and merge? Thank you.

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  • How can I remove a JPanel from a JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Recently I asked here how to add a new JPanel to JFrame. The answer helped me to get a working code. But not I have a related question: "How can I remove an old JPanel". I need that because of the following problem. A new JPanel appears appears when I want (either time limit is exceeded or user press the "Submit" button). But in several seconds some element of the old JPanel appears together with the component of the new JPanel. I do not understand why it happens. I thought that it is because I have to other threads which update the window. But the first thread just add the old panel once (so, it should be finished). And in the second thread I have a loop which is broken (so, it also should be finished). Here is my code: private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { // First we set the initial pane (for the selection of partner). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); // Update the pane for the selection of the parnter. for (int i=40; i>0; i=i-1) { final int sec = i; SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { timeLeftLabel.setText(sec + " seconds left."); } }); try {Thread.sleep(1000);} catch (InterruptedException e) {} if (partnerSubmitted) {break;} } // For the given user the selection phase is finished (either the time is over or form was submitted). SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { frame.getContentPane().add(generateWaitForGamePanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }); } };

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  • Refactoring code/consolidating functions (e.g. nested for-loop order)

    - by bmay2
    Just a little background: I'm making a program where a user inputs a skeleton text, two numbers (lower and upper limit), and a list of words. The outputs are a series of modifications on the skeleton text. Sample inputs: text = "Player # likes @." (replace # with inputted integers and @ with words in list) lower = 1 upper = 3 list = "apples, bananas, oranges" The user can choose to iterate over numbers first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 2 likes apples. Player 3 likes apples. Or words first: Player 1 likes apples. Player 1 likes bananas. Player 1 likes oranges. I chose to split these two methods of outputs by creating a different type of dictionary based on either number keys (integers inputted by the user) or word keys (from words in the inputted list) and then later iterating over the values in the dictionary. Here are the two types of dictionary creation: def numkey(dict): # {1: ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 1 likes...' ] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for num in range(lower,upper+1): l = [] for i in list: l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[num] = l return d def wordkey(dict): # {'apples': ['Player 1 likes apples', 'Player 2 likes apples'..] } text, lower, upper, list = input_sort(dict) d = {} for i in list: l = [] for num in range(lower,upper+1): l.append(text.replace('#', str(num)).replace('@', i)) d[i] = l return d It's fine that I have two separate functions for creating different types of dictionaries but I see a lot of repetition between the two. Is there any way I could make one dictionary function and pass in different values to it that would change the order of the nested for loops to create the specific {key : value} pairs I'm looking for? I'm not sure how this would be done. Is there anything related to functional programming or other paradigms that might help with this? The question is a little abstract and more stylistic/design-oriented than anything.

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  • Unit testing, mocking - simple case: Service - Repository

    - by rafek
    Consider a following chunk of service: public class ProductService : IProductService { private IProductRepository _productRepository; // Some initlization stuff public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { return _productRepository.GetProduct(id); } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } } Let's consider a simple unit test: [Test] public void GetProduct_return_the_same_product_as_getProduct_on_productRepository() { var product = EntityGenerator.Product(); _productRepositoryMock.Setup(pr => pr.GetProduct(product.Id)).Returns(product); Product returnedProduct = _productService.GetProduct(product.Id); Assert.AreEqual(product, returnedProduct); _productRepositoryMock.VerifyAll(); } At first it seems that this test is ok. But let's change our service method a little bit: public Product GetProduct(int id) { try { var product = _productRepository.GetProduct(id); product.Owner = "totallyDifferentOwner"; return product; } catch (Exception e) { // log, wrap then throw } } How to rewrite a given test that it'd pass with the first service method and fail with a second one? How do you handle this kind of simple scenarios? HINT: A given test is bad coz product and returnedProduct is actually the same reference.

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